Communication and Anatomy Terminology in Emergency Medical Care, Exams of Advanced Education

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JBL Midterm

According to the National EMS Scope of Practice Model, an EMT should be able to: - assist a patient with certain prescribed medications An appropriate demonstration of professionalism when your patient is frightened, demanding, or unpleasant is to: - continue to be nonjudgmental, compassionate, and respectful. An EMS provider who has extensive training in various aspects of advanced life support (ALS) is called a(n): - paramedic Cardiac monitoring, pharmacological interventions, and other advanced treatment skills are functions of the: - paramedic Continuing education in EMS serves to: - maintain, update, and expand your knowledge and skills. EMS as we know it today had its origins in 1966 with the publication of: - Accidental Death and Disability: The Neglected Disease of Modern Society If a defibrillator manufacturer claims that its device terminates ventricular fibrillation on the first shock 95% of the time, you should: - recognize that this does not mean the device will save more lives. Obtaining continuing medical education is the responsibility of the: - individual EMT The continuous quality improvement (CQI) process is designed to: - identify areas of improvement and provide remedial training if needed The determination that prompt surgical care in the hospital is more important than performing time- consuming procedures in the field on a major trauma patient is based MOSTLY on: - EMS research

The EMT certification exam is designed to: - ensure that EMTs are competent and have the same level of knowledge and skills. The standards for prehospital emergency care and the individuals who provide it are typically regulated by the: - state office of EMS Which of the following criteria is required to become a licensed and employed as an EMT? - proof of immunization against certain communicable diseases Which of the following descriptions most accurately portrays emergency medical services? - A team of health care professionals who are responsible for providing emergency care and transportation to the sick and injured Which of the following errors is an example of a knowledge-based failure? - An EMT administers the wrong drug to a patient because she did not know the pertinent information about the drug. Which of the following is an example of a primary prevention strategy? - community awareness programs that emphasize the dangers of drinking and driving Which of the following scenarios involves the administration of ALS? - A 48-year-old patient whose airway is secured with a supraglottic device Which of the following skills or interventions is included at entry level of prehospital emergency training? - Automated external defibrillation Which of following statements regarding the NREMT is correct? - The NREMT provides a national standard for EMS testing Which type of medical direction do standard orders and protocol describe? - Off-line A critical incident debriefing should be conducted no longer than____ hours following the incident. - 72

A positive TB skin test indicates that: - you have been exposed to TB Characteristics of eustress following dispatch to a high speed motor vehicle collision may include: - increased self-image from performing well under a challenging situation General adaptation syndrome is characterized by which of the following phases? - alarm response, reaction and resistance, and recovery Hazards that are associated with a structural fire include all of the following, EXCEPT: - carbon dioxide deficiency. Prescription glasses do not provide adequate eye protection because they: - offer little or no side protection. Quid pro quo, a type of sexual harassment, occurs when the harasser: - requests sexual favors in exchange for something else. The capacity of an individual to cope with and recover from stress is called: - resilience The most effective way to preserve your own body heat when functioning in cold, wet weather is to: - wear at least three layers of clothing.. The most important consideration at the scene of a hazardous materials incident is: - Ensuring your personal safety The MOST serious consequence of drug or alcohol abuse among EMS personnel is: - substandard or inappropriate patient care. The simplest, yet most effective method of preventing the spread of an infectious disease is to: - wash your hands in between patient contacts.

The spread of HIV and hepatitis in the healthcare setting can usually be traced to: - careless handling of sharps. Vaccination against the hepatitis A virus is unnecessary if you: - have been infected with hepatitis in the past. Vectorborne transmission of an infectious organism occurs via: - animals or insects What should you do before attempting to access a patient trapped in a vehicle? - Ensure the vehicle is stable. When decontaminating the back of your ambulance after a call, you should: - allow surfaces to air dry unless otherwise indicated in the product directions Which of the following infectious disease confers no protection from reinfection after exposure? - syphilis Which of the following is the most significant factor in determining whether a person will become ill from certain germs? - immunity You have been working at the scene of a major building collapse for eight hours. Many injured people are still being removed, and everyone is becoming frustrated and losing focus. This situation is most effectively managed by: - Requesting a CISM team to provide on-scene peer support Acting in such a way as to make another person fear immediate bodily harm is called: - assault An EMT would most likely be held liable for abandonment if he or she: - did not make provisions for continued care of an injured patient As an EMT, the performance of your duties will be compared to that of: - another EMT For a do not resuscitate (DNR) order to be valid, it must: - clearly state the patient's medical problem.

