Communication Techniques in Emergency Care, Exams of Public Health

Download Communication Techniques in Emergency Care and more Exams Public Health in PDF only on Docsity! EMR: EXAM 3 STUDY EXAM 2025 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWER Common signs or symptoms of carbon monoxide poisoning include all of the following, EXCEPT: A) headache B) disorientation C) flulike symptoms D) severe neck rigidity - answer>>>D You are the first medically trained person to arrive for a 40 y/o woman who has a severe headache and nausea. As you are assessing the patient, her husband tells you that him and his son have the same symptoms. You should: A) remove everyone from the residence at once B) suspect that the family is suffering from the flu C) perform a thorough physical exam on all patients D) request additional resources to care for the patients - answer>>>A Which of the following toxins irritates the lungs and upper respiratory tract, resulting violent coughing? A) chlorine gas B) liquid drain cleaner C) ammonia mixed with chlorine D) carbon monoxide mixed with cyanide - answer>>>C A patient who has inhaled a poison would MOST likely present with: A) profuse sweating B) dilation of the pupils C) coughing and hoarseness D) severe vomiting and diarrhea - answer>>>C You arrive at a water treatment plant for a 30 y/o man who is having difficulty breathing. As you get out of your vehicle and approach the building, you notice several workers who are having trouble breathing and coughing violently. One of the workers tells you that the patient, who is now unconscious, is still in the building. You should: A) wear a mask and safety goggles and quickly remove the patient B) ask a water plant worker to retrieve the patient from the building C) request fire personnel with specialized gear to remove the patient D) presume the patient to be dead and initiate treatment of the workers - answer>>>C The MOST effective way to slow the spread of an injected poison throughout the body is to: A) keep the patient quiet and still B) apply a tight constricting band C) apply chemical ice packs to the site D) administer supplemental oxygen - answer>>>A Common signs or symptoms of an injected poison include all of the following, EXCEPT: A) itching B) swelling C) dizziness D) cyanosis - answer>>>D Anaphylactic shock is characterized by: A) itching, a rapid pulse, high blood pressure, and anxiety B) hives, a rapid pulse, low blood pressure, and unconsciousness C) rapid facial swelling followed immediately by cardiac arrest D) red streaks to the face, a weak pulse, and extreme hyperactivity - answer>>>B Symptoms of exposure to an organophosphate insecticide or nerve agent include: A) dry mouth, rapid heart rate, and hypertension B) excessive thirst, a headache, and pupil dilation C) slow heart rate, salivation, and excessive tearing D) facial swelling, joint pain, and trouble swallowing - answer>>>C All of the following are nerve agents, EXCEPT: A) ricin B) sarin C) tabun D) V agent - answer>>>A Shortly after arriving at the scene of a sick person, you are told that the patient has been exposed to a nerve agent. What should you do? A) don a mask, gloves, and head cover before approaching the patient B) immediately decontaminate the patient before beginning treatment C) self-administer a nerve agent antidote and retreat to a safe place D) move to a safe place and notify the hazardous materials response team - answer>>>D After taking precautions to ensure personal safety, initial treatment for a patient who has been exposed to a nerve agent should focus on: A) administering a nerve agent antidote B) assessing and supporting the patient's ABC's C) irrigating the patient's entire body with water D) performing a thorough head-to-toe assessment - answer>>>B When administering a DuoDote nerve agent auto-injector, you should inject the medication: A) even if the patient is not experience any signs or symptoms B) only after receiving approval from a paramedic or advanced EMT C) into the lateral thigh and hold the injector in place for 10 seconds D) into the front of the leg and hold the injector in place for 5 seconds - answer>>>C It is MOST important that you never assume that an apparently intoxicated person is drunk because: A) alcoholism is a disease and you must be respectful of the patient B) people who are alcoholics are extremely sensitive to their disease C) you will likely be sued if you do so and the patient was not drunk D) a serious illness or injury can mimic alcohol intoxication - answer>>>D A 52 y/o man presents with chest pain, restlessness, and hallucinations approximately 3 days after he stopped drinking alcohol. The patient tells you that he is an alcoholic and has tried to quit drinking several times. You assess him and notice that he is shaking and his skin is hot to the touch. You should: A) recognize that the patient is experiencing a serious medical emergency and arrange for prompt transport to the hospital B) place him in the recovery position, apply a blanket to keep him warm, and be prepared for the patient to develop a seizure C) tell the patient that his signs and symptoms are normal with alcohol withdrawal and should subside within a week D) perform a thorough physical exam and allow a friend to drive him to the hospital if you do not find any serious conditions - answer>>>A A patient who has used amphetamines or cocaine would MOST likely present with: A) restlessness, irritability, and talkativeness B) hallucinations and reduced pain sensitivity C) a slow pulse rate and slow, shallow breathing D) signs that are identical to alcohol intoxication - answer>>>A A man found his girlfriend lying unconscious on the couch. You arrive at the scene, determine that it is safe, and assess the patient. Your assessment reveals that the patient is not breathing and her pulse is slow and weak. You should: A) suspect a cocaine overdose and place her in the recovery position B) suspect an opioid overdose and begin mouth-to-mask rescue breathing C) begin CPR immediately and suspect that she has overdosed on a nervous system depressant D) provide immediate mouth-to-mask rescue breathing and ask the boyfriend if she has AIDS - answer>>>B Naloxone (Narcan) would MOST likely reverse the effects of: A) heroin B) cocaine C) bath salts D) gasoline - answer>>>A When administering