CLS FINAL EXAM LATEST 2024 ACTUAL EXAM 180 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS WITH R, Exams of Nursing

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CLS FINAL EXAM LATEST 2024 ACTUAL EXAM 180 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES (VERIFIED ANSWERS) |ALREADY GRADED A+ The process of stopping the loss of blood from the blood vessels: a) is an uncomplicated process b) involves interrelated and interdependent systems c) is called fibrinolysis d) is independent of any action by the vessels - ...ANSWER...b All of the following are true of platelets EXCEPT: a) circulating platelets have a round disklike shape b) contact with collagen initiates a shape change c) a platelet plug forms in seconds to stop bleeding in a small wound d) platelet aggregation requires only that spiny pseudopods are present on the platelets - ...ANSWER...d Which of the following is initiated by damage to a blood vessel? a) vasoconstriction b) coagulation c) fibrinolysis d) all of the above - ...ANSWER...d All of the following are true of the coagulation factors EXCEPT: a) they are numbered in the order they were discovered b) VIII:C is called the antihemophilic factor (AHF) c) they are produced in the liver and circulate in the activated form d) the mineral calcium was formerly named factor IV - ...ANSWER...c Which of the following is not true of the PT test? a) coagulation screening test b) measures intrinsic pathway c) monitors oral anticoagulant therapy d) reference value of 11-13 seconds - ...ANSWER...b Which of the following will have no effect on the prothrombin time? a) severe vitamin K deficiency b) liver disease c) factor VIII deficiency d) factor II dificiency - ...ANSWER...c Which of the following cannot be used to perform a prothrombin time test? a) plasma b) citrated whole blood c)capillary puncture blood d) serum - ...ANSWER...d Which of the following is correct concerning quality assessment when preparing a blood smear? c) the central area stains darker than the edge d) their diameter is 6-8 micrometers - ...ANSWER...c Which of the following is not a reference range for differential count on an adult? a) 25%-40% lymphocytes b) 3%-9% neutrophils c) 0%-7% bands d) 1%-3% eosinophils - ...ANSWER...b In the WBC differential count: a) an average of 7-20 platelets/oil immersion field is considered normal b) a 1 month old infant will have 45%-50% neutrophils c) 45%-50% neutrophils is normal for an adult d) 7%-13% bands is normal for an adult - ...ANSWER...a Which of the following statements about the WBC differential count is not correct? a) viral infections usually cause increased lymphocytes and increased total WBCs b) neutrophils and bands can be inreased in bacterial infections c) infectious mono causes increased total WBCs - ...ANSWER...a Which of the following is true? a) lymphocytes often have vacuoles in their cytoplasm b) lymphocytes are derived from a common perfursor called the promyelocyte c) lymphocytes are produced in the bond marrow and other lymphoid tissue d) monocytes are involved in the immune response by producing antibodies - ...ANSWER...c Which of the following is not correct concerning the normal WBC differential count? a) neutrophils and lymphocytes compromise 85%-95% of cells b) eosinophils make up 3%-9% of the cells c) monocytes, eosinophils, and basophils make up 5%-15% of the cells d) blood from a 1 month old infant can have 40%-70% lymphocytes - ...ANSWER...b An immature blood cell normally found only in the bone marrow is a(an): a) keratocyte b) blast cell c) codocyte d) elliptocyte e) cabot cell - ...ANSWER...b All of the following are related to the red blood cell indices EXCEPT: a) MCH b) the size and hemoglobin content of RBCs c) femtoliter d) drepanocyte e) hematocrit - ...ANSWER...d All of the following are true of RBCs with a diameter greater than 8 micrometers EXCEPT: a) they are called macrocytes b) they are called megalocytes c) the condition can be caused by deficiency of B12 d) the condition can be caused by iron deficiency - ...ANSWER...d Which is true of red cells in iron deficiency anemia? a) they are normocytic b) they are macrocytic c) they are hypochromic d) they are normocytic and hypochromic e) they are hyperchromic - ...ANSWER...c Drepanocytes, codocytes, elliptocytes, and keratocytes are examples of: a) anisocytosis b) thalassemias c) poikilocytosis d) erythrocyte indicies e) red blood cell inclusions - ...ANSWER...e Which of the following is true when examining a smear containing abnormal cells? a) personnel must follow the written procedure of the facility concerning reporting b) the staining technique does not affect cell identification c) each technician can use his or her own method of examining the smear d) if the patient is healthy, the smear will not have abnormal cells - ...ANSWER...a All of the following are true of blood vessels EXCEPT: a) Arteries are thick-walled, the strongest type of blood vessel b) Veins carry deoxygenated blood c) There are about 10,000 miles of blood vessels in an adult d) Capillaries are the smallest blood vessels - ...ANSWER...C In cardiopulmonary circulation: a) blood is carried from the heart to the tissues b) blood circulates from the heart to the lungs to the tissues c) blood circulates from the