In many states, a minor may be treated as an adult for the purpose of consenting to or refusing medical treatment if the minor: - is self-supporting and lives by him- or herself In the eyes of the courts, an incomplete or untidy patient form indicates: - Inadequate patient care was administered Maintaining the chain of evidence at the scene of a crime should include: - not cutting through holes in clothing that were caused by weapons Putrefaction is defined as: - decomposition of the body's tissues. The EMTs scope of practice within his or her local response area is defined by the: - Medical Director The manner in which the EMT must act or behave when caring for a patient is called the: - standard of care Two EMT's witnessed a call in which a coworker gave adequate medical care but ignored the patient's emotional needs. The coworker was deliberately rude solely because the patient was thought to be infected with the human immunodeficiency virus(HIV). The EMT's ignored the coworker's treatment of this patient and took no steps to prevent this behavior from happening again. This lack of action on the part of the two EMT's is considered - legal but unethical Which aspect of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) MOST affects EMS personnel? - Protecting patient privacy Which of the following general statements regarding consent is correct? - A patient can consent to transport but can legally refuse to be treated. Which of the following defines negligence? - Deviation from the standard of care that might result further injury

Which of the following patients has decision-making capacity and can legally refuse emergency medical treatment? - A conscious and alert woman with severe abdominal pain Which of the following scenarios most accurately depicts abandonment? - a paramedic transfers patient care to an EMT Which of the following situations requires you to notify the appropriate authorities? - Attempted suicide Which of the following statements regarding Good Samaritan laws is correct? - Such laws will not protect the EMT in cases of gross negligence. Which of the following types of consent allows treatment of a patient who is unconscious or mentally incapacitated? - implied You arrive at the scene of an apparent death. When evaluating the patient, which of the following is a definitive sign of death? - dependent lividity A _____ receives messages and signals on one frequency and then automatically retransmits them on a second frequency. - repeater A patient's refusal of EMS treatment and/or transport must be: - an informed refusal All information recorded on the PCR must be: - considered confidential Any radio hardware containing a transmitter and receiver that is located in a fixed location is called a: - base station As you are wheeling your patient through the emergency department doors, you receive another call for a major motor vehicle crash. You should: - respond only after giving a verbal patient report to a nurse or physician.

Calming and reassuring an anxious patient can be facilitated by: - maintaining eye contact with the patient whenever possible. Communicating with hearing-impaired patients can be facilitated by doing all of the following except: - elevating the tone of your voice and exaggerating word pronunciation. During the alert and dispatch phase of EMS communications, the dispatcher's responsibilities include all of the following, EXCEPT: - discouraging the caller from providing care until the EMS unit arrives. Ethnocentrism is defined as: - considering your own cultural values as more important when interacting with people of a different culture. In which of the following manners should you act and speak with a patient? A. Authoritative B. Calm and Confident C. Loud and Official D. Passive - Calm and Confident The Patient Care Report ensures: A. Continuity of Care B. Quality Assurance C. Availability of Research D. Legal Protection - Continuity of Care Two-way communication that requires the EMT to "push to talk" and "release to listen" describes what mode of communication? A. Duplex

B. Complex C. Simplex D. Multiplex - simplex When communicating with a visually impaired patient, you should: A. Determine the Degree of the patients impairment B. Expect the patient to have difficulty understanding C. Possess as in-depth knowledge of sign language D. Recall that most visually impaired patients are blind - determine the degree of the patient's impairment. When providing a patient report via radio, you should protect the patient's privacy by: A. Withholding medical history data B. Refraining from objective statements C. Not disclosing his or her name. D. Use Coded Medical language - not disclosing his or her name. When relaying patient information via radio, communications should be: A. Brief and easily understood B. Coded and scripted C. Lengthy and complete D. Spoken in a loud voice - brief and easily understood Which of the following incidents does not require a report to be filed with local authorities? A. Spousal abuse