naloxone (Narcan) via the intranasal route, the EMR should: A) give a maximum of 3mL per nostril B) position the patient onto his or her side C) administer a half dose into each nostril D) ensure that the patient is not breathing first - answer>>>C Opioid drugs have a direct negative effect on the: A) respiratory system B) cardiovascular system C) central nervous system D) gastrointestinal system - answer>>>C A patient's reaction to an injected drug is MOSTLY dependent on: Which of the following is caused by a sudden and disruptive event such as a physical illness or death of a loved one? A) chronic stress B) situational crisis C) psychiatric illness D) psychotic behavior - answer>>>B Which of the following statements regarding situational crisis is correct? A) a situational crisis is typically the result of an ongoing situation, such as a loved one with a terminal disease B) situational crises are of long duration and usually can be managed by the patient's coping mechanisms C) most situational crises are sudden and unexpected and cannot be handled by a person's usual coping mechanisms D) a situational crisis always causes the patient to exhibit unacceptable, self-destructive, or dangerous behavior - answer>>>C The first phase of a situational crisis, which is characterized by cool and clammy skin, nausea and vomiting, and general inactivity, is called: A) anger B) denial C) remorse and grief D) emotional shock - answer>>>D During a crisis situation, it is often easier for the patient or a family member to vent his or her feelings of anger on: A) him- or herself B) an unknown person C) a distant relative D) a close family friend - answer>>>B The MOST difficult emotional reaction for the emergency medical responder (EMR) to deal with objectively is: A) anger B) denial C) remorse D) depression - answer>>>A While assisting paramedics in the attempted resuscitation of a 60 y/o woman in cardiac arrest, the senior paramedic determines that the patient is dead after exhausting all efforts. When you attempt to comfort the patient's husband, he becomes verbally abusive and tells you that you should have been able to save his wife's life. You should: A) reassure the husband that his wife's death is not your fault B) include the husband's comments in your patient care report C) ask the senior paramedic if he or she did everything possible D) realize that the man's behavior is not a personal attack on you - answer>>>D Which of the following is NOT an appropriate response when acknowledging a patient's or family member's anger? A) "what's the matter?" B) "get control of yourself." C) "what can I do to help you" D) "is there anyone I can call for you" - answer>>>B When a patient or family member has accepted a tragic situation, he or she often feels: A) angry and bitter B) a lack of remorse C) severely depressed D) apologetic or guilty - answer>>>D When dealing with a patient who is exhibiting abnormal behavior, your initial action should be to: A) tell the patient that you are there to help B) conduct a careful size-up of the scene C) perform a primary assessment of the patient D) determine if the patient has a psychiatric history - answer>>>B The MOST important assessment skill to use when caring for a patient with behavioral emergency is: A) effective communication B) interpretation of vital signs C) gathering of medical history data D) a basic knowledge of psychiatry - answer>>>A The first and MOST important step in crisis management is to: A) talk to the patient B) request a paramedic C) demonstrate sympathy D) request law enforcement - answer>>>A You arrive at an apartment complex where a young woman is experiencing an acute emotional crisis. Law enforcement is present, and the scene is safe. As you enter the patient's apartment, you find her sitting on her couch. She is crying and in obvious emotional distress. You should: A) ask the patient if she has any thoughts of hurting herself B) introduce yourself to the patient and ask her what her name is D) maintain safety for yourself and the patient and be able to perform effective assessment and treatment - answer>>>D If you suspect that a person has been abused, your initial responsibility is to: A) report the situation to law enforcement B) maintain safety for yourself and the patient C) immediately update the responding EMS unit D) objectively document your assessment findings - answer>>>B You are dispatched to a residence for an injured child. Your unit and a police officer arrive at the scene at the same time. The patient, a 9 y/o boy, has a possible broken arm. The child's father, who appears nervous, tells you that his son wrecked his bike and that he will take his son to the hospital. Your assessment of the child reveals a deformed left arm and multiple bruises of various colors. The child is clearly frightened and looks at his father every time you ask the child a question. You should: A) place the child's arm in a splint and allow the father to transport his son to an appropriate medical facility B) ask the father if he intentionally injured his son and advise him that he will be arrested if he does not tell the truth C) splint the child's arm with the father present and then ask a police officer to arrest the father for abusing his child D) provide care for the child's injury and ask the police - answer>>>D During the _____________ phase of the abuse cycle, the victim may try to minimize or deny the abuse. A) tension B) chronic C) make-up D) explosive - answer>>>A Which of the following statements regarding the explosive phase of the abuse cycle is correct? A) most injuries to the victim occur during this phase B) the victim usually tries to deny or minimize the abuse C) during this phase the abuser makes all sorts of promises D) the explosive phase is the longest part of the abuse cycle - answer>>>A If you must treat an unarmed patient who is or may become violent, you should first: A) ask the patient's family if he or she has a past history of violence B) wait for paramedics to administer a sedative medication to the patient C) immediately attempt to establish verbal and eye contact with the patient D) have law enforcement restrain the patient before you begin any treatment - answer>>>C Which of the following findings is LEAST indicative of a patient who may become violent? A) inability to sit still