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COA PRACTICE TEST 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS 2024/2025 CORRECT STUDY SET, Exams of Nursing

COA PRACTICE TEST 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS 2024/2025 CORRECT STUDY SET

Typology: Exams

2024/2025

Available from 10/31/2024

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Download COA PRACTICE TEST 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS 2024/2025 CORRECT STUDY SET and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!

COA PRACTICE TEST 100%

VERIFIED ANSWERS

2024/2025 CORRECT STUDY

SET

When recording chief complaint the assistant should include only facts stated by patient close examination of the lids, lashes, cornea, and lens can be accomplished with biomicroscopy in the snellen acuity recording chart the reading 20/100 the number "100" represents distance in feet at which a normal eye can see a particular line on the chart If pinhole acuity test is for to improve a patients poor visual acuity the patient potentially has a refractive error Jaeger notations, snellen M units and distance equivalence are various units of measuring near acuity Having a patient follow a finger in the 6 cardinal positions of gaze is a method of evaluating extraocular muscle function The prism and alternate cover test is used to evaluate measure deviation in a misaligned eye What procedure must be performed before dilation drops are instilled swinging light-test

In normal consensual reaction, when light is directed into pupil of one eye, the pupil of the other eye should constrict What test evaluates disturbance or defects in the central visual field amsler grid Intraocular pressure is measured by flattening a small area in the central cornea applanation tonometry A reading of 3 on the Goldman tonometer dial indicates an IOP of 30 mm Hg Gonioscopy is a procedure used to view what portion of the eye structures of the anterior chamber angle Indirect ophthalmoscopy provides a ____ view of the fundus than direct opthamoscopy wider The microbe most likely to cause recurrent fever blisters is herpes virus A corneal abrasion caused by a tree twig is most likely to cause a fungal infection Who is most at risk for developing an ocular infection by protozoa acanthamoeba? Patients who muse homemade contact solution The primary purpose of standard precautions is to reduce the opportunity for harmful microbes to flourish and threaten patients and medical personel A tonometer tip is best disinfected with

germicide or alcohol sterilization is best defined as the destruction of all microbes an autoclave is used to sterilize medical materials by means of pressurized moist heat If ophthalmic medical assistant accidentally touches the sterile functional surface of a disposable instrument then the in the instrument should be discarded, regardless of the cost Ophthalmic medical assistants with open cuts on their hands should wear gloves to protect patients and themselves What part of the comprehensive eye exam should include inspection of the visible part of lacrimal apparatus External exam An infection caused when the eye has been penetrated with a contaminated metal fragment is an example of direct-contact transmission Healthy asymptomatic individual aged 40-64 should have a comprehensive medical eye exam how often 2 - 4 years One disadvantage of ophthalmic ointments is they may blur vision when applied What form of injection is classified as systemic drug delivery subcutaneous

When instilling eye drops the assistant should instill medications directly into conjunctival sac What drug is most helpful when performing a dilated fundus exam and an objective refraction on a pediatric patient cycloplegic What two drugs can stimulate an angle closure attack mydriatics and cycloplegics topical anesthetics are most often used to prevent discomfort during diagnostic procedures Which part of the patient examination is performed by asking specific questions in an orderly sequence? History The term used to refer to symptoms due to uncorrected refractive error is. asthenopia What are some of the symptoms associated with conjunctivitis? red, irritated, bloodshot eye Which common familial ocular disorder should you record during a patient's history? A. Scoliosis, B. Keratoconus, C. Hemophilia, D. Cholesteremia B. Keratoconus Which of the following symptoms requires prompt attention? A. Diplopia, B. Pain in the eye, C. Halos around lights, D. Sudden loss of vision. C. Halos around lights. After introduction to the patient, one of the first items that should be obtained as part of history taking is?

