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CNOR EXAM NEWEST 2023-2024 ACTUAL EXAM TEST BANK, Exams of Nursing

CNOR EXAM NEWEST 2023-2024 ACTUAL EXAM TEST BANK COMPLETE QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS)

Typology: Exams

2023/2024

Available from 09/10/2024

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CNOR EXAM NEWEST 2023 - 2024

ACTUAL EXAM TEST BANK COMPLETE

QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED

ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS)

Cholecystectomy incision needed - ANSWERS,Krocher's incision Gallbladder, Liver incision name - ANSWERS,Midline incision Appendicitis incsion - ANSWERS,Mc Burney's Pont incision Incision for GYN Pelvic Surgery and Prostatic Surgery - ANSWERS,Pfannenstiel incision Normal Hemoglobin levels for men - ANSWERS,13.5-17. Normal Hemoglobin for women - ANSWERS,12- 16 Na+ normal level - ANSWERS,135- 145 Normal Potassium Level - ANSWERS,3.5-5. Normal Ph level - ANSWERS,7.35-7. PaCO2 normal level - ANSWERS,35- 45 PaO2 normal level - ANSWERS,80- 100 HCO3 normal level - ANSWERS,22- 28

Ammonia normal level - ANSWERS,9.5-49mcg/dl ALT liver function normal level - ANSWERS,0- 35 Albumin normal level - ANSWERS,4- 6 Hct normal level for male - ANSWERS,39- 49 Hct normal level for female - ANSWERS,35- 45 What piece of equipment do you need for a vasvagotomy? - ANSWERS,microscope During a procedure under local anesthesia, the patient complains of circumoral numbness, blurred vision and dizziness. What should be the immediate action of the preoperative nurse monitoring this patient? - ANSWERS,Ensure an airway The circulating nurse reports that the needle count is incorrect. The surgeon continues to close the wound stating "I know it is not in the wound and I am not going to stop to look for it". The best plan of action is to : - ANSWERS,inform the surgeon of the hospital policy and document subsequent actions A new employee unknowingly dispensed an unsterile solution to the sterile field. The following day the supervisor learns of the incident. The supervisors first action would be to: - ANSWERS,Notify surgeon of the break in technique Where does decontamination begin? - ANSWERS,Starts at the field, with wiping the instruments to keep the bioburden down How many air exchanges does Decontamination area have? - ANSWERS,6 air exchanges per hour What temperature does decontamination area need to be set at? - ANSWERS,68-73 degrees What is the humidity setting for decontamination area? - ANSWERS,30%-60%

What is TASS? - ANSWERS,Toxic Anterior Segment Syndrome-from contaminates left on eye instruments What is the temperature kept at in the packaging area? - ANSWERS,64-73 degrees What is the humidity settings kept at in the packaging area? - ANSWERS,35-70% How do you reverse the effects of FFP? - ANSWERS,Coumadin (Warfin) Assault is defined as? - ANSWERS,Threat to do harm Which sterilizer forces air from the sterilizer chamber? - ANSWERS,Gravity displacement What must you have before putting in an A-Line? - ANSWERS,Allen's Test Which facial lines would a surgeon use to remove a lesion? - ANSWERS,Langer Lines Kraske Position is also known as? - ANSWERS,Jack Knife What is hematopoiesis? - ANSWERS,The body making new blood cells Causes of metabolic Alkalosis? - ANSWERS,-Anything that causes loss of acid loss in GI Tract-N/V

  • Self induced by TUMS What is FFP made up of? - ANSWERS,-Clotting factors
  • Plasma What is Cryo used for? - ANSWERS,To control bleeding

Where is a Swan Ganz catheter placed? - ANSWERS,Internal Jugular What 5 risks are pediatric patients in the OR at risk for? - ANSWERS,-Displacing ET tube (short trachea)

