CNOR Exam Prep: 300 Practice Questions & Answers (2024-2025), Exams of Nursing

Download CNOR Exam Prep: 300 Practice Questions & Answers (2024-2025) and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!

CNOR EXAM PREPARATION AND 2024-

2025 ACTUAL PRACTICE EXAM WITH 300

QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED

ANSWERS/GRADED A+

Cholecystectomy incision needed - Krocher's incision Gallbladder, Liver incision name - Midline incision Appendicitis incsion - Mc Burney's Pont incision Incision for GYN Pelvic Surgery and Prostatic Surgery - Pfannenstiel incision Normal Hemoglobin levels for men - 13.5-17. Normal Hemoglobin for women - 12 - 16 Na+ normal level - 135 - 145 Normal Potassium Level - 3.5-5. Normal Ph level - 7.35-7. PaCO2 normal level - 35 - 45 PaO2 normal level - 80 - 100

HCO3 normal level - 22 - 28 Ammonia normal level - 9.5-49mcg/dl ALT liver function normal level - 0 - 35 Albumin normal level - 4 - 6 Hct normal level for male - 39 - 49 Hct normal level for female - 35 - 45 What piece of equipment do you need for a vasvagotomy? - microscope During a procedure under local anesthesia, the patient complains of circumoral numbness, blurred vision and dizziness. What should be the immediate action of the preoperative nurse monitoring this patient? - Ensure an airway The circulating nurse reports that the needle count is incorrect. The surgeon continues to close the wound stating "I know it is not in the wound and I am not going to stop to look for it". The best plan of action is to : - inform the surgeon of the hospital policy and document subsequent actions A new employee unknowingly dispensed an unsterile solution to the sterile field. The following day the supervisor

What must you have before putting in an A-Line? - Allen's Test Which facial lines would a surgeon use to remove a lesion? - Langer Lines Kraske Position is also known as? - Jack Knife What is hematopoiesis? - The body making new blood cells Causes of metabolic Alkalosis? - - Anything that causes loss of acid loss in GI Tract-N/V

• Self induced by TUMS What is FFP made up of? - - Clotting factors
• Plasma What is Cryo used for? - To control bleeding Where is a Swan Ganz catheter placed? - Internal Jugular What 5 risks are pediatric patients in the OR at risk for? - - Displacing ET tube (short trachea)
• Hypothermia
• Hypovolemia (weigh sponges)
• Peter Panning off table (moving around during induction)
• (+) Resp Rate causes (+) Heart Rate

Voluntary reporting that encourages self reporting without fear of retaliation? - Culture of Safety from the Patient Saftey and Quality Improvement Act 2005 S/S of Hypontremia (below 135) - - N/V

• Irritability
• Muscle cramping
• Muscle twitching
• HA What time frame must I use FFP after being thawed? - 24 hours Pudendal Block is used in what type of surgery? - GYN Avoid an Epidural, Spinal, and General anesthesia with these type of patients? - Sickle cell Pneumatic Tourniquet must have how much re-profussion time, before re-inflating it again? - 15 minutes Pneumatic Tourniquet time limit for upper extremity in adults? - 60 minutes Pneumatic Tourniquet time limit for a lower extremity in adults? - 90 minutes Replace clotting factors after how many units of blood? - 4 units

Which type of sterilization process can sterilize oils and powders? - Dry Heat for one hour Which sterilization process can cause cancer? - Ethylene Oxide Which medication requires an A-Line first? - Nipride Which integrator do you use to Flash some thing? - Class 5 integrator How long do you flash a nonporous item in a Dynamic Autoclave? - 3 minutes (Pre-Vacuum) How long do you flash a porous item in a Dynamic Autoclave? - 4 minutes (Pre-Vacuum) Which sterilizer sucks air out of chamber? - Dynamic (Pre- Vacuum) What is the limited exposure time a person can have with Ethylene Oxide? - 1 ppm in 8 hours Causes of Metabolic Acidosis - - Renal Failure

• Sepsis
• Keto-acidosis
• Cardiac Arrest

What risk is possible with a Swan-Ganz Cath? - Micro Shock- electrical current to myocardium causing arrhthymias What does an A-Line measure? - Blood Pressure Best recovery position for oral procedures? - Semi Prone What is the best position for recovery for most postoperative patients? - Lateral (In case of N/V) What is the most critical step to prevent infection? - Cleaning Injection of anesthesia to Inferior Globe of the eye - Retrobulbar Block What do you give to a hemophiliac before surgery? - Factor 8 in the PREOP How long does it take Latex allergens to leave the OR suite? - 22 minutes Age groups with highest risk of heat loss - 1st 4-6wk 2nd Elderly 3rd 18 months 4th Adult What do you need to do to PLts once in the room? - frequently and gentle agitate

Which surgery is associated with causing hyponatremia? - TURP (Bladder irrigation should be Normal Saline to prevent sodium loss) Treatment for Hyponatremia - - Restrict fluids (to prevent the pulling of sodium with the fluid)

• Diuretics Causes of Hyperkalemia - - Hospital Induced-giving to much K+
• Burns
• Massive Crushing Trauma
• Diabetic Keto Acidosis Treatment for Hyperkalemia - - Kayexalate
• D5O with Insulin Treatment for Hypokalemia - Potassium Supplements What lab value increases when you have N/V, Diarrheas? - K+ Potassium A wrong committed against somebody involves what type of law? - TORT Law Doing a operation without a consent is what type of law? - Battery

Being a patient advocate is what part of the nursing process?