B. Cardiac arrest C. Animal bites D. Gunshot wounds - cardiac arrest Which of the following statements regarding communication with a child is correct? A. Most children are intrigued by strangers wearing uniforms B. Unlike adults, children cannot see through lies or deceptions C. The EMT should give the child minimal information to avoid scaring them D. Standing over the child often increases their level of anxiety - Standing over a child often increases their level of anxiety. Which type of communications equipment functions as a radio receiver and searches across several frequencies? A. Mobile repeater B. Duplex station C. Scanner D. Simplex station - scanner You are caring for a 52 year old man who complains of chest discomfort. The patient is a retired paramedic and is very anxious because he thinks he is having a heart attack. Which of the following statements would be appropriate - "It is possible that you are experiencing a heart attack. I am going to give you four baby aspirin to chew and swallow." You could be sued for ___________ if your radio report to the hospital describes the patient in a manner that injures his or her reputation. A. Negligence B. Slander C. Libel

D. Assault - Slander A 5-year-old boy has fallen and has a severe deformity of the forearm near the wrist. He has possibly sustained a fracture of the ____________ forearm. A. Superior B. Proximal C. Dorsal D. Distal - Distal A diabetic patient has polydipsia. This means that she: A. Urinates frequently B. Has low blood sugar C. Is unable to swallow D. Is excessively thirsty - is excessively thirsty A fractured of the humerus just above the elbow would be described as a: A. Distal forearm fracture B. Proximal humerus fracture C. Proximal elbow fracture D. Distal humerus fracture - Distal humerus fracture A patient has fractured both femurs. Anatomically, these injuries would be described as being: A. Bilateral B. Medial C. Proximal

D. Unilateral - bilateral A patient in a semireclined position with the head elevated to facilitate breathing is in the _______ position: A. Supine B. Prime C. Recovery D. Fowler - Fowler's A patient with a pneumothorax has unilateral chest expansion. This means that: A. His chest and his abdomen are moving in the opposite directions B. Only one side of his chest rises when he inhales C. Both of his lungs are expanding when he inhales D. Both sides of his chest are moving minimally - Only one side of his chest rises when he inhales A pregnant patient is diagnosed with hyperemesis gravidarum. This means that: A. Her new unborn babe is very large B. Her respiratory raw is rapid C. She has frequent urination D. She has excessive vomiting - she has excessive vomiting. A young male jumped from a tree and landed feet first. What aspect of his body has sustained the initial injury? A. Dorsal B. Plantar

C. Palmar D. Ventral - Plantar After applying a tourniquet, the injury from a patient's leg stops bleeding. This is called: A. Hemiplegia B. Hemostasis C. Hemolysis D. Hematemesis - hemostasis An intoxicated 40-year-old male is found lying face down. How would you document his body's position? A. Supine B. Recumbent C. Dorsal D. Prone - prone Enlargement of the liver is called: A. Hydrocephalus B. Hepatomegaly C. Nephritis D. Pneumonitis - Hepatomegaly In relation to the chest, the back is: A. Anterior B. Posterior C. Ventral

D. Inferior - posterior In relation to the wrist, the elbow is: A. Lateral B. Proximal C. Distal D. Medial - Proximal Movement or motion away from the body's midline is called: A. Adduction B. Abduction C. Flexing D. Extension - Abduction The____ of the heart is the inferior portion of the ventricles A. Dorsum B. Septum C. Base D. Apex - Apex The term "pericardiocentesis" means: A. Removal of fluid from around the heart B. Narrowing of the arteries supplying the heart C. Surgical repair of the sac around the heart D. A surgical opening made in the heart - The removal of fluid from around the heart