  • Hypothermia
  • Hypovolemia (weigh sponges)
  • Peter Panning off table (moving around during induction)
  • (+) Resp Rate causes (+) Heart Rate Voluntary reporting that encourages self reporting without fear of retaliation? - ANSWERS,Culture of Safety from the Patient Saftey and Quality Improvement Act 2005 S/S of Hypontremia (below 135) - ANSWERS,-N/V
  • Irritability
  • Muscle cramping
  • Muscle twitching
  • HA What time frame must I use FFP after being thawed? - ANSWERS,24 hours Pudendal Block is used in what type of surgery? - ANSWERS,GYN Avoid an Epidural, Spinal, and General anesthesia with these type of patients? - ANSWERS,Sickle cell Pneumatic Tourniquet must have how much re-profussion time, before re-inflating it again? - ANSWERS,15 minutes Pneumatic Tourniquet time limit for upper extremity in adults? - ANSWERS,60 minutes Pneumatic Tourniquet time limit for a lower extremity in adults? - ANSWERS,90 minutes

Replace clotting factors after how many units of blood? - ANSWERS,4 units Where does a Supra Ventricular Tachycardia originate from? - ANSWERS,Atrial area (SA node) How do you treat SVT? - ANSWERS,1-Vagal Stem-(unconscious ice carotids) 2 - Adenosine When is Esmarck not necessary with a pneumatic tourniquet? - ANSWERS,-DVT

  • Infection
  • Dislocation/Fraction
  • Malignancy What type of anesthesia numbs nerves only in the area of surgery? - ANSWERS,Regional anesthesia Magnesium Level Normals - ANSWERS,1.5-2.5mg/dL Other name of Sodium Hydroxide - ANSWERS,Lye Other name for Bleach - ANSWERS,Sodium Hyochorite Tertiary Healing of a wound - ANSWERS,Wound left open and packed for delayed closure later Wound healing by Secondary Intention? - ANSWERS,Healing from bottom layers to top (example Pressure Ulcer) Primary wound healing? - ANSWERS,Closure of all 3 layers Which type of sterilization process can sterilize oils and powders? - ANSWERS,Dry Heat for one hour Which sterilization process can cause cancer? - ANSWERS,Ethylene Oxide

Which medication requires an A-Line first? - ANSWERS,Nipride Which integrator do you use to Flash some thing? - ANSWERS,Class 5 integrator How long do you flash a nonporous item in a Dynamic Autoclave? - ANSWERS,3 minutes (Pre-Vacuum) How long do you flash a porous item in a Dynamic Autoclave? - ANSWERS,4 minutes (Pre-Vacuum) Which sterilizer sucks air out of chamber? - ANSWERS,Dynamic (Pre-Vacuum) What is the limited exposure time a person can have with Ethylene Oxide? - ANSWERS,1 ppm in 8 hours Causes of Metabolic Acidosis - ANSWERS,-Renal Failure

  • Sepsis
  • Keto-acidosis
  • Cardiac Arrest What risk is possible with a Swan-Ganz Cath? - ANSWERS,Micro Shock-electrical current to myocardium causing arrhthymias What does an A-Line measure? - ANSWERS,Blood Pressure Best recovery position for oral procedures? - ANSWERS,Semi Prone What is the best position for recovery for most postoperative patients? - ANSWERS,Lateral (In case of N/V) What is the most critical step to prevent infection? - ANSWERS,Cleaning

Injection of anesthesia to Inferior Globe of the eye - ANSWERS,Retrobulbar Block What do you give to a hemophiliac before surgery? - ANSWERS,Factor 8 in the PREOP How long does it take Latex allergens to leave the OR suite? - ANSWERS,22 minutes Age groups with highest risk of heat loss - ANSWERS,1st 4-6wk 2nd Elderly 3rd 18 months 4th Adult What do you need to do to PLts once in the room? - ANSWERS,frequently and gentle agitate What does nursing staff need to have in the room for anesthesia to administer PRBC's? - ANSWERS,Blood warmer What temperature does PRBC's need to be stored at? - ANSWERS,4 degrees How do you treat Respiratory Alkalosis? - ANSWERS,-Decrease Ventilations

  • Sedation What causes Respiratory Alkalosis? - ANSWERS,Over Ventilaton Hypoparathyroidism causes what type of electrolyte imbalance? - ANSWERS,Hypo Calcemia What causes respiratory acidosis? - ANSWERS,Decreased ventilation How do you treat Respiratory Acidosis? - ANSWERS,Increase Ventilation A burn patient has what type of fluid shift in first 48 hours? - ANSWERS,Inter vascular to interstitial (watch for Hypo Volemia)

