CHEMISTRY ASCP RECALL | ACCURATE AND VERIFIED FOR GUARANTEED PASS | GUARANTEED PASS, Exams of Chemistry

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CHEMISTRY ASCP RECALL | ACCURATE AND

VERIFIED FOR GUARANTEED PASS |

GUARANTEED PASS| LATEST UPDATE|2024-

2025 WITH 200 QUESTIONS

How many tissues in the body

• ANSWER There are 4 types of tissues in the body: connective, epithelial, nervous, and muscle. What type of microtome is used to section Paraffin embedded blocks, frozen sections in cryostat, and resin embedded cases?
• ANSWER Rotary microtome. Tetrose falls into which of the following groups?
• ANSWER Monosaccharides. A dark yellow/amber urine color may indicate which of the following?
• ANSWER Increased bilirubin from liver problems Many diseases affect the production, uptake, storage, metabolism and excretion of bilirubin. Which of the following diseases is characterized by increased total bilirubin, increased conjugated bilirubin and normal unconjugated bilirubin?
• ANSWER Intrahepatic cholestasis Which of the following ketones should appear in the greatest levels in the body?
• ANSWER 3-β-Hydroxybutyric acid. A woman who has an HDL of less than 50 mg/dL.

• ANSWER Has an increased risk of heart disease Abnormally high levels of sodium can be a result of:
  • ANSWER Cushing syndrome. Which marker is useful in ovarian and endometriosis carcinomas?
• ANSWER CA 125. It is also high in certain inflammatory conditions such as pelvic inflammatory disease What is the role of albuminuria testing
• ANSWER Detect small urinary concentrations of albumin before there is irreparable renal damage Which of the following markers is often elevated with a solid tumor mass?
• ANSWER LDH. It is shown to be high with solid tumors. This makes it useful in monitoring the size of tumors during treatment. Which of the following accounts for 90 percent of osmolality in plasma?
• ANSWER Sodium (Na+). Sodium (Na+) is necessary for electrolyte balance. It associated with anions, which is why it accounts for 90 percent of osmolality in plasma. Which of the following types of chromatography uses large, nonrigid support materials and gives long separation with broad peaks and poor limits of detection?
• ANSWER Column. The mobile phase flows by gravity. Its applications include sample purification and removal of interference. The migration of charged solutes or particles in an electrical field is called:
  • ANSWER Electrophoresis Which of the following statements about the bronchodilator theophylline is incorrect?
  • ANSWER It becomes toxic at > 40 μg/mL. It is used to treat and/or prevent the symptoms of bronchial asthma, chronic bronchitis , and emphysema.

What category of connective tissue is found in nerves, organs, skin, and surrounding blood vessels? - ANSWER Loose connective. Loose connective contains fibers and many cell types in the gelatinous matrix. Connective tissue contains mast cells, adipocytes, macrophages, and fibroblasts cell types Which troponin protein binds the troponin complex to tropomyosin?

• ANSWER Troponin T (TnT) If there are 25g of NaCl per liter of solution, what is the molarity of the solution?
• ANSWER 0.43M All of the following are primary functions of the kidney, EXCEPT?
• ANSWER Reabsorption of waste products Elevation in conjugated bilirubin is most likely to be found in which of the following conditions? - ANSWER Biliary obstruction The process of pipetting 1.0 mL of plasma or serum into a tube containing 1.0 mL of saline, mixing the contents, and then repeating the same procedure into several additional tubes also containing 1.0 mL of saline is referred to as:
• ANSWER Two-fold serial dilution It is important to specify if a blood specimen is a capillary specimen rather than a venous specimen. How will the following laboratory results be affected if a capillary specimen is tested?
• ANSWER Potassium, calcium, and total protein are lower in capillary specimens, where glucose is typically higher than in venous blood. Which of the following statements about diagnosing gestational diabetes is true?
• ANSWER All non-diabetic pregnant women should be screened at 24 to 28 weeks of gestation. When measuring enzyme activity, if the instrument is operating 5ºC lower than the temperature prescribed for the method, how will the results be affected?

