CMSRN Practice Test Bank Questions with 100% Correct Answers | Verified | Updated 2024, Exams of Advanced Education

Download CMSRN Practice Test Bank Questions with 100% Correct Answers | Verified | Updated 2024 and more Exams Advanced Education in PDF only on Docsity! CMSRN Practice Test Bank Questions with 100% Correct Answers | Verified | Updated 2024 A patient has Ascites. What is a sign of Ascites? A. High Epinephrine Levels B. Low Plasma Albumin levels C. High Plasma Oncotic levels D. Low Blood PRessure - Correct Answer-B. Low Plasma Albumin levels. The lack of pressure from plasma proteins will allow fluid to enter the wrong areas. Cirrhosis may develop in some cases. What makes Ca-MRSA unique compared to other types of MRSA? A. A. It is acquired in a hospital B. It is transmitted through sex C. It is transmitted through blood transfusions D. All of the above - Correct Answer-A. IT is acquired in a hospital. Community-acquired MRSA usually 48 hours before admission Foreign body aspiration entails an object in the: A. Larynx B. Trachea C. Both A and B D. Neither A nor B - Correct Answer-C. Both A and B. An object in the larynx or trachea blocking the airway. A patient requires supplemental oxygen for a pulmonary treatment. Which of the following is correct about the oxygen that must be administered? A. The oxygen must be consistent B. The pressure should be high C. The pressure should be low D. The oxygen must be fully humidified - Correct Answer-D. The oxygen must be fully humidified. The humidification will allow the oxygen to circulate throughout the body. What scan may help with identifying a case of appendicitis? A. An Ultrasound B. A CT Scan C. An MRI D. All of the Above - Correct Answer-A. An ultrasound. What is one true factor about peptic ulcer disease? A. Stomach pain starts 30 min after eating? B. Malignant tumors may develop C. An endoscopy is needed D. NSAID use may be a concern - Correct Answer-C. An endoscopy is needed to diagnose peptic ulcer disease. It will take a few hours for stomach pain to develop A person has sickle cell disease. Which of the following is a correct statement based on his or her medical condition? A. The person has less free hemoglobin B. Nitric oxide totals will drop C. Arterial pressure may change D. Sildenafil may resolve blood-related concerns - Correct Answer-B. Nitric oxide totals will drop. This is due to the sickle cell disease, Hemolysis will develop and free hemoglobin will increase due to the unusual shapes of the blood cells A person who has hepatitis C and significant liver damage may require: A. Antiviral medication B. Bedrest C. A Liver transplant D. A blood transfusion - Correct Answer-C. A liver transplant. The liver may be unable tp function properly. What form of Hepatitis is transmitted by exposure to contaminated water or food? A. A B. B C. C D. D - Correct Answer-A. A What is an ideal ICP rating? A. 15 B. 25 C. 35 D. 40 - Correct Answer-A. 15 the normal range is <20 What test should be performed on a patient experiencing intense fatigue and lethargy? A. A CT Scan B. A Pan culture What should happen when the Q wave appears on an ECG readout? A. The readout will go up B. The readout will go down C. The depth will appear the same all around D. A stable line will develop - Correct Answer-B. The readout will go down. The q wave is then followed by the R wave, the highest point in the ECG readout As soon as an HIV diagnosis is made, which vaccine should a patient receive? A. Influenza B. HPV C. Pneumonia D. PCV13 - Correct Answer-D. PCV13 A patient with magnesium deficiency may experience this condition alongside hypomagnesemia: A. Hypercalcemia B. Hypernatremia C. Hypophosphatemia D. Hypokalemia - Correct Answer-C. Hypophoshatemia What should a patient avoid consuming in order to prevent listeriosis? A. Carbonated drinks B. Sugary products C. processed meats D. Pasteurized milk - Correct Answer-C. Processed meats. listeriosis is a serious infection people get after eating contaminated food. Which of the following is part of standard treatment for scabies? A. Handwashing B. Condom C. Lamisil treatment D. Permetherin treatment - Correct Answer-D. Permethrin treatment A nurse discusses a patient's current medical concerns with her. At what point should the nurse ask the patient questions about her condition's severity? A. During evaluation B. During implementation C. During planning D. During diagnosis - Correct Answer-C. During planning What form of cancer is common in AIDS In patients A. Lung B. Liver C. Brain D. Skin - Correct Answer-D. Skin Is it possible for cystic fibrosis to be cured through a lung transplant? A. Yes, provided both lungs are transplanted B. Yes but only one lung needs a transplant C. No, a transplant will not cure cystic fibrosis D. It depends on the patient's age - Correct Answer-C. No, a transplant will not cure cystic fibrosis A patient with a significant asthma attach will likely experience all but which of the following? A. Chest pains B. Shortness of breath C. Fever D. Tinnitus - Correct Answer-D. Tinnitus What is noticeable in an absence seizure? A. It develops due to a physical activity B. It may arise during a migraine headache C. It occurs in children more often D. All of the above are applicable - Correct Answer-C. It occurs in children more often How long can HIV last in a patient's body without treatment before it becomes AIDS? A. One Year B. Three years C. Five years D. Ten years - Correct Answer-D. Ten years What should a patient with gout do to prevent gout flare-ups or attacks from occurring? A. Regulate alcohol consumption B. Increase seafood consumption C. Increase sugar consumption D. Increase calcium consumption - Correct Answer-D. Increase Calcium consumption It is safe for a patient with gout to consume caffeine? A. Coffee may help reduce symptoms of gout B. Carbonated drinks can reduce symptoms of gout C. Caffeine should always be avoided as it can exacerbate symptoms of gout D. It depends on the patient's specific conditions - Correct Answer-A. Coffee may reduce the symptoms