B) large body size C) shouting obcenities D) use of alcohol - answer>>>B The BEST person to communicate with a patient who has the potential to become violent is: A) a law enforcement officer because he or she carries a firearm B) a senior EMT or paramedic when he or she arrives at the scene C) a rescuer of the same sex and closest to the patient's age D) the rescuer with whom the patient seems to have the best rapport - answer>>>D All of the following factors increase the risk for violence in the workplace, EXCEPT: A) working alone B) working in large numbers C) working in high-crime areas D) working early in the morning - answer>>>B Which of the following is NOT an effective way to avoid a violent situation? A) physically restraining the patient before trying to communicate B) not allowing yourself to be cut off from a route of quick retreat C) using good interpersonal communication skills with the patient D) listening carefully to the information provided by the dispatcher - answer>>>A While responding in a high-crime area of town for a young man who was shot in the chest, the dispatcher advises you that the patient is unconscious and that the perpetrator may still be at the scene. Law enforcement is in route to the scene as well, but the responding paramedics will be delayed. What should you do? A) advise the dispatcher that the paramedics and law enforcement officers will handle the situation and then return to service B) proceed cautiously to the scene, exit your vehicle and stay low when you arrive, and quickly move the patient to an area of safety C) stop a few blocks away from the scene, stay in your vehicle, and wait for law enforcement to arrive at the scene and ensure that it is safe D) continue to the scene, stay in your vehicle when you arrive, and wait for law enforcement to secure the scene before you exit your vehicle - answer>>>C If you are confronted by a person who is armed with a gun, knife, or other weapon, you should: A) distract the patient and attempt to disarm him or her B) immediately attempt to withdraw from the situation C) diplomatically ask the patient to give you the weapon D) ask the patient why he of she would want to harm you - answer>>>B If you are unable to withdraw from an unsafe scene, your FIRST action should be to: D) remain at least 4' away from the patient and ask her to provide a detailed account of what happened to her - answer>>>A How well you can help the dying patient and his or her family largely depends on: A) your own personal feelings about death B) the condition from which the patient is dying C) the ability to repress your personal emotions D) the number of dying people you have treated - answer>>>A You are assisting paramedics who are attempting to resuscitate an elderly man in cardia arrest. The patient's wife, who is emotionally distraught, is standing alone in the corner of the room observing. One of the paramedics asks you to provide emotional support to the wife. What should you say to her? A) "it is not healthy for you to watch this." B) "Do you want us to stop performing CPR?" C) "There is a good chance that he will survive." D) "We are doing everything that we possibly can." - answer>>>D Signs and symptoms of extreme stress include all of the following, EXCEPT: A) weight changes B) inability to sleep C) increased sex drive D) increased alcohol use - answer>>>C Which of the following people would be LEAST likely to experience a heat-related illness? A) a 55 y/o woman who has diabetes B) a 78 y/o man who has heart disease C) a 6 m/o infant who was born prematurely D) a 30 y/o man who is slightly overweight - answer>>>D High air temperatures reduce the body's ability to: A) preserve body heat B) cool itself by radiation C) lose heat through evaporation D) generate heat through shivering - answer>>>B High humidity reduces the body's ability to: A) produce sweat B) cool itself by radiation C) lose body heat by shivering D) lose heat through evaporation - answer>>>D Common signs and symptoms of heat exhaustion include all of the following, EXCEPT: A) flushed, dry skin B) lightheadedness C) profuse sweating D) nausea and dizziness - answer>>>A Which of the following statements regarding heat exhaustion is correct? A) a classic sign of heat exhaustion is significantly elevated blood pressure B) patients experiencing heat exhaustion typically have a slow, bounding pulse C) patients experiencing heat exhaustion usually have a normal body temperature D) heat exhaustion occurs when a person is exposed to temperatures above 70 degrees - answer>>>C You are assessing a conscious and alert 20 y/o man who complains of dizziness, lightheadedness, and nausea that began after working for several hours in the sun. The ambient temperature is 100F. After moving the patient to a cooler environment and assessing him, you should: A) give him 1 to 2L of cool water for rehydration B) monitor is ABCs and arrange for transport to the hospital C) rapidly cool him by applying ice packs to his groin region D) tell him to go home and get rest begore returning to work - answer>>>B Which of the following may occur with heatstroke, but not with heat exhaustion? A) a normal body temperature B) a pulse that is slow and bounding C) severe irritability or hyperactivity D) a body temperature as high as 104F. - answer>>>D Heatstroke is MOST accurately defined as a condition in which: A) a patient's body temperature is at least 104F. B) the body's sweating mechanism is overwhelmed C) a drop in blood pressure leads to irreversible shock D) the body produces more sweat than it can evaporate - answer>>>B A patient who is suffering from heatstroke: A) usually has skin that is hot and moist B) may be semiconscious or unconscious C) requires gradual cooling of his or her body D) usually experiences permanent brain damage - answer>>>B The MOST important initial treatment for a patient with heatstroke is: You are caring for a young female with frostbitten hands. The patient is conscious, alert, and actively shivering. Her hands are pale and waxy and covered with blisters. You should: A) carefully rupture the blisters and bandage her hands B) apply a tight constricting hand to her wrists and reassess C) have a friend drive her to the closest appropriate facility D) remove any jewelry and apply dry dressings to her hands - answer>>>D The only effective