• ANSWER Lower than actual A laboratory fire that is the direct result of an electrical malfunction associated with laboratory instrumentation would be classified as:
• ANSWER Class C A patient is admitted to the hospital with acute chest pain, but which of the following cardiac markers will be elevated FIRST if the patient had a myocardial infarction (MI)?
• ANSWER Myoglobin High levels of lipoprotein-associated phospholipase A2 (Lp-PLA2) are associated with:
• ANSWER Increased cardiovascular risk Select the statement that best describes high sensitivity CRP (hs-CRP) testing?
• ANSWER hs-CRP is a marker of chronic inflammation and measured to predict the risk of cardiovascular disease Following a myocardial infarction which of the following enzymes will be the first to become elevated: - ANSWER CK Which of the following is a cause of metabolic alkalosis?
• ANSWER Excessive vomiting After complaining to her physician about persistent pelvic pain and abdominal pressure, Mrs. Smith, had laboratory testing ordered. Since her physician would like to rule-out ovarian cancer, which of the following assays would be most helpful?
• ANSWER CA Which statement best describes small dense LDL particles that can occur in atherogenic dyslipidemia? - ANSWER Small dense LDL molecules are more atherogenic because they can more easily move into the endothelium and vessel wall

Which one of the stains below is used to detect separated nucleic acids?

• ANSWER SyBr Green Which one of the following is the correct definition of isoelectric point (pI)?
  • ANSWER The pH where a molecule has a net charge of zero Which statement about samples or specimens for electrophoresis is correct?
• ANSWER DNA fragments and RNA are isolated and purified before electrophoresis Which component of an electrophoresis system sets the pH?
  • ANSWER buffer Which property of solutes listed below determines the direction of migration (which electrode the solutes migrate to) in routine serum electrophoresis?
• ANSWER charge Which one of the statements below is a correct description of one of the newer types of electrophoresis?
• ANSWER Capillary electrophoresis (CE) occurs in a capillary tube with detection while the solutes separate and migrate in the tube. What causes polyacrylamide gels to have a greater resolution of proteins than agarose gels?
• ANSWER varying pore size in each polyacrylamide layer Some molecular diagnostics utilizes blotting techniques to separate nucleic acids; northern blotting separates RNA . - ANSWER TRUE

Which one of the following is an immunochemical electrophoresis that uses antisera and quantitates an unknown antigen?

• ANSWER electroimmunoassay electrophoresis Proteins in a buffer that sets the pH at 8.6 will become ___________ charged and migrate to the ____________. – ANSWER negatively ; anode Which one of the following is a detergent added to gel media that enhances separation of solutes during electrophoresis?
  • ANSWER sodium dodecyl sulfate The normal pH for a healthy adult's urine is : - ANSWER 6 The Gram's stain counterstain is:
  • ANSWER Safranin A sediment with moderate hematuria and RBC casts most likely results from:
• ANSWER Acute glomerulonephritis The best type of microscope to use for examining unstained, wet mount is:
• ANSWER Phase contrast What test confirms the presence of Bence-Jones proteinuria?
• ANSWER Immunoelectrophoresis In which age group is Type I Hereditary Hemochromatosis (HH - the most common form) most likely to be initially detected based on clinical symptoms?
  • ANSWER Middle aged adults

the process of the motion of a liquid when a voltage is applied between the ends of an insulating tube that contains that liquid - ANSWER Electroosmosis an absorbance measurement that uses a densitometer to measure the absorbance of stained compounds on a support medium or electrophoretic strip - ANSWER Densitometry a process based on the electrical resistance across an aperture when a particle in a conductive liquid passes through this aperture - ANSWER Electrical impedance an electroanalytical method based on the measurement of a current that develops in an electrochemical cell under conditions of complete concentration polarization - ANSWER Voltammetry How is the majority of urobilinogen that is produced daily removed from the body? - ANSWER Through fecal excretion What are the temperatures for the Bence-Jones protein heat precipitation test? - ANSWER Precipitates between 40° and 60°C but redissolves at 100°C CD5 antigen is normally found on what lymphocyte population? - ANSWER Mature T cells Which hemoglobin will be increased in delta-beta thalassemia? - ANSWER Hb F In beta thalassemia - ANSWER HbA, a2ß2, is decreased or absent In delta beta thalassemia - ANSWER HbA2, a2d2, is decreased What is the cause of iron overload in hereditary hemochromatosis? - ANSWER Absorption of excessive amounts of iron in the small intestine What procedure utilizes leukapheresis to collect the buffy coat from whole blood? - ANSWER Photopheresis