What happens to body temperature after induction? - ANSWERS,Drops 2.7 degrees in the first hour How does a patient get Diabetes Insipidus? - ANSWERS,Trauma to Pituitary gland or Hypothalamus (These organs normally produce anti diuretic hormone. When damaged they don't hold fluid, they over diuresis) Which surgery is associated with causing hyponatremia? - ANSWERS,TURP (Bladder irrigation should be Normal Saline to prevent sodium loss) Treatment for Hyponatremia - ANSWERS,-Restrict fluids (to prevent the pulling of sodium with the fluid)

  • Diuretics Causes of Hyperkalemia - ANSWERS,-Hospital Induced-giving to much K+
  • Burns
  • Massive Crushing Trauma
  • Diabetic Keto Acidosis Treatment for Hyperkalemia - ANSWERS,-Kayexalate
  • D5O with Insulin Treatment for Hypokalemia - ANSWERS,Potassium Supplements What lab value increases when you have N/V, Diarrheas? - ANSWERS,K+ Potassium A wrong committed against somebody involves what type of law? - ANSWERS,TORT Law Doing a operation without a consent is what type of law? - ANSWERS,Battery Being a patient advocate is what part of the nursing process? - ANSWERS,Implementation What is the weight limit on trays to be sure they are sterilized properly? - ANSWERS,25 lbs

Bowie Dick Test is done to test what - ANSWERS,The proper function of the Dynamic sterilizer Where is the best place to place a Biological indicator in the sterilizer for the best out come? - ANSWERS,In front of the vacuum plug on the bottom Looking over medical record and validating findings with a patient. This is what part of the nursing process? - ANSWERS,Assessment 5 Rights of Delegation of a task - ANSWERS,-Right task

  • Right Circumstance
  • Right Person
  • Right Communication
  • Right Supervision What temperature do you store Cryo at? - ANSWERS,22 degree What temperature do Plts need to be kept at? - ANSWERS,22 degree What temperature should the OR suite be below so as to keep things sterile? - ANSWERS,75 degree (only exception is Rheumatoid Arthritis patient.And only for the duration of the case) What is Methyl Methacrylate also known as - ANSWERS,Bone Cement (dangerous for pregnant women and those wherein contacts) Normal CVP - ANSWERS,4-8mm Hg If CVP is below 4 mm Hg what could that indicate? - ANSWERS,-Hemorrhage
  • Venous Pooling Treatment for Paroxysmal Supra ventricular Tachycardia? - ANSWERS,Valsalva maneuver Cardioversion

Adenosine What does a Swan-Ganz Catheter measure? 5things - ANSWERS,-Cardiac output

  • Core temperature
  • PA pressure
  • RA pressure
  • Wedge Pressure Anesthesia that has a Hypnotic, Narcotic, and muscle relaxant is called what? - ANSWERS,Balanced What is the air flow in decontamination? - ANSWERS,Negative airflow What is the temperature set at in decontamination? - ANSWERS,60-65 degrees What do you do for Arterial sided air embolism? - ANSWERS,anticoagulants and bypass to remove it What maneuver do you do for venous air embolism? - ANSWERS,Durants Maneuver (place patient in left lateral position) Which procedure has common complication of venous sided air embolism? - ANSWERS,TURP What part of the nursing process Identifies goals met and modifies them if needed? - ANSWERS,Evaluation What comfort measures do you do for a birth-18month patient? - ANSWERS,-Pacifier
  • Holding and rocking What comfort measures do you do for a 6-11 year old patient? - ANSWERS,-Positive Reinforcement
  • Be honest (Watch for loose teeth in this age group) What comfort measures do you do for 2- 5 year old patient? - ANSWERS,-Preop tour
  • Provide independence when you can
  • They feel they have been bad and this is a punishment
  • Fear of abandonment What comfort measurements do you do for 18-30 months old? - ANSWERS,-Use distraction to help them cope with anxiety What comfort measurements do you do for 12-18 y/o patients? - ANSWERS,-Be honest
  • Provide privacy What do 12-18 y/o fear most? - ANSWERS,-Not having privacy (opposite sex care giver makes them uncomfortable)
  • Scar (give smallest dressing possible) Two types of Automatic cleaners - ANSWERS,-Ultrasonic
  • Washer Gravity displacement time for Porous/Lumen item - ANSWERS,10 minutes Spaulding Classification System
  • Anesthesia Circuits
  • Thermometers
  • GI Scopes
  • Laryngoscopes - ANSWERS,Semi-critical Items (contact with mucous membranes but do not penetrate mucous membranes or vascular system) Spaulding Classification System
  • Surgical Instruments
  • Needles
  • Implants - ANSWERS,Critical Items (enter sterile tissue or vascular system)