the chief complaint or reason for the patient's visit When a patient complains of diplopia, why is it important to ask why if the second image goes away after closing one eye? To determine the type of diplopia the patient is experiencing Which types of allergies should be discussed with the patient's? Drugs, Inhalants(dust, pollen), contactants(cosmetics,woolens), ingestants (foods), and injectants (tetanus) Which of these conditions is least likely to cause transient loss of vision? A. Papilledema, B. Carotid artery disease, C. Thyroid disorder, D. Migraine C. Thyroid disorders Binocular double vision is always caused by a weak or a paralyzed extraocular muscle An improperly measured interpupillary distance (PD) may result in. induced prism in the spectacle lens. Consensual light reflex in the right eye results in... right pupil constriction The state of pupillary constriction is known as Miosis If the amount of light information transmitted to the brain from one eye differs from that of the other eye, the patient has an... afferent pupillary defect. When pupils are of unequal size it is called... anisocoria

Which test compares the direct and consensual responses to the pupil? A) Swinging Flashlight, B)Worth four-dot, C) pinhole disk, or D) Cover- Uncover Swinging Flashlight A disadvantage of chemical-based contact lens care systems is...A)irritation, B)simplicity of use, C) poor disinfection, D) low replacement rate irritation Soft contact lenses are susceptible to deposits of... proteins An important difference between soft and rigid lenses is that soft contact lenses are... usually more comfortable The permeability of a contact lens is denoted by which value? A) RGP, B) PMMA, C) DK, D) GPC DK The instrument that measures the curvature of the central part of the cornea is the... keratometer The instrument that measures the power of spectacle lenses is the... lensmeter When replacing the projector's amp, it is important to... wait a few minutes after it is turned off. The exposed lens surface of an eyepiece should be dusted periodically with a... camel-hair brush What two items are used to clean the retinoscopy lens, polarizing lens, red lens, and Maddox rod lens? Cotton tip swab and glass cleaner

Routine Maintenance on a phoropter should not include... gently wiping off all exposed phoropter parts with alcohol. calibration of the applanation tonometer is checked by using a measured weight attached to the tonometer balancing arm at 0, 2, and 6. A lens with a focal length of 2 meters has a power of... 0.5 D What part of the spectacle frame connects two lenses? Bridge The measurement used to determine the distance between the optical centers of spectacle lenses is the... pupillary distance The optical centers of spectacle lenses must be properly aligned in order to avoid what effect? Prismatic What is the reading portion of the bifocal prescription called? Addition Which process is useful for measuring corneal astigmatism? Keratometry The results of Keratometry can be expressed in... diopters In keratometry, if the power of the vertical meridian is greater than the power of the horizontal meridian, the patient has.... against-the-rule-astigmatism. Corneal curvature measurement is vital to ensure that a contact lens...

rests on the cornea. The dioptric power of the cornea is determined by... keratometer readings. What is the MAIN purpose of wearing impact resistant rather than ordinary glasses in an industrial setting? Prevent ocular injury The proper technique to assist the visually impaired patient is to.... place their hand on your arm at the elbow. The function of the tear film is to... hydrate and protect the ocular surface. What process best describes the patients participation in their own treatment? A) Informed consent, B) Discussions with family members, C) Disclosure, D) Confidentiality Disclosure To provide informed consent, patients must comprehend the doctor's recommendations. Ophthalmologists have a duty to ensure that each patient understands their... treatment recommendations The primary role and responsibility of ophthalmic medical personnel is the... collection of data and the performance of clinical evaluations as authorized by the supervising licensed clinician. A common medium used to culture microorganisms is... agar

Universal precautions require that equipment or devices that only come in contact with a patient's intact skin should undergo A) sterilization before every use, B) daily sterilization, C) surface disinfection, D) cleaning with detergent surface disinfection Degerming of the hands is know as... scrubbing Viruses can be seen with a(n)... electron microscope Which eye drop paralyzes accommodation and thereby allows all of the hyperopia to be uncovered? Cycloplegic Drugs that dilate the pupil without cycloplegia operate by stimulating which iris muscle? Dilator Which type of drug is used to treat acute allergic reactions? Antihistamines A cycloplegic that is ideal for office use because it has rapid onset and short duration is... phenylephrine Which drug is a powerful mydriatic and cycloplegic that can take up to two weeks to wear off? Atropine Oral medications are considered to be what kind of drug? Systemic The drug that treats glaucoma by decreasing aqueous humor production is...