means of combating frostbite is: A) preventing it before it happens B) drinking plenty of hot water or coffee C) rubbing the affected body part with snow D) rapidly rewarming the affected body part - answer>>>A Rescue personnel have found a 44 y/o man who was lost in the woods for 24 hours. The ambient temperature is -30F, and it is sleeting. Your assessment reveals that the patient is semiconscious and is not shivering. In addition to maintaining airway, breathing, and circulation, you should: A) give him hot soup or coffee to drink B) place warm blankets under and over him C) raise his body temperature with heat packs D) apply an AED in case cardiac arrest occurs - answer>>>B Which of the following statements regarding hypothermia is NOT correct? A) shivering is an early sign of hypothermia B) hypothermia is not exclusive to wintry weather C) late hypothermia often causes unresponsiveness D) as hypothermia progresses, the pulse rate increases - answer>>>D As hypothermia progresses, the: A) pulse rate increases B) patient stops shivering C) respirations increase D) patient becomes agitated - answer>>>B In general, a hypothermia patient should not be considered dead until: A) his or her body temperature is raised above 85F B) muscle stiffness occurs and a pulse is absent C) he or she is rewarmed at an appropriate hospital D) CPR has been performed for at least 10 minutes - answer>>>C Drowning is MOST accurately defined as: A) suffocation because of submersion in water or in other liquids B) cardiac arrest after submersion in water for at least 10 minutes C) any injury that results from being beneath the surface of the water D) cardiac failure following submersion in water less than 70F - answer>>>A In children ages 1 to 4 year, most of the drownings occur in: A) bathtubs B) lakes and rivers C) swimming pools D) storm drain ponds - answer>>>C When would a person have the greatest chance for survival following an apparent drowning? A) the patient is younger than 45 years B) the patient is submerged in salt water C) submersion time is less than 20 minutes D) the water temperature is lower than 70F - answer>>>D A 10 y/o child, who was submerged in cold water for approximately 30 minutes, is removed by rescue personnel. The child is unconscious, not breathing, and without a pulse. You should: A) defibrillate every minute with an AED B) hyperventilate him with warmed oxygen C) remove his wet clothing and begin CPR D) recognize that the child is obviously dead - answer>>>C The initial stage of drowning usually involves: A) panic B) a seizure C) exhaustion D) laryngospasm - answer>>>A Which of the following typically occurs when a swimmer experiences trouble in the water and begins breathing inefficiently? A) spastic closure of the larynx B) exhaustion and loss of buoyancy C) rapid decrease in body temperature D) vomiting and aspiration into the lungs - answer>>>B Which of the following represents the safest approach when attempting to rescue a person from the water? A) reach, throw, row, go B) throw, tow, go, reach D) the time and day of the week can affect the decisions you make about the scene size-up - answer>>>B When you arrive at an emergency scene, you should: A) park your vehicle so that it helps secure the scene and minimizes traffic blockage B) assume that additional resources will be needed and summon them as soon as possible C) immediately exit your vehicle and quickly determine if additional resources are needed D) begin directing traffic until law enforcement personnel arrive and assume that function - answer>>>A As you approach an emergency scene, you should first: A) determine the number of critically injured patients B) notify the dispatcher of your scene size-up findings C) scan the area to determine the extent of the incident D) quickly gain access to the patient and begin treatment - answer>>>C Scene hazards that are NOT visible to emergency responders include: A) spilled gasoline B) ice on the road C) poisonous fumes D) unstable surfaces - answer>>>C Upon arriving at the scene of an overturned tanker truck, you see green liquid leaking from the vehicle. The driver, who is still in the truck, appears to be unconscious and is bleeding heavily from the head. After requesting the appropriate personnel, you should: A) quickly remove the driver from the truck and begin treating him B) look for potential exit routes for the transporting ambulance to take C) direct all traffic away from the scene and request law enforcement D) ensure that you, your partner, and bystanders are at a safe distance - answer>>>D Identifying potential exit routes at an emergency scene is MOST important because: A) the quickest exit route is almost always the safest route to take B) ambulances will need to take the quickest route to the hospital C) law enforcement personnel need to be notified of all exit routes D) you may need to exit the area rapidly if the scene becomes unsafe - answer>>>D The emergency medical responder should never enter an enclosed space unless: A) the fire chief advises him or her to do so B) he or she has proper training and equipment C) no other personnel are available at the time D) he or she is wearing a face mask and gloves - answer>>>B The purpose of noting the mechanism of injury (MOI) is to: A) identify life-threatening injuries that the patient has B) rule out the possibility of any life-threatening injuries C) allow you to predict what injuries the patient may have D) determine whether the patient's problem is medical or trauma - answer>>>C Which of the following is an example of an MOI finding? A) a broken windshield following a motor vehicle crash B) a patient who is incoherent following a significant fall C) a significant amount of blood found on a patient's clothing D) a patient who takes several medications for a medical problem - answer>>>A When assessing the MOI of a vehicle that struck a utility pole, you notice that the vehicle's steering wheel is bent. You should: A) conclude that the air bag deployed B) suspect injuries to the patient's chest C) be the most suspicious for head injuries D) check the patient for extremity injuries first - answer>>>B Which of the following statements regarding the MOI is correct? A) the MOI can provide clues, but it cannot be used to determine which injuries a particular patient has B) the MOI is the