Spaulding Classification System

  • BP cuff
  • Bed pan
  • Linens
  • Utensils - ANSWERS,Non-Critical (Items that come into contact only skin) Functional workflow area from potentially high contamination areas to clean areas (5 Areas) - ANSWERS,-Decontamination area
  • Pre and Package area
  • Sterilization Process
  • Sterile storage
  • Clean distribution How do we treat metabolic acidosis? - ANSWERS,Bicarb What part of the nursing process do we understand data, and give NANDA approved diagnosis. Critical thinking. - ANSWERS,Nursing Diagnosis Failure to use reasonable care is called what? - ANSWERS,Negligence Doing something you shouldn't do or doing something you should but beyond scope of practice is called what? - ANSWERS,Malpractice Which class of chemical indicate should be placed inside every tray? (example-Indicator and Integrator) - ANSWERS,Class 5 and 6 (measures time, temp, pressure) Why should we not place count sheets in trays? - ANSWERS,Studies have shown ink to be harmful to patients What type of sterilizing chemical is used in a streris? - ANSWERS,Peracetic Acid

Steam Pre-Vac temperature? - ANSWERS,270-274 F DART TEST - ANSWERS,Steam Sterilizer test for implants. A biological test Which two sterilizers test for Bacillus Atropheus? - ANSWERS,Dry Heat and Ethylene Oxide A patient's lab report shows slightly elevated total white blood cell count with equal elevations of all types of white blood cells, an elevated hemoglobin and hematocrit, normal creatine but elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) increased urine Specific gravity and increased serum sodium. The most likely nursing diagnoses is? A. Risk of infection B. Deficient fluid volume C. Excess Fluid volume D. Imbalanced nutrition - ANSWERS,B. Fluid volume deficient Metoclopramide may be given as a preoperative medication in order to : A. Relieve apprehension B. Reduce risk of aspiration C. Relieve discomfort D. To control secretions - ANSWERS,B. Reduce risk of aspiration (Reglan ) speeds up stomach emptying DNR order is most likely to be suspended and CPR performed if the patient experiences cardiac arrest in the preoperative period because of: A. Acute MI B. Drug reaction C. Advanced Cancer D. Sepsis - ANSWERS,B.Drug Reaction A patient with an Andrew score of 7 in the PACU will generally be : A. Transferred out of the PACU to surgical unit

B. Transferred out of PACU to ICU C. Returned to the OR D. Retained in the conditions improves - ANSWERS,D. Retained in PACU till condition improves All of the following can result from over pressurization during abdominal insufflation with CO except: A. Hypocarbia B. Postoperative neck and shoulder pain C. Decreased respiratory effort and cardiac output D. Regurgitation and Aspiration - ANSWERS,A. Hypocarbia The Mini-Cog test assess for dementia includes: A. Counting backwards from 100 by 7's B. Copying a picture of interlocking shapes C. Following simple 3-part directions D. Drawing the face of a clock with hands including a specific time - ANSWERS,D. Draw a clock with 12 numbers and the hands During a transurethral prostatectomy performed with regional anesthesia, the patient's abdominal becomes rigid and swollen, the patient complains of nausea and abdominal pain and becomes hypotensive and the nurse notes a decrease in bladder irrigation solution. The most likely cause is: A. Transurethral prostatectomy syndrome B. Bladder perforation C. Internal hemorrhage - ANSWERS,B. Bladder perforation Desflurane is contradicted for induction for infants and children because of : A. Increased risk of anesthesia-related hepatitis B. Decreased cerebral metabolism C. Decreased cardiac output D. Upper airway complications - ANSWERS,D. Upper airway complications