What is the half-life of immunosuppressive drugs cyclosporine and tacrolimus? - ANSWER 10-12 hours the reference range for blood pH is - ANSWER 7.35-7. What antigens are well developed on fetal cells? - ANSWER Kell Test used to test for ketones in urine, serum, and whole blood - ANSWER Acetest How many cells are counted on a bone marrow differential? - ANSWER 200 cells at 100x oil immersion What tube must be collected first in a capillary puncture? - ANSWER Lavendar What analyte shows no difference between capillary and venous values? - ANSWER Phosphorous What protein is also known as prealbumin? - ANSWER Transthyretin What instrument measures changes in vapor pressure? - ANSWER Osometer Levy-Jennings charts require at least ___________ days worth of results - ANSWER 20 What condition is associated with chronic thiamine (vit B1) deficiency? - ANSWER beriberi Vitamin A deficiency is associated with: - ANSWER Night blindness Vitamin D deficiency is associated with: - ANSWER Rickets What modified PCR technique is used to detect Mycobacterium tuberculosis? - ANSWER Transcription- mediated amplification

A strict halophilic (salt-loving) organism is: - ANSWER Vibrio vulnificus What is the most common human parasitic worm in the US? - ANSWER Nematodes (roundworms) A standard donation of 450-500 mL requires a minimum anticoagulant-preservative volume of: - ANSWER 63 mL Resistance to novobiocin is one of the key characteristics of: - ANSWER Staphylococcus saprophyticus The confirmatory test for proteinuria: - ANSWER Sulfosalicylic acid What trimester is there the greatest risk of complications of maternal rubella infection? - ANSWER First trimester (first 12 weeks) PNA-FISH assays provide distinction between: - ANSWER MRSA and MSSA Unconjugated bilirubin is conjugated in the liver with ________________ to become water soluble. - ANSWER Glucuronic acid All shigella species are citrate _________. - ANSWER Negative What stain is used for reticulocytes? - ANSWER Brilliant cresyl blue CK-BB - ANSWER brain and lungs CK-MB - ANSWER heart CK-MM - ANSWER skeletal muscle What test is used to quantify a coagulation inhibitor? - ANSWER Bethesda assay

Electrophoretic separation of hemoglobin fundamentally relies on: - ANSWER the electrical charge differences of the molecules What inclusions are commonly found post-splenectomy? - ANSWER Howell-Jolly bodies (DNA remnants that would normally be removed by the spleen) What coagulation test measures fibrinogen function? - ANSWER Thrombin Time (TT) The best technique for measuring the severity of HDFN is: - ANSWER Doppler UItrasound What does aldosterone do? - ANSWER Stimulates Na+ reabsorption What color does starch stain with iodine? - ANSWER Blue-Black Mycobacterium kansasii is a: - ANSWER photochromogen Corynebacterium are commonly isolated from the _____________________ of healthy people. (rarely pathogenic) - ANSWER Nasopharynx Kell, Duffy, and Kidd all generally react at __________. - ANSWER AHG What is the "LD flip" - ANSWER In normal conditions, LD-2 is present in higher concentrations than LD-1. The reverse is true in a Myocardial Infarction (MI) (more LD-1, less LD-2) What analyte is elevated in billiary obstruction? - ANSWER conjugated bilirubin Mature neutrophils with heavy chromatin clumping: - ANSWER Pelger-Huet