single most important factor when determining which injuries a particular patient has C) the MOI is usually identified during your primary assessment of a critically injured patient D) the MOI is used to rule out life-threatening conditions in patients who have experienced a traumatic injury - answer>>>A The MOST important aspect of standard precaution is: A) donning the appropriate attire shortly after making patient contact B) wearing gloves, eye protection, and a gown to every emergency call C) wearing gloves until you can determine whether additional protection is needed D) anticipating the type of standard precautions needed before arriving at the scene - answer>>>D Upon arriving at the scene of an incident and determining that there are multiple patients, you should: A) begin immediate triage and care for all the patients B) request additional resources before treating any patients C) triage all patients first and then call for additional resources D) call for help if at least two of the patients are critically injured - answer>>>B B) determine if the child is able to tell you his or her birthday C) assess the child's interaction with his or her environment D) speak directly to the child in a non-threatening tone of voice - answer>>>C When opening the airway of an unconscious injured patient, you should: A) use the head tilt-chin lift maneuver B) use the jaw-thrust maneuver C) grasp the patient's tongue and lower jaw and lift D) insert an oral airway before manually moving the head - answer>>>B After opening the airway of an unconscious patient, you should: A) inspect the mouth for foreign bodies or secretions B) immediately insert on oral or nasal airway adjunct C) suction the mouth for no longer than 20 to 30 seconds D) look, listen, and feel for breathing for 5 to 10 seconds - answer>>>A After opening the airway of an unconscious elderly woman, you discover that there are thin secretions in her mouth. You should: A) insert an oral airway B) assess her respiratory rate C) clear her airway with suction D) begin rescue breathing at once - answer>>>C If you are unable to feel a carotid pulse in an unconscious, non-breathing adult within 5 to 10 seconds, you should: A) begin CPR, starting with chest compressions B) look for and control severe external bleeding C) locate the radial pulse and assess it for up to 10 seconds D) provide rescue breathing and reassess for a pulse in 2 minutes - answer>>>A When assessing circulation in an infant, you should check for: A) the carotid pulse in the neck B) a pulse for at least 20 seconds C) rise and fall of the infant's chest D) the brachial pulse on the upper arm - answer>>>D Decreased circulation to a part of or all of the body will manifest with skin that is: A) blue B) pale C) yellow D) cyanotic - answer>>>B Red skin color is said to be: A) pale B) cyanotic C) flushed D) jaundiced - answer>>>C A patient presents with yellow skin color. You should suspect: A) lack of oxygen B) excessive circulation C) problems with the liver D) decreased circulation - answer>>>C Patients with deeply pigmented skin may show color changes in all of the following locations, EXCEPT the: A) fingernail beds B) back of the hands C) whites of the eyes D) inside of the mouth - answer>>>B Which of the following statements regarding the patient's chief complaint is correct? A) the chief complaint may not be the patient's most serious problem B) the chief complaint is the patient's most obvious illness or injury C) your direct observation of the patient determines the chief complaint D) your assessment should be based exclusively on the patient's chief complaint - answer>>>A Which of the following is NOT a reason for obtaining a patient's medical history? A) to determine the events leading up to the present condition B) to obtain a diagnosis of the patient's current illness or injury C) to gather an account of the patient's past medical conditions D) to determine the signs and symptoms of the current condition - answer>>>B Which of the following is NOT a question that you would normally ask when obtaining a SAMPLE history? A) When did you last eat or drink anything? B) Are you taking any prescribed medications? C) What symptoms are you presently experiencing? D) Do any of your relatives have any medical problems? - answer>>>D When determining the events that preceded a patient's illness or injury, you should ask the patient: C) suspect an overdose of a narcotic or barbiturate drug D) report your finding to personnel at the next level of care - answer>>>D Inhalation of vomitus or other secretions into the lungs is called: A) aspiration B) respiration C) ventilation D) regurgitation - answer>>>A An unresponsive patient has swollen neck veins. You should suspect: A) massive blood loss B) a diabetic complication C) heart problems or a chest injury D) injury to the vertebrae of the neck - answer>>>C A patient who is wearing a MedicAlert bracelet or necklace: A) has expressed his or her legal right not to be resuscitated B) has consented to the release of information to medical personnel C) usually has a serious condition that cannot be treated in the field D) cannot legally be treated without the consent of a family member - answer>>>B When examining a conscious patient's chest, it is important to: A) observe each side of the chest for at least 60 seconds B) assess for unequal motion of one side or section of the chest C) ask the patient to take a shallow breath and tell you if it hurts D) note the presence of any pain during the exhalation phase only - answer>>>B You should be MOST suspicious of an abdominal injury if: A) the abdomen is soft and nontender B) the patient's clothing is soiled with urine C) there is minor bruising to the chest wall D) the patient's abdomen is rigid or swollen - answer>>>D You should gently press on the bones of the pelvis: A) only if there is obvious deformity or swelling B) if the patient does not report pain to the pelvis C) if you believe that the pelvis has been fractured D) in any patient who reports severe pain to the pelvis - answer>>>B When placing a patient on a backboard, you should examine his or her back: A) while the patient is rolled on his or her side B) before you roll the patient onto his or her side C) immediately after rolling him or her onto the backboard D) after he or she has been securely