If a metal plate is composed of stainless steel, the screws should be: A. Stainless steel or cobalt-chromium B. Stainless steel or titanium-vanadium aluminum C. Stainless steel, cobalt-chromium or titanium aluminum D. Stainless steel only - ANSWERS,D. Stainless steel only The purpose of diluting ethylene oxide with inert gases (such as CO2) and hydrochlorofluorocarbon (HCFC) is to : A. Reduce flammability B. Destroy spores C. Increase bactericidal activity D. Decreased carcinogenicity - ANSWERS,A. Decrease carcinogenicity When administering or handling open containers of chemotherapeutic agents the nurse should: A. Wear double gloves and then remove the outer gloves upon completion B. Wear single gloves and then change to new gloves upon completion C. Wear single gloves and then change then use alcohol hand wash before changing to new gloves D. Wear single gloves with no added precaution necessary - ANSWERS,A. Wear double gloves and then remove the outer gloves upon completion Open shelves used for storage of sterile packages require all of the following except: A. Lowest shelf 8 to 10 inches from the floor B. Highest shelf 8 to 10 inches from ceiling C. Good ventilation with temperature and humidity control D. Shelves 2 inches away from outside walls - ANSWERS,B. Highest shelf 8- 10 inches from ceiling The following medication is contraindicated for treatment of MH: A. Dantrolene sodium B. Regular insulin in 50% glucose solution C. Calcium channel blocker - ANSWERS,D. Calcium channel blocker The agent least likely to be responsible for anaphylaxis during surgery:

A. Isosulfan blue 1% B. Anesthetic agents C. Latex D. Antibiotics - ANSWERS,B. Anesthetic agents such as halothane and isoflurane rarely cause reactions. When developing quality improvement projects the diagram that is used to help identify cause and effect and root causes is: A. Ishikaw diagram B. Affinity diagram C. Prioritization diagram D. Gantry chart - ANSWERS,A. Ishikawa "fishbone" diagram analysis of cause and effect According to ASA's six-point system a patient with mild systemic disease would be classified as: A. P B. P C. P D. P4 - ANSWERS,B. P With color change sterilization indicators, the white stripes on the tape change to ----- when the appropriate conditions (temperature) have been met. A. Red B. Black C. Blue D. Green - ANSWERS,B. Black ____________________ are used to cut delicate tissue A. Straight Mayo scissor B. Kelly scissor C. Curved mayo scissor D. Metzenbaum scissors - ANSWERS,D. Metzenbaum scissor

According to the Nubia Classification of Groin hernias a type II hernia is described as: A. Indirect inguinal hernia-internal inguinal ring normal B. Recurrent hernia C. Indirect inguinal hernia dilated internal inguinal ring with posterior inguinal wall intact D. Posterior wall defects-direct inguinal hernia - ANSWERS, Changes that indicate early manifestations of local anesthetic systemic toxicity include alterations in cardiac rhythm and rate, blood pressure and ........ - ANSWERS,Mental status Identifying interventions that reflect the rights and desires of the patient are what part of the nursing process - ANSWERS,Implementation What is the name of the procedure that allows better movement of the stomach contents in to the duodenum? - ANSWERS,Pyloroplasty What type of laser causes patient or worker corneal damage and immediate pain when not protected with safety goggles? - ANSWERS,CO Each utterer wall is composed of mucous membranes, longitudinal, and ______________muscles, as well as an outer layer of fibrous and elastic tissue - ANSWERS,circular The correct definition of a scleral buckling procedure is the? - ANSWERS,Implantation of a wedge of silicone episclerally or intrasclerally Autologous tissue must be documented appropriately by the preoperative nurse. The ability to track autologous tissue is a regulatory requirement and a ____________ standard - ANSWERS,AATB Which of the following are examples of multifilament surgical nylon suture? - ANSWERS,Surgilon and Nurioon If the surgeon performs a CBDE, what type of drain can the circulator expect to have ready for portion into the common bile duct? - ANSWERS,T-tube

The normal skin flora on the hands includes transient and resident microorganisms. These microorganisms are acquired by: - ANSWERS,contact with contaminated surfaces where patients reside What type of muscle tissue is smooth and has involuntary movement? - ANSWERS,Visceral Which of the following is an example of a behavioral control to support an ergonomically safe environment? - ANSWERS,Wearing non-skid shoes Class 2 chemical indicator tests what? - ANSWERS,(Bowie Dick test )Checks air leaks on the Dynamic air-removal sterilizer (Pre vac) 5 hypo's for sickle cell crisis to start - ANSWERS,hypoglycemia hypovolemia hypotension hypopoxia hypothermia How do you clean critical items? - ANSWERS,Steam pre-vac (Dynamic sterilization) or Gravity sterilization How long does it take to sterilize non porous with Dynamic (Pre-vac) - ANSWERS,3 min How long does it take to sterilize porous with Dynamic (Pre-Vac) - ANSWERS,4 min How long does it take to sterilize non porous Gravity Displacement? - ANSWERS,3 min How long does it take to sterilize porous Gravity Displacement? - ANSWERS,10 min What temperature to sterilize Gravity Displacement? - ANSWERS,(270 F)