of gout Coffee should be consumed without the added sugars. Sugar can trigger gout related symptoms. Therefore caffeinated carbonated drinks that are filled with sugar should be avoided. When should a patient stop using warfarin? A. When the patient feels excessively hungry B. When the patient's knees start aching C. When the patient becomes hyperfocused D. When the patient's gums start bleeding? - Correct Answer-D. When the patient's gums start bleeding What is the most significant concern pertaining to narcotics? A. They may cause heart damage B. They can increase fatigue in bowel C. They may raise blood pressure D. It is easy to become addicted to them - Correct Answer-D. It is easy to become addicted to them A child could be at risk of developing priapism due to : A. Sickle Cell Disease B. Hypotension C. A particular injury D. ADD medication use - Correct Answer-A. Sickle Cell Anemia Although the condition is more prominent among adults, a child could develop the issue due to the blood cells sticking in varying parts of the body. The cells may stay in the penile are, thus triggering priaprism Which of these tests is not necessary for a patient who have a pulmonary embolism? A. An echocardiogram B. X-Ray C. An Arterial blood gas draw D. A ventilation perfusion scan - Correct Answer-D. An echocardiogram An echocardiogram is not necessary for a PE diagnosis. The echocardiogram will assess the heart. The other treatments are suitable A. Traumatic pneumothorax B. Tension pneumothorax C. Spontaneous pneumothorax D. Any of the above - Correct Answer-C. Spontaneous pneumothorax It occurs mainly in tall skinny smokers Standard treatment for anaphylaxis includes: A. Supplemental oxygen B. Beta-Blockers C. Vasodilators D. Anti-inflammatory medications - Correct Answer-D. Anti-inflammatory medications What is not a part of Virchow's Triad for diagnosis thrombosis? A. Stasis of blood B. Endothelial functionality C. Blood coagulation D. Blood pressure - Correct Answer-D. Blood pressure is NOT a part of Virchow's triad A pulmonary Embolism is tested through a D- Dimer blood test. Which of the following indicates the presence of a PE? A. High D- Dimer results B. Low D- Dimer results C. Dramatic changes in the D- Dimer totals over time D. D-dimer values make no difference - Correct Answer-A. High D-dimer results. The total states that there are excess protein fibers in the blood A patient claims to be urinating far too often. What is one sign that this could be a symptom of developing diabetes? A. Blood pressure changes B. Hyperactivity C. Lethargy D. Weight loss - Correct Answer-D. Weight loss. Weight loss may be noted when a person urinates too often. A sudden amount of weight loss due to excess urination may be a sign of developing diabetes. What does a bolus do? - Correct Answer-It provides immediate relief. A bolus administers drug within 30 minutes What happens when the transport of sodium is interfered with? A. Effects of Parkinson's may be minimal B. Blood sugar levels will decline C. Blood pressure levels will decline D. Cerebrospinal fluid production is lessened - Correct Answer-D. Cerebrospinal fluid is not produced as much when the transport of sodium is affected through the use of Lasix or diuretics, especially the ones that prevent cerebral edema Lanoxin (Digoxin) is necessary for the treatment of: - Correct Answer-Atrial Fibrillation Histotoxic hypoxia may be triggered by: A. Antihistamine use B. Caffeine consumption C. Alcohol use D. All of these - Correct Answer-C. Alcohol use. This occasion occurs when the cells are not able to use O2 dur to the mitochondria being damaged by the alcohol, which essentially is like cyanide poisoning What should a patient with hemochromatosis avoid? A. Vitamin C B. Vitamin A C. Calcium D. Potassium - Correct Answer-Vitamin C should be avoided. PT with this condition have more iron than necessary, and vitamin C helps increase the body's ability to absorb iron Who should not receive a flu vaccine? A. A toddler B. A pregnant woman C. A 90 year old person D. A frequent smoker - Correct Answer-A. A toddler, the child must be at least 6 months old before getting a flu vaccine What may develop due to thalassemia major? A. Cataracts B. Heart Disease C. Obesity D. Diabetes - Correct Answer-B. Heart Disease. The illness thalassemia is when the body produces less hemoglobin than normal. This can cause the muscles of the heart to not be able to receive enough oxygen and in turn lead to heart disease In the Trendelenburg position, a patient is supine. How should the legs be positioned? A. extended B. Together C. Flat D. No specific direction - Correct Answer-A. Extended. The legs should be extended to allow blood flow to the heart and other areas Swelling can occur due to compartment syndrome. The swelling with result in : A. Seizures B. Hypertension C. Blood flow being lost in an area D. Nerves being damaged - Correct Answer-C. Blood flow being lose in an area. The tissue may die off if the blood flow is not restored soon A patient's Glasgow Coma Scale number has dropped since being admitted to a hospital. A telemetry monitor shows a pulseless concern. What should be done at this point? A. Conduct a CT Scan of the brain B. Administer epinephrine C. Administer atropine D. Insert a breathing tube - Correct Answer-D. Insert a breathing tube. Airway should always be supported first Which of the following is true of priapism? A. It may develop following sex B. It can impact the abdomen C. It is not caused by sexual arousal D. It may cause discharge - Correct Answer-C. It is not caused by sexual arousal. It is triggered by blood illnesses, or blood pressure issues, or groin injuries What can be prescribed to reduce the intracranial pressure in a patient? A. Lasix B. Lanoxin C. Levothyroxine D. Lantus - Correct Answer-A. Lasix. The medication moves fluid from the cranial area and back into circulation, thus easing tension in the area What should be administered to a patient who is experiencing tachycardia without a pulse? A. Dopamine B. Lidocaine C. Magnesium