heart to the lungs where O2 is picked up by the blood and CO2 is released d) blood is carried from the heart to the tissues and back to the heart, providing O2 to the tissues - ...ANSWER...C All of the following statements are true of blood EXCEPT: a) it makes up 10%-15% of total body weight b) adult blood volume is approximately 5 liters c) it is composed of formed elements suspended in a fluid called plasma d) about 50%-60% of blood volume is plasma - ...ANSWER...A "Thick-walled, elastic, and muscular" describes which type of blood vessel? a) capillaries b) arteries c) veins d) venules - ...ANSWER...B Which of the following are true of hemacytometer and cover glass EXCEPT: a) They must meet National Institute of Standards and Technolody (NIST) standards. b) If a certified hemacytometer is used, any cover glass can be used. c) They must be disinfected after use. d) They should be gently washed and dried to avoid scratches - ...ANSWER...B Which of the following functions is carried out by blood? a) It delivers nutrients and CO2 to the tissues b) It regulates body temperature c) It delivers O2 to the lungs and tissures. d) None of the above e) All of the above - ...ANSWER...B Which of the following statements is true of the hemacytometer? a) When viewed from the top, it has two polished raised platforms b) The depressions surrounding the platforms are called ditches c) The depressions surrounding the platforms form the letter I d) All of the above E) None of the above - ...ANSWER...A Which of the following statements is true of hemacytometers? a) the cover glass covers one side at a time b) the cover glass regulates the depth of the fluid c) the chamber depth in the Neubauer counting chamers is 1 mm d) each of the nine large squares is 3x3 mm e) none of the above - ...ANSWER...B Which of the following can be counted using the hemacytometer? a) Peripheral blood cells b) sperm for fertility tests c) cells in cerebrospinal fluid d) all of the above - ...ANSWER...d Which of the following is true of the hemacytometer? a) in the Unopette WBC method, the four large corner squares are counted b) the large center square used for the RBC count is subdivided into 20 smaller squares c) platelets and RBCs are both counted using the whole large center square d) one corner square has an area of 1mm squared - ...ANSWER...a All of the following are true of RBC and WBC counts EXCEPT: a) Many are performed when blood counts are decreased due to chemotherapy b) They can be performed on automated instruments c) The majority are perfromed manually d) Many are performed by instruments that use a laser beam - ...ANSWER...c Which of the following is true of manual cells counts? b) IgM c) IgA d) IgD e) IgE - ...ANSWER...c The class of antibody produced first after exposure to antigen is: a) IgG b) IgM c) IgA d) IgE e) IgD - ...ANSWER...b Specific immunity is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT: a) specificity b) inflammation c) recognition d) memory - ...ANSWER...b All of the following are characterisitcs of the inflammatory response EXCEPT: a) phagocytic action of neutrophils b) redness, swelling, pain, and heat c) complement proteins d) antibody production - ...ANSWER...d The largest immunoglobulin: a) IgG b) IgM c) IgA d) IgE e) IgD - ...ANSWER...b Which is true concerning the history of transfusion medicine? a) James blundell performed the first recorded successful blood transfusion of human blood b) Karl Landsteiner discovered the ABO group in 1930 c) the first hospital blood bank was in San Francisco d) the discovery of BSE in the 1980s dramatically changed blood donor policy - ...ANSWER...a The operation of blood banks is ultimately regulated by the: a) American Associtation of Blood Banks (AABB) b) U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) c) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) d) all of the above - ...ANSWER...b Typical testing performed in immunohematology labortories includes all of the following EXCEPT: a) routine blood typing b) evaluation of suitable blood donors c) providing compatible blood for transfusion d) hemoglobin and hematocrit - ...ANSWER...d The components easily obtained from 1 unit of donated blood include all of the following EXCEPT: a) red blood cells b) platelet concentrate c) leukocyte concentrate d) fresh frozen plasma - ...ANSWER...c In blood banking: a) ABO is the major blood group b) artificial blood is now in common use c) Rh is of only minor importance d) most blood bank reagents come from nonhuman sources - ...ANSWER...a Which of the following is true of group AB blood? a) has no anti-A or anti-B in serum b) has both anti-A and anti-B in the serum c) persent in 48% of population d) is the "universal donor" - ...ANSWER...a Which of the following is not true of ABO grouping? a) reverse grouping involves mixing serum or plasma with known commercial blood cells b) ABO antibodies are of the IgG class c) there is no anti-O antibody d) newborns have antigens on the blood cells - ...ANSWER...b All of the following are methods of naming Rh antigens EXCEPT: a) Rosenfield b) Landsteiner c) Fisher-Race d) Weiner - ...ANSWER...b To prevent HDN due to RhD, the mother should be given: a) D antigen b) D positive blood c) anti-D d) D negative blood - ...ANSWER...c