Are textiles wraps to be used in flashed tray? - ANSWERS,No-no packaging, wrapped, or textile items are never to be used How long does it take to sterilize with Ethylene Oxide? - ANSWERS,2-5 hours exposure Aeration time 8-12 hours What type of things do we sterilize with Ethylene Oxide? - ANSWERS,Heat and moisture sensitive items Name 2 types of cold sterilization? - ANSWERS,Ethylene Oxide and Gluteraldahyde Name a type of dry sterilization? - ANSWERS,Sterrad Which form of sterilization is approved by FDA for Plastics and metal - ANSWERS,Ozone Which class of chemical indicator is placed on the outside of every package? - ANSWERS,Class 1 (exposed to heat only) Class 2 chemical indicator tests what? - ANSWERS,Air Leaks in Dynamic air leak Bowie-Dick Test How do you treat Diabetes Insipidus? - ANSWERS,DDAVP \ Vasopressin through central line quickly S/S HyperKalemia - ANSWERS,Elevated T Wave Hypertension Spastic Paralysis S/S Hypokalemia - ANSWERS,Abd Distention Inverted T Wave Hypotension Severe arrthymias Taking a temperature is what part of Nursing Process? - ANSWERS,Evaluation

Which sterilization Kills Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease both on room items and instruments? - ANSWERS,Prevac 18 min, Gravity 60 min Room items-Bleach (Hypochlorite), Lye (Sodium Hydroxide) Which chemical indicator class reacts to two critical parameters? - ANSWERS,Class 4 Ryanodex is used in what? - ANSWERS,Treat MH What is the dose for Ryanodex when treating MH? - ANSWERS,1-10mg/kg IV push (reconstitute with 5ml of sterile water) What are some side effects 48 hours after giving Ryanodex? - ANSWERS,Muscle weakness Midazolam is also know as? - ANSWERS,Versed Most common reaction to IV midazolam (Versed) - ANSWERS,Drowsiness Coughing Change in vital signs Apnea Average Blood volume premature baby - ANSWERS,95mL/Kg Average Blood Volume Full Term Baby - ANSWERS,85 mL/kg Infants average blood volume - ANSWERS,80 ml/kg Men average blood volume - ANSWERS,75mL/kg Women average blood volume - ANSWERS,65 ml/kg

Equation for Allowable blood loss - ANSWERS,EBV X (H1 - H#) -------------------====equals ABL H#=HCT given, or 30 H1 if unknown If unknown HCT use what # - ANSWERS,30 Estimated Blood volume formula - ANSWERS,EBV= Kg X ABV How do you clean noncritical items? - ANSWERS,Low-level disinfectants What are examples of low level disinfectants? - ANSWERS,Alcohol Sodium Hypochlorite (bleach) Phenolic solutions Iodophor Solutions Quaternary Estimated blood loss in each sponge type - ANSWERS,4 x4 = 10ml Raytec= 10-20ml Lap sponge= 100ml What temperature is FFP stored at? - ANSWERS,1-4 degree celcius Dantrolene is treatment for what? - ANSWERS,MH What is the dosage of Dantrolene to treat MH? - ANSWERS,2-3mg/kg If CVP is above 8mmHg what could that indicate? - ANSWERS,Pulmonary Hypertension Pulmonary Edema Right Ventricular Failure What does CVP measure? - ANSWERS,Right atrium pressure