fastened to the backboard - answer>>>A The circulatory status of an extremity is assessed by: A) looking for signs of obvious injury B) asking the patient to move the extremity C) checking the pulse and capillary refill time D) determining whether the patient can feel your touch - answer>>>C Which of the following statements regarding assessment of a patient's extremities is FALSE? A) you should carefully examine one extremity at a time B) numbness or tingling in a limb is a sign of a spinal injury C) ask the patient to move a limb only if it appears to be injured D) the posterior tibial pulse is checked on the medial side of the ankle - answer>>>C You are assessing the lower extremities of a young male who fell approximately 20 feet from a roof. His left leg is obviously deformed and he is in severe pain. You should: A) ask the patient to move his leg to assess for nerve damage B) straighten the leg and hold it secure until additional help arrives C) carefully manipulate the leg to facilitate splint placement D) feel the temperature of his foot and check the posterior tibial pulse - answer>>>D Rapid, shallow respirations are a characteristic of: A) shock B) a stroke C) head trauma D) a drug overdose - answer>>>A When counting respirations in a conscious patient, you should do all of the following, EXCEPT: A) closely observe for adequate rise and fall of the patient's chest B) count the patient's breaths for 1 minute to determine the respiratory rate C) suspect possible shock if the patient's respirations are rapid and shallow D) tell the patient what you are doing and ask him or her to remain very still - answer>>>D A pulse can be felt anywhere on the body where a/an: A) vein lies close to the surface of the skin B) artery passes through soft tissue structures C) vein passes over a hard surface such as a bone D) artery passes over a hard surface such as bone - answer>>>D D) place the back of your hand on his or her forehead - answer>>>D During your assessment of an unresponsive young female who overdosed on an unknown type of drug, you note that her pupils are bilaterally constricted. Which of the following types of drugs should you suspect? A) narcotic B) marijuana C) barbiturate D) amphetamine - answer>>>A You are assessing a 64 y/o woman who is possibly having a stroke. Initially, the patient was conscious and alert, but her level of consciousness has decreased significantly. When the EMT unit arrives at the scene, it is MOST important for you to: A) report the change in the patient's level of consciousness to the EMTs B) assist the EMTs by clearing furniture away so that they can move the patient C) retrieve the stretcher from the ambulance and place it at the patient's side D) thoroughly document your actions and give a written report to the EMTs - answer>>>A Reassessment begins by: A) obtaining vital signs B) repeating the primary assessment C) performing a head-to-toe examination D) checking the effectiveness of your treatment - answer>>>B During you reassessment of a patient, you should: A) focus on signs that indicate the patient is improving B) take the patient's vital signs at least every 20 minutes C) ask the patient to remain quiet during the assessment D) identify and treat changes in the patient's condition - answer>>>D When performing your reassessment of a patient, it is MOST important to remember that: A) serious changes can occur rapidly B) the patient is often extremely agitated C) your treatment must be documented thoroughly D) vital signs should be obtained every 20 minutes - answer>>>A The MOST effective way to report your patient assessment findings to other medical personnel is to: A) be brief and concise and only report significant exam findings B) let the patient relay the information using his or her own words C) quickly document your findings and give a copy to the paramedics D) use the same systematic approach you followed during the assessment - answer>>>D Your hand-off report to the EMTs or paramedics who will be assuming care of the patient typically includes all of the following information, EXCEPT: A) the patient's age and sex B) the name of the patient's personal physician C) any interventions you provided to the patient D) the status of the patient's airway and breathing - answer>>>B When examining a trauma patient, you should: A) perform a secondary assessment before taking the patient's medical history B) obtain at least two sets of vital signs before performing a secondary assessment C) perform a secondary assessment after you have moved the patient to the ambulance D) defer taking the patient's medical history until you have arrived at the hospital - answer>>>A It is usually best to obtain a medical history on patient who is experiencing a medical problem: A) before you perform your primary assessment B) only after ALS treatment has been provided C) before you perform secondary patient assessment D) after other EMS personnel have arrived at the scene - answer>>>C You are dispatched to a residence for a patient with an altered mental status. Your initial action should be to: A) perform a physical examination B) ensure that the patient's airway is open C) assess the scene for safety hazards D) determine if the patient is diabetic - answer>>>C After completing your assessment and providing patient care, what should you do if the responding EMS unit is delayed? A) obtain vital signs as needed B) perform ongoing assessment C) determine why EMS is delayed D) give emotional support to the family - answer>>>B When caring for a patient with a medical problem, it is important to: A) provide frequent reassurance to the patient B) promise the patient that everything will be okay C) obtain your information from the patient's family D) take the patient's blood pressure every 3 minutes - answer>>>A A patient with an altered mental status has experienced: A) a gradual decrease in his or her repirations You arrive at a residence shortly after a 39 y/o diabetic patient's seizure has stopped. The patient is unconscious, and an ambulance staffed by two EMT's in en route to the scene. You should: A) protect the patient from injury B) assess for a pulse and support breathing C) place the patient in the recovery position D) observe the patient and wait for EMT's - answer>>>B Immediately following a generalized seizure, the patient is often: A) fully awake and alert B) unconscious for 2 hours C) anxious, confused, or hostile D) hyperactive but cooperative - answer>>>C The heart receives its oxygen supply from the: A) coronary arteries B) pulmonary veins C) pulmonary arteries D) coronary capillaries - answer>>>A Atherosclerosis is MOST accurately defined as: A) a high cholesterol level B) hardening of the arteries C) coronary vessel dilation D) narrowing of the arteries - answer>>>D Which of the following conditions would progressive atherosclerosis be the LEAST likely to cause? A) arterial rupture B) angina pectoris C) a heart attack D) cardiac arrest - answer>>>A Angina pectoris is a condition that occurs when: A) blood flow to the entire heart ceases B) a blood clot lodges in a coronary artery C) cardiac oxygen demand exceeds supply D) a coronary artery is completely blocked - answer>>>C Which of the following statements regarding nitroglycerin is correct? A) Nitroglycerin should be administered every 15 to 20 minutes. B) The pain of a heart attack is usually relieved with nitroglycerin. C) The EMR can administer up to 5 doses of nitroglycerin if needed. D) Nitroglycerin usually relieves anginal chest pain within 5 minutes. - answer>>>D Acute blockage of a coronary artery MOST often causes the patient to experience: A) severe nausea and vomiting B) a slow onset of moderate pain C) sudden cessation of a heartbeat D) immediate and severe chest pain - answer>>>D Cardiac arrest following a heart attack is MOST likely to occur if the: A) area of heart muscle supplied by the blocked artery is large B) patient has a history of angina and has high blood pressure C) blocked artery is not treated within 12 hours of the heart attack D) patient does not receive supplemental oxygen within 5 minutes - answer>>>A You arrive at a local community center for a 56-year-old woman complaining of chest discomfort. The woman tells you that she took one of her nitroglycerin tablets about 15 minutes ago, but she still has chest discomfort. Responding paramedics are approximately 10 minutes away. You should: A) place her in a comfortable position, assist her in taking another nitroglycerin tablet, and administer oxygen B) assume that she is experiencing angina pectoris, administer oxygen, and perform a thorough physical examination C) give her up to two more nitroglycerin tablets, place her supine and elevate her legs, and update the responding paramedics D) place her in a semi-sitting position, assist her in taking up to three more nitroglycerin tablets, and administer oxygen. - answer>>>A A 60 y/o man complains of severe chest pressure that feels like a vise around his chest. His skin is cool and moist, and he is short of breath and very anxious. The patient tells you that he has taken three nitroglycerin tablets, but the pain has not been relieved. You should: A) contact your medical director and obtain permission to give up to three more nitroglycerin tablets B) assume that he is having a heart attack and arrange for prompt transport to an appropriate medical facility C) ask the patient to walk around to help relieve his anxiety and then reassess him to see if he still has pain. D) suspect that he has angina pectoris, reassure him that you are there to help him, and activate the EMS system - answer>>>B When caring for a patient who is possibly experiencing a heart attack, you should: A) place the patient in a supine position If a patient with dyspnea is breathing too slowly or too rapidly, you should: A) position the patient on his or her back B) administer oxygen via a nasal canula C) reassess vital signs every 15 minutes D) be prepared to assist the patient's breathing - answer>>>D Which of the following statements regarding respiratory problems is correct? A) bronchitis is most often an acute condition B) dyspnea is rarely caused by heart problems C) asthma produces wheezing during exhalation D) emphysema is cause by an infection in the lungs - answer>>>C A 56 y/o man experienced a sudden onset of dyspnea during a meal. He is conscious and alert but is in obvious respiratory distress. You should: A) inquire about a history of heart problems B) suspect that he has an airway obstruction C) assess the rate of the patient's respirations D) lay him down and begin rescue breathing - answer>>>B A stroke is MOST accurately defined as: A) bleeding within the brain as a result of chronic high blood pressure B) a ruptured artery within the brain that results in brain damage C) irreversible brain damage caused by a lack of oxygen in the body D) damage or death of a portion of the brain as a result of a lack of oxygen - answer>>>D Most strokes are caused by a: A) head injury that causes the brain to swell B) blood clot that lodges in an artery in the brain C) ruptured artery that causes bleeding in the brain D) seizure in which the brain is deprived of oxygen - answer>>>B The signs and symptoms of a stroke vary depending on: A) the patient's age and gender B) whether a seizure has occurred C) the portion of the brain that is affected D) how high the patient's blood pressure is - answer>>>C Which of the following conditions would be the LEAST likely to mimic the signs and symptoms of a stroke? A) seizure B) heart attack C) head injury D) hypoglycemia - answer>>>B The Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale is a tool that assesses: A) facial droop, arm drift, and abnormal speech B) arm drift, pupil reaction to light, and speech C) balance, abnormal speech, and long-term memory D) short-term memory, arm drift, and blood pressure - answer>>>A To assess arm drift properly in a patient with a possible stroke, you should: A) ensure that the patient's palms are facing down B) observe the patient's arms for at least 30 seconds C) ensure that the patient's eyes are open at all times D) instruct the patient to keep his or her eyes closed - answer>>>D You are the first medically trained person to arrive at the residence of a middle-aged woman who, according to her husband, is not acting right. The patient is conscious but slurred. The left side of her face does not move as well as the right side, and her speech is slurred. Initial care for this patient should include: A) placing her in the recovery position B) administering a liquid sugar substance C) administering oxygen if it is available D) keeping her warm by applying