• Implementation What is the weight limit on trays to be sure they are sterilized properly? - 25 lbs Bowie Dick Test is done to test what - The proper function of the Dynamic sterilizer Where is the best place to place a Biological indicator in the sterilizer for the best out come? - In front of the vacuum plug on the bottom Looking over medical record and validating findings with a patient. This is what part of the nursing process? - Assessment 5 Rights of Delegation of a task - - Right task
• Right Circumstance
• Right Person
• Right Communication
• Right Supervision What temperature do you store Cryo at? - 22 degree What temperature do Plts need to be kept at? - 22 degree What temperature should the OR suite be below so as to keep things sterile? - 75 degree (only exception is

What is the temperature set at in decontamination? - 60 - 65 degrees What do you do for Arterial sided air embolism? - anticoagulants and bypass to remove it What maneuver do you do for venous air embolism? - Durants Maneuver (place patient in left lateral position) Which procedure has common complication of venous sided air embolism? - TURP What part of the nursing process Identifies goals met and modifies them if needed? - Evaluation What comfort measures do you do for a birth-18month patient? - - Pacifier

• Holding and rocking What comfort measures do you do for a 6-11 year old patient? - - Positive Reinforcement
• Be honest (Watch for loose teeth in this age group) What comfort measures do you do for 2- 5 year old patient? -
• Preop tour
• Provide independence when you can
• They feel they have been bad and this is a punishment
• Fear of abandonment

What comfort measurements do you do for 18-30 months old? - - Use distraction to help them cope with anxiety What comfort measurements do you do for 12-18 y/o patients? - - Be honest

• Provide privacy What do 12-18 y/o fear most? - - Not having privacy (opposite sex care giver makes them uncomfortable)
• Scar (give smallest dressing possible) Two types of Automatic cleaners - - Ultrasonic
• Washer Gravity displacement time for Porous/Lumen item - 10 minutes Spaulding Classification System
• Anesthesia Circuits
• Thermometers
• GI Scopes
• Laryngoscopes - Semi-critical Items (contact with mucous membranes but do not penetrate mucous membranes or vascular system) Spaulding Classification System
• Surgical Instruments
• Needles
• Implants - Critical Items (enter sterile tissue or vascular system)

Which class of chemical indicate should be placed inside every tray? (example-Indicator and Integrator) - Class 5 and 6 (measures time, temp, pressure) Why should we not place count sheets in trays? - Studies have shown ink to be harmful to patients What type of sterilizing chemical is used in a streris? - Peracetic Acid Steam Pre-Vac temperature? - 270 - 274 F DART TEST - Steam Sterilizer test for implants. A biological test Which two sterilizers test for Bacillus Atropheus? - Dry Heat and Ethylene Oxide A patient's lab report shows slightly elevated total white blood cell count with equal elevations of all types of white blood cells, an elevated hemoglobin and hematocrit, normal creatine but elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) increased urine Specific gravity and increased serum sodium. The most likely nursing diagnoses is? A. Risk of infection B. Deficient fluid volume C. Excess Fluid volume D. Imbalanced nutrition - B. Fluid volume deficient

Metoclopramide may be given as a preoperative medication in order to : A. Relieve apprehension B. Reduce risk of aspiration C. Relieve discomfort D. To control secretions - B. Reduce risk of aspiration (Reglan ) speeds up stomach emptying DNR order is most likely to be suspended and CPR performed if the patient experiences cardiac arrest in the preoperative period because of: A. Acute MI B. Drug reaction C. Advanced Cancer D. Sepsis - B.Drug Reaction A patient with an Andrew score of 7 in the PACU will generally be : A. Transferred out of the PACU to surgical unit B. Transferred out of PACU to ICU C. Returned to the OR D. Retained in the conditions improves - D. Retained in PACU till condition improves All of the following can result from over pressurization during abdominal insufflation with CO2 except: A. Hypocarbia B. Postoperative neck and shoulder pain C. Decreased respiratory effort and cardiac output

A. Stainless steel or cobalt-chromium B. Stainless steel or titanium-vanadium aluminum C. Stainless steel, cobalt-chromium or titanium aluminum D. Stainless steel only - D. Stainless steel only The purpose of diluting ethylene oxide with inert gases (such as CO2) and hydrochlorofluorocarbon (HCFC) is to : A. Reduce flammability B. Destroy spores C. Increase bactericidal activity D. Decreased carcinogenicity - A. Decrease carcinogenicity When administering or handling open containers of chemotherapeutic agents the nurse should: A. Wear double gloves and then remove the outer gloves upon completion B. Wear single gloves and then change to new gloves upon completion C. Wear single gloves and then change then use alcohol hand wash before changing to new gloves D. Wear single gloves with no added precaution necessary - A. Wear double gloves and then remove the outer gloves upon completion Open shelves used for storage of sterile packages require all of the following except: A. Lowest shelf 8 to 10 inches from the floor B. Highest shelf 8 to 10 inches from ceiling C. Good ventilation with temperature and humidity control

D. Shelves 2 inches away from outside walls - B. Highest shelf 8 - 10 inches from ceiling The following medication is contraindicated for treatment of MH: A. Dantrolene sodium B. Regular insulin in 50% glucose solution C. Calcium channel blocker - D. Calcium channel blocker The agent least likely to be responsible for anaphylaxis during surgery: A. Isosulfan blue 1% B. Anesthetic agents C. Latex D. Antibiotics - B. Anesthetic agents such as halothane and isoflurane rarely cause reactions. When developing quality improvement projects the diagram that is used to help identify cause and effect and root causes is: A. Ishikaw diagram B. Affinity diagram C. Prioritization diagram D. Gantry chart - A. Ishikawa "fishbone" diagram analysis of cause and effect According to ASA's six-point system a patient with mild systemic disease would be classified as: A. P B. P