3 types of Blood Loss replacers - ANSWERS,Crystalloid (Dextrose, NS, LR) Colloid (albumin, Hespan, Dextran) PRBC At what temperature are you able to maintain your own body temperature? - ANSWERS,78 degrees Spinal surgery gets what kind of table? - ANSWERS,Axis Jackson What is normal cardiac output? - ANSWERS,4-8 liters/min How long does a Steris (Peracetic Acid) take to sterilize - ANSWERS,20-30 min in 120-130 degrees What is the humidity for controlled environments during sterilization? - ANSWERS,20-60% Which sterilization process takes 8-12 hours aeration exposure time? - ANSWERS,Ethylene Oxide 3 risks of giving blood transfusions - ANSWERS,HIV, Hepatitis C + B Trim-Immunocompromised for 1 year increased SSI with refrigerated blood (shape of blood cell changes) Which of the 3 blood transfusion risks are most common - ANSWERS,Trim-Immunocompromised for 1 year Cydex (gluteraldahyde) sterilization time - ANSWERS,5 hours Inguinal hernia repair anesthesia type? - ANSWERS,Field Block Reversal agent for Atropine - ANSWERS,Pilocarpine Sjogren syndrome is what - ANSWERS,all mucous membranes become dry

Pilocarpine is used to treat? - ANSWERS,Sjogren Syndrome Reverse Atropine Glaucoma-decreases eye pressure Reversal agent for barbiturates such as Thiopental - ANSWERS,NONE Reversal agent for Coumadin - ANSWERS,Vitamin K FFP Reversal agent for depolarizing Paralytics such as Succinylcholine - ANSWERS,NONE Reversal agent for non depolarizing paralytic - ANSWERS,Neostigmine Reversal agent for Benzodiazepines - ANSWERS,Flumazenil(Romazicone) Another name for Flumazenil - ANSWERS,Romazicone What are triggers of MH - ANSWERS,Succ's Inhalation gases Earliest sign of air embolism - ANSWERS,Decreased CO2 How do you treat LAST - ANSWERS,Call for help 20% Lipid Emulsion Benzo's to decrease seizures Avoid any pressure points S/S of LAST - ANSWERS,Initial-Metallic taste, numb lips, HA, ringing in ears Excitation Phase-Shiver, slurred speech, seizures, tacky, hypertension Depression Phase-Coma, Brady, hypo, Ventricular arrhythmia, cardiac arrest

What does LAST stand for - ANSWERS,LOCAL, Anesthesia, Systemic, Toxicity Contraindications for glaucoma patients - ANSWERS,No atropine No neostigmine No Succ's No Versed What is the exposure time limit to halogenated gases - ANSWERS,2ppm/8hrs How do you treat ventricular arrhythmias - ANSWERS,Epi-Aminodone/Lidocaine-defib with no pulse and sync cardiovert with pulse How do you treat bradycardia - ANSWERS,Atropine unless glaucoma then Epi Dopamine Drip External Pacer Anesthesia type for Extremity surgery - ANSWERS,Retrograde IV Block Pneumatic Tourniquet time limit for peds - ANSWERS,75 min As determined by NIOSH what is the exposure limit to nitrous oxide gas - ANSWERS,25ppm/8hrs Prep approved for eye and ear - ANSWERS,Parachlorxylenol Povidone-Iodine What do you do with Endoscopes before placing them in cleaning solution? - ANSWERS,Leak test What should we do with endoscopes when transporting them to decontamination? - ANSWERS,Keep them damp or wet but not submerged How soon should you clean an endoscope after use - ANSWERS,With in one hour of use

Is it recommended you soak an endoscope in high-level disinfectant? - ANSWERS,no How often should you used a Biological indicator in an Ethylene Oxide sterilization - ANSWERS,every load Which two sterilization processes are tested for Bacillus Atropheus - ANSWERS,Dry heat and Ethylene Oxide How often should you change your gloves - ANSWERS,90-150 min What is the only solution that kills C-Diff - ANSWERS,Bleach How do you self glove - ANSWERS,Open method Which type of sterilizer must be tested with Bowie-Dick chemical indicator? - ANSWERS,Dynamic Air Removal (Prevac) Policy need what three things - ANSWERS,In Written form Reviewed annually Readily available to staff Name a dissociative anesthesic - ANSWERS,Ketamine What is the most common types of Balanced anesthetics - ANSWERS,IV and inhalants What are types of Neurolepts - ANSWERS,Tranquilizers, narcotics, paralytics, and nitrous What is an advantage of Katamine - ANSWERS,No respiratory depression Which patients should not get Ketamine - ANSWERS,Psychosis pt.