The term "Supra ventricular tachycardia" mean: A. A rapid heart rate that originates from within the ventricles B. A slow heart rate that originates from above the ventricles C. A slow heart rate that originates from within the ventricle D. A rapid heart rate that originates from above the ventricles - A rapid heart rate that originates from above the ventricles The topographic term used to describe the location of body parts that are closer toward the midline of the body is: A. Medial B. Midaxillary C. Midclavicular D. Lateral - Medial The topographic term used to describe the parts of the body that are nearer to the feet is: A. Superior B. Inferior C. Dorsal D. Internal - Inferior Which of the following anatomic terms is synonymous with the word "dorsal"? A. Palmar B. Anterior C. Medial

D. Posterior - Posterior All critical life functions are coordinated in which part of the brain? A. Brainstem B. Cerebellum C. Cerebrum D. Gray matter - Brainstem As the bronchus divides into smaller bronchioles, the terminal ends of these smaller passages form the: A. Pleura B. Capillaries C. Bronchi D. Alveoli - alveoli Dead space is the portion of the respiratory system that: A. Receives oxygen but is unable to release carbon dioxide B. Contains no alveoli and does not participate in gas exchange C. Must be filled with the air before gas exchange can take place D. Includes the alveoli and capillaries surrounding the alveoli - contains no alveoli and does not participate in gas exchange Key hormones of the sympathetic nervous system include: A. Norepinephrine and acetylcholine B. Acetylcholine and insulin C. Epinephrine and norepinephrine

D. Glucagon and adrenaline - epinephrine and norepinephrine Oxygen and carbon dioxide pass across the alveolar membrane in the lungs through a process called: A. Osmosis B. Ventilation C. Breathing D. Diffusion - Diffusion Skeletal muscle is also called: A. Voluntary muscle B. Involuntary muscle C. Autonomic muscle D. Smooth muscle - voluntary muscle The axial skeleton is composed of the: A. Bones that constitute the pelvic girdle B. Skull, face, thorax, and vertebral column C. Lower part of the torso and the legs D. Arms, legs, and pelvis - Skull, face, thorax and vertebral column The carpal bones form the: A. Hand B. Ankle C. Foot D. Wrist - wrist

The central nervous system is composed of the: A. Brain and sensory nerves B. Brain and spinal cord C. Motor and sensory nerves D. Spinal cord and sensory nerves - Brain and spinal cord The elbow is an example of a ____ joint. A. Hinge B. Ball and socket C. Gliding D. Saddle - Hinge The electrical impulse of the heart normally begins at the: A. Sinoatrial node B. Atrialventricular node C. Purkinje fibers D. Bundle of His - Sinoatrial node The exchange of oxygen and nutrients for waste products of metabolism occurs at the cellular level in the: A. Arterioles B. Arteries C. Venules D. Capillaries - Capillaries

The left side of the heart receives oxygenated blood from the lungs through the: A. Pulmonary arteries B. Inferior venae cavae C. Pulmonary veins D. Superior venae cavae - Pulmonary veins The most distal four spinal vertebrae, which are fused together, form the: A. Coccyx B. Sacrum C. Ischium D. Ilium - coccyx The muscle tissue of the heart is called the: A. Endocardium B. Epicardium C. Pericardium D. Myocardium - Myocardium The nose, chin, umbilicus(navel), and spine are examples of ______ anatomic structures. A. Midline B. Midaxillary C. Proximal D. Superior - Midline

Which of the following glands regulates the function of all other endocrine glands in the body? A. Thyroid B. Adrenal C. Parathyroid D. Pituitary - Pituitary Which of the following is not a facial bone? A. Maxilla B. Zygoma C. Mandible D. Mastoid - Mastoid Which of the following organs or structures lies within the retroperitoneal space? A. Ascending aorta B. Kidneys C. Gallbladder D. Spleen - Kidneys White blood cells, which are called leukocytes, function by: A. Producing blood clotting factors B. Carrying oxygen and other nutrients C. Producing the body's erythrocytes D. Protecting the body from infection - Protecting the body from infection A fractured femur can result in the loss of ______ or more of blood into the soft tissues of the thigh.