c) regulation of blood volume and composition d) production of the majority of hormones in the body - ...ANSWER...a Which of the following hormones is (are) produced by the kidneys? a) erythropoietin b) renin c) active vitamin D3 d) all of the above - ...ANSWER...d When urine is to be cultured for bacteria, the specimen required is: a) randon b) clean-catch c) first morning d) preserved e) 24-hour - ...ANSWER...b The reference range for a 24-hour urine volume for a newborn is: a) 20-350 mL b) 300-600 mL c) 750-2000 mL d) none of the above - ...ANSWER...a If a urine specimen is to be cultured for bacteria: a) the specimen must be the first morning specimen b) the culture must be set up before the routine urinalysis is done c) the container need not be sterile d) the urine can be left on the lab bench 2-4 hours before culture e) none of the above - ...ANSWER...e Which of the following is true of urines collected for drug screening? a) a credit cared can be used for identification b) the urine is collected in the usual urine container c) the patient must sign a consent form d) the specimen is placed with other reference laboratory samples for pickup - ...ANSWER...c If a urine cannot be tested within 1 hour of the collection time, it should be: a) refrigerated overnight b) frozen to preserve c) refrigerated at 4-6 degrees Fahrenheit for up to 4 hours d) discarded - ...ANSWER...c In the physical examination of urine, all of the following are true EXCEPT: a) the color is recorded b) the pH is measured c) transparency is noted d) specific gravity is measured - ...ANSWER...b The presence of RBCs, hemoglobin, or myoglobin in urine causes the color to be: a) yellow-orange b) green-brown c) red or red-brown d) wine red - ...ANSWER...c Urine specific gravity: a) is unaffected by fluid intake b) is usually highest in the evening c) has a reference range of 1.005-1.030 d) does not vary from day to day - ...ANSWER...c When tested with a urine reagent strip, a normal urine has a: a) trace of glucose b) positive esterase reaction c) positive nitrite d) negative or trace protein - ...ANSWER...d Which is the correct procedure to follow when performing chemical examination of urine by reagent strip? a) test the specimen before it is centrifuged b) test only the centrifuged specimen c) the specimen should be at 4 degrees Celsius for testing d) the results can be read at any time - ...ANSWER...a Which of the following tests, when positive, is an indicator of early renal disease? a) leukocyte b) ketones c) urobilinogen d) microalbumin - ...ANSWER...d Which of the following is true of casts? a) normal urine can have a few WBC casts b) waxy casts are due to strenuous exercise c) an occasional hyaline cast is normal d) an occasional epithelial cast is normal - ...ANSWER...c RhD negative patients should be transfused with ________ blood - ...ANSWER...RhD negative The ___________ method of typing for RhD must be performed using a heated light box - ...ANSWER...slide typing The condition in which a fetus or newborn is affected by maternal antibodies directed against the infants RBCs is called ______________ - ...ANSWER...hemolytic diease of the newborn The organ in which urine is formed is called the _________ - ...ANSWER...kidney A variety of waste products are eliminated from the body through the formation and excretion of __________ - ...ANSWER...urine The functional unit of the kidneys is the _________ - ...ANSWER...nephron The two major treatments for kidney failure are kidney transplant and _______ - ...ANSWER...dialysis The type of dialysis that gives the patient more freedom and independence is _________ - ...ANSWER...perotenal dialysis A urine sample collected at any time, without regard to diet or time of day is called a(n) ___________ - ...ANSWER...random sample Quantitative urine tests require a(n) ________-hr urine specimen - ...ANSWER...24 If a urine cannot be examined within 1 hour of collection, it can be refrigerated at 4 degrees Celsius for up to ______ hours - ...ANSWER...4 If white blood cells are present in the urine, the leukocyte pad on the reagent strip should be __________ - ...ANSWER...changed in color (brownish) Tissue thromboplastin - ...ANSWER...traumatic venipucture Moving wire probes - ...ANSWER...FibroSystem INR - ...ANSWER...ISI Xa - ...ANSWER...Enzyme Coumadin - ...ANSWER...warfarin POCT - ...ANSWER...near-patient testing Named the prothombin time test - ...ANSWER...Quick's Tests the extrinsic coagulation pathway - ...ANSWER...Protime bone marrow - ...ANSWER...primary lymphoid tissue uses enzyme-labeled antibody - ...ANSWER...EIA produced from the T cells - ...ANSWER...monoclonal antibody insoluble antigen-antibody complex - ...ANSWER...precipitation lymph nodes and spleen - ...ANSWER...secondary lymphoid tissue clumping of particles - ...ANSWER...agglutination autoimmune diease - ...ANSWER...LE Stimulates RBC production in the bone marrow - ...ANSWER...erythropoietin blood from the patient's vein is slowly passed through a dialyzer - ...ANSWER...hemodialysis artificial kidney - ...ANSWER...dialyzer patient's abdomen is filled with dialysate - ...ANSWER...peritoneal dialysis indirectly influences blood pressure - ...ANSWER...renin structural and functional unit of the kidney - ...ANSWER...nephron