blankets - answer>>>C Which of the following statements regarding a stroke is correct? A) most strokes result in unconscious and respiratory arrest B) clot buster drugs are not affective for a stroke, only a heart attack C) stroke patients who appear to be unconscious may be able to hear D) low blood pressure is a significant risk factor for having a stroke - answer>>>C The condition in which the body is unable to process and use glucose that is carried by the bloodstream to the cells is called: A) diabetes B) insulin shock C) diabetic coma D) diabetic shock - answer>>>A The hormone that enables sugar carried by the blood to move into individual cells is called: A) glucose B) insulin C) a rapid, weak pulse D) confusion or unconsciousness - answer>>>B Common signs and symptoms of diabetic coma include: A) fruity breath odor B) rapid deterioration C) pale, moist skin D) dizziness or headache - answer>>>A The abdomen is separated from the chest by the: A) pelvis B) rib cage C) intestines D) diaphragm - answer>>>D Which of the following is NOT a solid structure of the abdomen? A) liver B) small intestine C) pancreas D) spleen - answer>>>B Common signs and symptoms of an acute abdomen include all of the following, EXCEPT: A) loss of appetite B) labored breathing C) abdominal distention D) nausea and vomiting - answer>>>B An abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) occurs when: A) one or more layers of the aorta become weakened B) the aorta completely separates from the ventricle C) excessive pressure on the aorta causes it to rupture D) chronic low blood pressure collapses the aortic wall - answer>>>A A 60 y/o man complains of a sudden onset of tearing abdominal pain and pain in his shoulder. He has a history of high blood pressure and diabetes. The patient is conscious and alert, but is very anxious. You should: A) administer glucose and reassess him B) gently place him in a comfortable position C) vigorously feel his abdomen to locate the origin of his pain D) perform a physical exam to determine the cause of his pain - answer>>>B During your assessment of an older man who complains of weakness, you notice a raised bump on his left forearm. He tells you that it is his shunt. The patient MOST likely has: A) hypertension B) kidney disease C) a heart condition D) some type of cancer - answer>>>B Hemodialysis is a process in which: A) patients with kidney disease are administered drug therapy through a shunt in their arm or leg to restore electrolytes B) anemic patients are given red blood cells through a surgically implemented medication port on their arm, leg, or upper chest. C) patients with type 1 diabetes are administered insulin via pump and a catheter that are implanted in the lower abdomen D) the patient's blood passes through a machine that filters out the waste products and returns the cleansed blood to the patient - answer>>>D When treating a patient who has a dialysis shunt in his or her arm, it is important to: A) use the shunt as the primary site for assessing the pulse B) cover the shunt with a sterile dressing to prevent infection C) avoid taking a blood pressure in the arm that has the shunt D) keep the arm with the shunt well above the level of the heart - answer>>>C You are dispatched to a residence for a 59 y/o man who complains of weakness, a fever, and vomiting. He tells you that he began feeling this way a few hours after his dialysis treatment. In addition to administering oxygen, you should: A) place him on his left side and cover him with a blanket B) apply the AED because he is at high risk for cardiac arrest C) assess his vital signs and be prepared to treat him for shock D) position him so that his legs are elevated and his head is lowered - answer>>>C Cardiac arrhythmias or cardiac arrest in patients receiving hemodialysis is MOST often the result of: A) a massive infection B) abnormal electrolyte levels C) air in the dialysis tubing D) a sudden rise in blood pressure - answer>>>B A poison is MOST accurately defined as a: A) toxic chemical that is injected directly into a large vein B) substance that requires large quantities to be fatal C) chemical that causes severe illness only when it is ingested B) dilute the poison by giving the patient water C) instruct the patient to drink one liter of milk D) position the patient supine in case vomiting occurs - answer>>>B A 16 y/o girl intentionally ingested liquid drain cleaner in an attempt to kill herself. She is conscious, alert, and refuses to speak to you. You should: A) induce vomiting with syrup of ipecac B) determine why she tried to kill herself C) administer 50g of activated charcoal D) arrange for prompt transport to the hospital - answer>>>D A chemical that has a pH of greater than 7 is called an: A) acid B) alkali C) antidote D) absorbent - answer>>>B Activated charcoal works by: A) binding to the poison B) causing the patient to vomit C) reversing the effects of poison D) facilitating digestion of the poison - answer>>>A Activated charcoal should NOT be administered to a patient if: A) the patient is younger than 16 years B) the patient weighs less than 150lbs C) the patient has ingested a strong acid substance D) the nearest medical facility is a long distance away - answer>>>C The usual adult dose of activated charcoal is: A) 5 to 12.5g B) 25 to 50g C) 12.5 to 25g D) 25 to 100g - answer>>>B Two general treatments for poisoning by ingestion are: A) syrup of ipecac and dilution with water B) activated charcoal and dilution with water C) dilution with milk and inducing vomiting D) activated charcoal and syrup of ipecac - answer>>>B Carbon monoxide negatively affects the body by: A) preventing red blood cells from carrying oxygen B) inducing violent vomiting and causing aspiration C) causing blood to back up into the tissue of the lungs D) destroying a large number of circulating white blood cells - answer>>>A Inhaling relatively small quantities of carbon monoxide can result in severe poisoning because: A) carbon monoxide molecules expand significantly after they enter the bloodstream B) carbon monoxide combines with red blood cells 200 times more readily than oxygen does C) carbon monoxide is a colorless, odorless, tasteless, gas that cannot be detected easily D) carbon monoxide is extremely irritating to the mucous linings of the respiratory system - answer>>>B