Dohle-body like inclusion in NE, EO, and MO, decreased platelets with poor granulation, giant platelets - ANSWER May-hegglin anomaly Precipitated mucopolysaccharides, appear as purple-red particles in NE, EO, BA. - ANSWER Alder-Reilly inclusions Approximately 95% of pulmonary emboli originate in: - ANSWER deep veins of the legs Xanthochromia of CSF may be an indication of: - ANSWER a previous subarachnoid hemorrhage Codocytes (target cells) - ANSWER found in B-thalassemia minor, intermedia, and major What bacterial enzyme activates the fibrinolytic system? - ANSWER Streptokinase (naturally produced by Streptococci spp. bacteria, which use this enzyme to break up blood clots so that they can spread from the initial site of infection) When a patient is suspected of intoxication, the osmol gap would be __________________. - ANSWER increased What aspergillus species has been recovered from the eye? - ANSWER Aspergillus fumigatus Auer rods stain most intensely with: - ANSWER Myeloperoxidase Auer rods are made of: - ANSWER fused primary granules What method is recommended for long-term monitoring of diabetic patients with sickle cell anemia? - ANSWER Fructosamine test What is TdT a marker for? - ANSWER blasts of the lymphoid pathway

What are the two main components of bone marrow? - ANSWER Vascular sinuses and hematopoietic cords What is the most common bleeding disease? - ANSWER VWD What are pappenheimer bodies? - ANSWER particles of iron How is methemoglobin formed? - ANSWER When iron on the hemoglobin molecule becomes oxidized A persistent transferrin saturation of 45% or greater indicates further investigation for ______________________. - ANSWER Hereditary hemochromatosis What is Drabkin's solution? - ANSWER Potassium ferricyanide, used to detect/measure cyanmethemoglobin Alpha thalassemia major is: - ANSWER aka Hydrops fetalis, is incompatible with life The M:E bone marrow reference range is: - ANSWER 3: What causes TTP? (thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura) - ANSWER TTP is caused by a deficiency of the proteolytic enzyme "ADAMTS13". Because of this deficiency, small clots made up of platelets and large forms of VWF adhere to collagen and can not be broken down. What initiates DIC? - ANSWER damage to endothelial lining of vessels What receptors does Glanzmann's Thrombasthenia affect? - ANSWER defect in GPIIb/GPIIIa, leads to impaired platelet aggregation What is LA? - ANSWER Lupus anticoagulant; is an immunoglobulin What is the principle of D-dimer? - ANSWER uses specific antisera to detect D-dimer's neo-epitopes

How is normal adult hemoglobin broken up? - ANSWER >95% HbA <3.5% HbA <1-2% HbF How do basophils work? - ANSWER Basophils have a membrane receptor for IgE. When IgE attaches, the basophil becomes activated and degranulates. When does bone marrow become the main site of hematopoiesis in human development? - ANSWER In the 7th month of gestation Reagents in the aPTT: - ANSWER Activated partial thromboplastin and calcium What is a common pathologic cause of acanthocytes (spiky boys)? - ANSWER lipid disorders such as abetalipoproteinemia What is the hexose monophosphate shunt? - ANSWER reduces glutathione to prevent oxidation What is the most common cell in adult bone marrow? - ANSWER Metamyelocyte What platelet antigen is the receptor for collagen? - ANSWER GPIa/IIa complex What platelet antigen is the receptor for fibrinogen? - ANSWER GPIIb/IIIa How is GPIb activated in vitro? - ANSWER ristocetin What causes PNH? - ANSWER red cell membrane defect Thalassemias results in a _________________ change. - ANSWER quantitative

INR formula - ANSWER MCV - ANSWER MCH - ANSWER MCHC - ANSWER What are mixing studies used for? - ANSWER differentiate factor deficiency vs inhibitor coagulation cascade - ANSWER Primary hemostasis: - ANSWER - Activated by desquamination/injury to blood vessels