timolol maleate Drugs that dilate the pupil are called... mydriatics An alkaline solution has a pH greater than... 7 The concentration of a chemical in a pharmaceutical solution is also called the... tonicity Which drug is used for applanation tonometry? Proparicane The ophthalmologist instructs that a patient is to receive drops b.i.d; the assistant should instruct the patient to take the drops... twice a day The use of topical steroids may induce which of the following? A) Retinal detachment, B) Cataracts, C) Keratoconus, D) Hyphema Cataracts Protaglandins drops can cause... increased iris pigmentation, eyelash growth, and conjunctival hyperemia What tool is a series of red cylinders to assess phoria? Maddox rod Which test uses prisms to center corneal reflex? Krimsky Which item is not a classification of fixation? A.Central, B. Steady, C. Maintained, D. Primary

D. Primary Which item is not a designation of a version? A.Levoversion, B.Sursumversion, C.Dextoversion, D.Intraversion D. Intraversion A granulated inflammation of the eyelid that may be removed surgically if it does not subside is a.... chalazion Probing of the tear duct may be useful treatment for patients with... epiphora Before sterilization, minor surgical instruments should be... cleaned with soapy water Which instrument is used in chalazion surgery? A. Clamp, B. Dilator, C. Forceps, D.Needle A. Clamp The surgical instrument used to enlarge the punctum is a ... dilator The surgeon's preference in instruments, sutures and preparation of the patient should be updated... regularly While scrubbing your hands and arms, the run off of soap and water should drip down the... elbows The second step in preparing absorbable sutures before loading on a needle holder is rinsing the suture

Surgical instruments should not be cared for with use of.. corrosive chemicals Which eye care personnel specialize in fitting spectacles? Optician Which eye care professionals specialize in measurement of eye movement and the extraocular muscles? Orthoptist The best way to guide a partially-sighted patient to an exam room is? offering your arm Glaucoma primarily affects which ocular structure? Optic Nerve Iridotomy is used to treat what type of condition? Open Angle Glaucoma What is one of the slowest progressing types of glaucoma? Open Angle Glaucoma Small yellowish-white lesions located between the retinal pigment epithelium and Bruch's membrane are known as? drusen A drooping of the upper eyelid is known as? ptosis A hemorrhage that partially fills the anterior chamber with blood is called? hyphema A triangular thickening of the conjunctiva that partially covers the cornea is known as?

pterygium Turning of the eyelid towards the globe is called? entropion A patient has had cataract surgery with intraocular lens implantation. The patient is now? pseudophakic Which eye condition is characterized by two clinical types, wet and dry? Macular degeneration The triangular corners where the upper and lower eyelids meet are called? canthi The fluid between the cornea and the iris is? aqueous humor Correct direction for aqueous flow? Ciliary body; Anterior chamber; trabecular meshwork; Canal of Schlemm The thickest layer of the cornea is called the Stroma The zonular fibers that support the lens are attached to the? Ciliary body Which part of the eye constricts in bright light? Iris The site where half the nerve fibers from each eye cross over to the opposite side is called the optic _______. Chiasm

How many extraocular muscles move each eye? 6 Which muscle adducts the eye? Medial rectus The tendency of one eye to turn upwards is called? hyperphoria The eyelid glands that secrete oil are the _________. meibomian glands The physiologic blind spot correlates with the optic_____. nerve The visual receptors that process color are called? cones The iris, Ciliary body, and choroid are collectively known as the Uvea Which imaging technique does not output a color-coded map? Indocyanine Green Chorioangiography(ICG) What type of illumination should be used for photographing external eye structures? Diffuse Which type of imaging provides a cross-sectional view of the retina that is useful in evaluating glaucoma? Opitcal Coherence Tomography A slit lamp is used to examine the

anterior chamber Conjunctivitis is an inflammation of the conjunctiva What test illuminates the screen with a filter what is red on one side and green on the other? Duochrome The distance from the cornea to the back surface of the spectacle lens is the.... Vertex Distance Retinoscopy is an example of what type of refractometry? Objective Bending of light is called? Refraction The area between the two focal points of a spherocylindrical lens is called the Conoid of ___________? Sturm The condition in which the eye does not refract light equally in all directions is____________ astigmatism Starting with plano in retinoscopy, a "with" reflex is most commonly observed in which refractive error? Hyperopia The unaccommodated emmetropic eye focuses parallel light rays from a distant source


on the retina Refractometry without requiring patient response is considered to be

objective The use of cycloplegic drops during refractometry impairs_________. accommodation A lens consisting of two cylinders of equal but opposite powers is the cross cylinder A patient's prescription is - 2.50+5.00x180. What is the minus cylinder transposition?