A. 2L

B. 500 mL C. 250 mL D. 1 L - 1 L An organ or tissue might better resist damage from hypoperfusion if the: A. Heart rate is maintained at more than 100 beats/ min B. Body's demand for oxygen is markedly increased C. Systolic arterial blood pressure is at least 60 mm/Hg D. Body's temperature is considerably less than 98.6°F (37°C) - body's temperature is considerably less than 98.6°F (37.0°C). Bleeding from the nose following a head trauma: A. Should be assumed to be caused by a fractured septum B. Is usually due to hypertension caused by the head injury C. Is a sign of a skull fracture and should not be stopped D. Should be controlled by packing the nostril with gauze - is a sign of a skull fracture and should not be stopped. Capillaries link the arterioles and the: A. Venules B. Veins C. Aorta D. Cells - venules

Early signs and symptoms of intra-abdominal bleeding include: A. Pain and distraction B. Significant hypotension C. Widespread ecchymosis D. Bruising only - Pain and distention External bleeding from a vein is relatively easy to control because: A. Veins are under a lower pressure B. Veins hold smaller blood volume C. Blood typically oozes from a vein D. Veins carry deoxygenated blood - Gastrointestinal bleeding should be suspected if a patient presents with: A. Hemoptysis B. Dyspnea C. Hematemesis D. Hematuria - Hematemesis Hypoperfusion is another name for: A. Hypoxemia B. Cyanosis C. Cellular death D. Shock - Shock Hypovolemic shock occurs when:

A. The patient's systolic BP is less than 100 mm Hg B. The clotting ability of the blood is enhanced C. At least 10% of the patients blood volume is lost D. Low fluid volume leads to inadequate perfusion - Low fluid volume leads to adequate perfusion in non trauma patients, an early indictor of internal bleeding is: A. A decreasing blood pressure B. Rapid, shallow breathing C. A rapid, threads pulse D. Dizziness upon standing - Dizziness upon standing In older patients, the first indicator of nontraumatic internal bleeding may be: A. A heart rate of 120 bpm B. A low blood pressure C. Diaphoresis and pale skin D. Weakness or dizziness - Weakness or dizziness Internal bleeding into a fractured extremity is MOST often controlled by: A. Applying a tourniquet B. Keeping the patient warm C. Applying a chemical ice pack D. Splinting the extremity - Splinting the extremity Most cases of external bleeding from an extremity can be controlled by:

A. Applying local direct pressure B. Packing the wound with gauze C. Elevating the injured extremity D. Compressing a pressure point - applying local direct pressure. Perfusion is MOST accurately defined as the: A. Circulation of blood within an organ in adequate amounts to meet the body's metabolic needs B. Effective transfer of oxygen from the Venules across the systemic capillary membrane walls C. Ability of the systemic arteries to constrict as needed to maintain an adequate blood pressure D. Effective removal of carbon dioxide and other metabolic waste products from the body's cells - Circulation of the blood within an organ in adequate amounts to meet the body's metabolic needs Significant vital sign changes will occur if the typical adult acutely loses more than ______ of his or her total blood volume. A. 10% B. 15% C. 5% D. 20% - 20% The ability of a persons cardiovascular system to compensate for blood loss is most related to: A. The part of the body injured B. His or her baseline blood pressure C. How fast his or her heart beats D. How rapidly he or she bleeds - How rapidly he or she bleeds The severity of bleeding should be based on all of the following findings, EXCEPT:

A. Systolic blood pressure B. Clinical signs and symptoms C. Poor general appearance D. The mechanism of injury - Systolic blood pressure Which of the following body systems or components is the least critical for supplying and maintaining adequate blood flow to the body? A. Adequate blood in the vasculture B. The filtering of blood cells in the spleen C. An intact system of blood vessels D. An effectively pumping heart - the filtering of blood cells in the spleen Which of the following organs can tolerate inadequate perfusion for two to three hours? A. Brain B. Kidneys C. Skeletal muscle D. Heart - skeletal muscle Which of the following splinting devices would be most appropriate to use for a patient who has an open fracture of the forearm with external bleeding? A. Air splint B. Cardboard splint C. Vacuum splint D. Sling and swathe - air splint