• Rapid, short lived Secondary hemostasis - ANSWER - Activated by large injuries to blood vessels/surrounding tiss.
• Delayed, long term response What happens to platelet count after splenectomy? - ANSWER increases 30-100% Coagulation factors - ANSWER I - Fibrinogen II - Prothrombin III - Tissue Thromboplastin IV - Calcium ions V - Labile factor VI - (Not used) VII - Stable factor VIII - Antihemophilic factor IX - Christmas factor

X - Stuart-Prower factor XI - Plasma Thromboplastin Antecedent (PTA) XII - Hageman factor XIII - Fibrin Stabilizing Factor GPIa/IIa LINKS TO collagen GPIIb/IIIa LINKS TO fibrinogen - ANSWER Hemophilia - ANSWER (8) A - lack of factor VIII, most common (85%), mostly in males, women are carriers (9) B - lack of factor IX (aka Christmas disease) (11) C - lack of factor XI (aka Rosenthal syndrome) What is Stormorken syndrome? - ANSWER platelets are always in "activated" state What is the storage temp for FFP? - ANSWER - 20C What is the storage temp for frozen pRBCs? - ANSWER - 80C What is the storage temp for leuko-reduced pRBCs? - ANSWER 1-6C What is the storage temp for cryoprecipitate? - ANSWER - 18C or less What is the storage temp for apheresis platelets? - ANSWER 20-24C Irradiation reduces the expiration date by ________ days. - ANSWER 4 WBC count of a leukoreduced unit is: - ANSWER <5.0 x 10^

Cryo AHF must be transfused within ______ hours of thawing and pooling. - ANSWER 4 What is cryo AHF indicated for? - ANSWER fibrinogen deficiencies FFP must be prepared within ______ hours of phlebotomy. - ANSWER 8 What is the minimum pH for apheresis platelets? - ANSWER 6. Most blood group systems are inherited as: - ANSWER autosomal codominant The linked HLA genes on each chromosome constitute a: - ANSWER haplotype trophozoite: 12-60 um progressive-rapid motility cytoplasm: finely granular "ground glass" appearance cyst: 10 - 20 um spherical - ANSWER Entamoeaba histolytica This parasite's cysts are commonly found in the brain - ANSWER Taenia solium (tapeworm) This parasite is associated with rectal prolapse - ANSWER Trichuris trichuria Plasmodium species maturation: - ANSWER early trophozoite v late trophozoite v schizont

v microgametocyte v macrogametocyte This parasite causes traveler's diarrhea, "beaver fever", transmitted via contaminated water - ANSWER Giardia duodenalis This parasite causes elephantiasis - ANSWER Wucheraria bancrofti What is black water fever? - ANSWER complication of malaria (plasmodium falciparum) What antibody is most susceptible to destruction by enzymes? - ANSWER Fya What concentration of glycerol is used when freezing red cells? - ANSWER 40% What percentage of platelet units are contaminated with bacteria? - ANSWER ~10% What antibodies are enhanced by enzyme treatment of red cells? - ANSWER Rh, Lewis, and Kidd What is the relevance of Lu antigens? - ANSWER Very high frequency, antibodies rarely encountered Fyb (Duffy b) antigen is present in _____% of the white population. - ANSWER ~83% What is the most common Rh haplotype in whites? - ANSWER DCe Leuko-reduced RBCs must retain at least _____% of it's RBCs - ANSWER 85% Anticoagulant/additive expirations: - ANSWER ACD/CPD/CPD2 = 21 days

CPDA-1 = 35 days Additives = 42 days What do rejuvinating solutions do? - ANSWER restore 2,3 DPG and ATP Autologous units must be collected >_____ hours prior to surgery. - ANSWER 72 Changes in plasma in storage: - ANSWER NH4 and K+ increase pH and Na+ decrease What cells agglutinate with Dolichos biflorus? - ANSWER A1 cells Hepatitis types: - ANSWER Hep A = fecal-oral rt or contaminated food Hep B (DNA VIRUS) = parenteral, perinatal, sexual Hep C = parenteral, sexual anti-I vs anti-i - ANSWER anti-I = big boy adult antigen, Mycoplasma pneumoniae and cold agglutinin disease anti-i = lil baby antigen, infectious mono P1 antigen - ANSWER P1 antigen is detected in plasma and hyatid cyst fluid P1 antigen is the cellular receptor for parvovirus B What is anamnestic response? - ANSWER Secondary response, or second contact with antigen