  • 1.50-1.00x The spherical equivalent of +2.00+5.00x180 is? +4. The formula used to calculate induced prismatic effect caused by spectacle lenses whose optical centers have been decentered so they are not in line with the patient's visual axis describes? Prentice's rule Part of the rules for transportation is to change the axis of the cylinder by 90 degrees The two types of bridges located on a spectacle frame are the ____________and___________. keyhole and saddle The A-scan display is a(n) single linear image Intraocular lenses may be classified according to their position and method of fixation The cones of the human eye are sensitive to which colors? Red, green and blue

Tear production may decrease by 30% or more in a person over what age? 50 The instrument used to measure the thickness of the cornea and the depth of the anterior chamber is a pachymeter In glare testing, how many controlled degrees of light does the BAT test deliver when the eye is viewing a Snellen chart? 3 Which test measures tear flow? Schirmer Which test is used to assess stereopsis? Titmus/Wirt What test plated are used to assess color vision? Ishihara Rose Bengal is a red dye Rose Bengal is a stain that is helpful in identifying what? keratoconjunctivitis The estimation of anterior chamber depth is done by shining a penlight in what area of the patient's eye? Side The interferometer is used to test a patient's potential acuity

The color vision test that consists of a series of plates with a gray background and colored circles, crosses and triangles is the Hardy-Rand-Ritter Which type of tonometer is mounted on a slit lamp? Applanation The calibration of an applanation tonometer should be checked at which settings? 0,2, How often should a tonometer tip be sterilized? Before every use Applanation tonometry readings need to be multiplied by what number to obtain the mmHg? 10 Intraocular pressure is measured with a(n) tonometer A tonometry technique that displaces a minimal amount of fluid is applanation What color is the light filter used in applanation tonometry? Blue Measuring visual acuity with a Potential Acuity meter is useful for patients with Cataracts Near vision charts should be held how many inches from the eye? 14 - 16 If poor vision is simply due to refractive error, the acuity should improve with use of a(n)

pinhole disc What is the recommended distance used for assessing distance acuity? 20 feet If a person can clearly see an object at 20 feet that can be seen at 60 feet by a person with no refractive error, their visual acuity is said to be 20/ What does the numerator stand for in the 20/20 notation? Distance from patient's eyes to the chart Which statement is true regarding the letters on the Snellen chart? Because they each subtend the same amount of arc, each letter is equally recognizable If a patient is unable to distinguish the largest letter on a Snellen chart, the assistant should.... determine if the patient can count fingers at a given distance In a visual assessment an infant would be expected to reach for toys by the age of 4 - 6 months What is the most common way to record visual acuity in infants and preverbal children? CSM How do you assess light projection in a patient? Shine the light in four quadrants and ask the patient to point to the direction of the light source Near vision is recorded at the smallest type the patient can read comfortably between 14-16 inches Acuity testing of an illiterate person and preschool children can be performed with all the following Except: Allen cards, a potential acuity meter, an E cube, and Landolt's broken ring chart.

potential acuity meter Which test can be used to differentiate visual loss caused by refractive errors versus visual loss caused by disease of the eye? Pinhole disk The amsler grid is designed to evaluate visual field deficiencies in how many degrees of central vision? 20 degrees An area of complete or partial blindness in an otherwise normal visual field is called a .... scotoma Visual field defects due to optic nerve damage are related to which condition? Glaucoma Which type of perimetry technique involves a moving target? Kinetic Scotomas located immediately nasal or temporal to fixation are known as paracentral The most widely used method of visual field screening, requiring no special equipment, is...... confrontation testing When performing Goldmann perimetry, approximately how many meridians should be examined? 12