TA-GVHD - ANSWER Rare, 90% mortality Who is at risk for citrate toxicity? - ANSWER preterm infants What is happening in a fetomaternal hemorrhage? - ANSWER fetal red cells escape into maternal circulation Rhogam is administered at: - ANSWER at 28 weeks and within 72 hrs postpartum How does one unit of pRBCs affect HGB/HCT? - ANSWER HGB increases 1 g/dL HCT increases 3% How does one unit of platelets affect PLT count? - ANSWER increases by 30,000 to 50, What is macroamylasemia? - ANSWER amylase molecules bind with immunoglobulin to form large molecules that can not cross glomerulus What do the AHA and CDC recommend for evaluation of cardiac heart disease? - ANSWER hs-CRP What is the toxic level of lithium? - ANSWER 1.5 or greater Hemosiderin and ferritin are both: - ANSWER storage forms of iron CK is associated with: - ANSWER cardiac, muscle, and brain tissue The most specific marker for adverse ventricular remodeling or volume overload of the heart is: - ANSWER BNP The formula for VLDL - ANSWER Trigs/

CK-MB

CK-MM

CK-BB - ANSWER CK-MB = MI

CK-MM = Muscle injury CK-BB = Brain injury What does the term "saprophytic" mean? - ANSWER gets it's energy from decaying organic matter Metabolic syndrome requires: 3 or more of:

• Increased waist circumference
• Elevated trigs
• Reduced HDL
• Elevated blood pressure
• Elevated fasting glucose - ANSWER Hereditary spherocytosis, elliptocytosis, stomatocytosis, and PNH are all: - ANSWER RBC membrane defects Edwardsiella tarda is associated with: - ANSWER Reptiles (Edward the lizard!) What is cTnT? - ANSWER cTnT is a regulator of myocyte contraction Vegeterian diet = _____ urine pH High protein/meat diet = _____ urine pH - ANSWER Vegeterian diet = alkaline urine pH High protein/meat diet = acidic urine pH

Large doses of chlorpromazine may cause a false positive on what urine reagent strip test? - ANSWER Bilirubin What is the platelet neutralization test used for? - ANSWER Evaluates for lupus anticoagulant (LA) What is oliguria (decreased output) commonly associated with? - ANSWER Acute glomerulonephritis Adult human blood volume - ANSWER ~5,400 mL What does the A allele produce? - ANSWER N-acetylgalactosaminyltransferase How many molecules of IgM are required to activate complement? - ANSWER 1 Most Rh system antibodies are of which immunoglobulin class? - ANSWER IgG What cell type is humoral immunity associated with? - ANSWER B lymphocytes What is CUE? - ANSWER Confidential unit exclusion (last chance to identify risk of unit) What is the pathophysiology of G6PD deficiency? - ANSWER oxidative exposure causes precipitation of denatured hemoglobin Osteolytic bone lesions are associated with: - ANSWER Multiple Myeloma High transferrin indicates: - ANSWER low iron (high free transferrin = less iron bound to it) 2,3 BPG - ANSWER Facilitates the delivery of O2 to tissues. (decreases HGB's affinity for O2, shifting the O2 binding curve to the right. This unloads ~66% of O2 to tissues.

G6PD - ANSWER protects the red cell from oxidative stress. (G6PD is an enzyme that in the first reaction of the hexose monophosphate shunt, catalyzes the oxidation of G6P to glucose- 6 - phosphogluconalactone, which reduces NADP+ to NADPH) (NADPH is needed to keep glutathione in it's reduced form to act as a scavenger for dangerous oxidative metabolites) Thalassemias are - ANSWER QUANTitative defects of hemoglobin synthesis Erythroid maturation sequence - ANSWER Proerythrocyte (can divide) v Basophilic erythroblast (can divide) v Polychromatic erythroblast (can divide) v Orthochromic erythroblast v Retic Chediak-Higashi syndrome - ANSWER membrane defect of lysosomes

• Giant granules in neutrophils, infections What plasmodium appears as a characteristic band in the trophozoite stage? - ANSWER Plasmodium malariae Type I hereditary hemochromatosis is most common in what age group? - ANSWER Middle aged adults Ependymal cells - ANSWER line cavities of the brain and spinal cord, circulate cerebrospinal fluid bunched together, nondistinct borders, nucleoli Hypersensitivity types - ANSWER Type I = immediate hypersensitivity Type II = Antibody-mediated hypersensitivity

Type III = Immune complex-mediated hypersensitivity Type IV = Cell-mediated hypersensitivity Electroosmosis - ANSWER the motion of a liquid when a voltage is applied between the ends of an insulating tube that contains liquid Densiometry - ANSWER an absorbance measurement that uses stained compounds on a support medium or electrophoretic strip Voltammetry - ANSWER electroanalytical method based on the measurement of a current that develops in an electrochemical cell under conditions of complete concentration polarization How is the majority of urobilinogen excreted? - ANSWER fecal What is the Philadelphia chromosome? - ANSWER t(9;22) - Translocation of chromosomes 9 and 22 Primarily associated with CML Bence jones protein - ANSWER A protein excreted by individuals with multiple myeloma. The protein is markedly elevated in serum and is filtered through the kidneys in quantities that exceed the tubular reabsorption capacity. When preforming the heat precipitation test for bence-jones protein: - ANSWER it precipitates at 40C and 60C but redissolves at 100C The gram stain counterstain is: - ANSWER Safranin The normal pH for a healthy adult's urine is: - ANSWER 6 What method is the gold standard for ANA detection? - ANSWER Slide-based immunofluorescent assay (IFA)

______________________ can often be responsible for septic reactions associated with red blood cell transfusions. - ANSWER Yersinia enterolitica (thrives at 4C) CSF lymphocytosis is seen in: - ANSWER Viral, fungal, and tuberculous infections The CD5 antigen is normally found on: - ANSWER Mature T cells The half-life of cyclosporine and tacrolimus is: - ANSWER 10-12 hours ABG reference ranges - ANSWER pCO2 = 35-45 mmHg HCO3 = 22-29 mmol/L pO2 = 85-105 mmHg What is the mechanism of action for methotrexate? - ANSWER inhibits DNA synthesis In liver disease, vit K deficiency results from: - ANSWER decreased bile salt synthesis, which leads to impaired vit K absorption Malassezia furfur appears as: - ANSWER spaghetti and meatballs Tests for SLE: - ANSWER - Positive ANA

• Smith (Sm) antibodies
• Double-stranded DNA (dsDNA) antibodies In DNA nucleotide pairing, remember "G-CAT" - ANSWER Crystals seen in acidic urine: - ANSWER - Leucine

• Cholesterol
• Uric acid
• Cystine The most common cause of acute meningitis associated with a CSF shunt is: - ANSWER Coag-neg staphylococci Adult Hgb A chains: - ANSWER 2x alpha chains 2x beta chains Fetal Hgb F chains: - ANSWER 2x alpha chains 2x gamma chains The acid phosphatase test helps in diagnosing: - ANSWER prostate cancer How is the classical pathway activated? - ANSWER antibodies (IgM or IgG) binding to C1qrs How is the lectin pathway activated? - ANSWER mannose-binding lectin binds to pathogen surface How is the alternative pathway activated? - ANSWER bacterial/fungal/viral cell walls and C3 plus H2O Chemokines - ANSWER cytokines that attract macrophages and neutrophils to infected tissues Interferons - ANSWER cytokines that interfere with viral replication Interleukins - ANSWER pro-inflammatory OR antinflammatory Syphilis stages: - ANSWER - Primary: painless chancre
• Secondary: painless, skin rash, and flu-like symptoms