Comprehensive Guide to Healthcare Terminology and Concepts, Exams of Project Management

Download Comprehensive Guide to Healthcare Terminology and Concepts and more Exams Project Management in PDF only on Docsity! CCM exam secrets practice test Tested and Reliable Exam Strategies Complete Solutions for Each Question Top-Tier Questions with Detailed Solutions Verified for Academic Excellence A patient with mild paresis of one arm is going to need an assistive device to aid with walking. Which of the following is most appropriate type of cane for this patient? A. C cane B. Functional grip cane C. Quad cane D. Hemi-Walker - CORRECT ANSWER- -C. The quad cane would be most appropriate for this patient. It has a rectangular base with four support that contact the walking surface. These are more appropriate for patients who need more balance assistance, such as those with mild paresis of an arm, or a mild hemi paresis. The simplest cane is the C cane, a straight cane with a curved handle for those who need slight assistance. A functional grip cane has a straight rather than curved handle and allows for an improved grip and more support than see canes. Hemi walkers, have a much larger base than a quad cane, and provide more support for patients with more severe hemiplegia. All of the following or components a functional capacity evaluation, except: A. Musculoskeletal screening. B. Review of the medical record. C. Literacy screening. D. Testing a physical ability. - CORRECT ANSWER- -C. A functional capacity evaluation includes grading, strength, activities, position, tolerance, activities, and mobile activities. It also includes a review of the medical record and evaluation of the muscular skeletal system. Literacy screening is not a component of the functional capacity evaluation. Which of these is true about prescription assistance programs? A. Most people don't know about them. B. They are available to patients with Medicaid. C. They are available to non-US residence. D. Most people find them easy to apply for. - CORRECT ANSWER- -A. over 200 pharmaceutical companies have prescription assistant programs to help uninsured persons who are unable to afford their medication's. A few people know about these programs. Moreover, people who know about them find the application process, challenging and confusing. To be eligible, the patient cannot have Medicaid or health insurance. Which of the following disqualifies a spouse from cobra benefits? A. A reduction in the employees work hours. B. Voluntary or involuntary employment term termination due to gross misconduct by the covered employee C. Legal, separation, or divorce of the covered employee. D. Death of the covered employee - CORRECT ANSWER- -B. A spouse of a covered employee is eligible for cobra benefits for the events described in answers a, C, and D. Termination of employment due to gross misconduct results in no benefits for the spouse. A case manager performs, a psychological health assessment on a geriatric patient. The following categories are assessed: orientation to time, and place, recall, attention, and calculation, language, registration, and level of consciousness. This assessment is known as the: A. Functional ability assessment. B. Folstein mini mental state exam. C. Comprehensive geriatric assessment. D. YESAVAGE geriatric scale - CORRECT ANSWER- -B. The Folstein, mini mental state exam assesses various categories, including orientation to time and place, recall, language, registration, and others. Functional ability assessment evaluates the capacity to perform activities of daily living. A comprehensive geriatric exam is performed by a group of multidisciplinary geriatric experts, and evaluates all aspects of health and functioning. The Yesavage scale evaluates a geriatric patient for depression. Which of the following terms describes the capacity to feel and react to customs or traditions of a specific group of people? A. Patient centered care. B. Compassion. C. Empathy. D. Cultural sensitivity. - CORRECT ANSWER- -D. Cultural sensitivity is the capacity to feel, respect, and react to customs and traditions of a unique group of people. The terms, patient centered care, compassion, and empathy are all important. Answer D is the most specific, and therefore the best answer. Transitions of care are best described as: A. Transfer of accurate, patient information across different settings. B. Care received by a patient overtime and over multiple providers/settings. C. A process of assessing a patient's needs after discharge to home or elsewhere. D. Assessment of a patient's capacity to manage his own care needs. - CORRECT ANSWER- -A. transitions of care involve transfer of accurate patient information across different settings. Transfer from a rehabilitation facility to a skilled nursing facility is an example of a care transfer. Having good transitional care plans in place minimizes the risk of adverse events during trans. Answer B describes continuity of care, answer, C refers to discharge, planning, and answer D defines functional status. Home management activities, a person performs on a regular basis, such as meal preparation and housework: A. Cognitive activities. B. Activities of daily living (ADL's) C. Instrumental activities of daily living (IADLs) D. Executive functions. - CORRECT ANSWER- -C. activities of home management that a person performs on a regular basis, such as housework and meal preparation or instrumental activities of daily living. Activities of daily living activities that are a part of normal daily, living, such as eating, bathing, and toileting. Cognitive activity stimulate brain function. On the other hand, executive functions are cognitive abilities that allow a person to prioritize and plan. A legal document that specifies puma provider should call upon for consent of treatment decisions when a patient becomes mentally incompetent is a: A. Advanced directive. B. Healthcare proxy. C. Patient self-determination. D. Collaboration. - CORRECT ANSWER- -86. A healthcare proxy is a legal document specifying whom a provider should call upon for consent of treatment decisions when a patient becomes mentally incompetent. And advanced directive is a legal document executed while the patient is still competent. Patient self-determination refers to the process by which the patient makes treatment decisions, including drawing up, advanced directives, deciding to discontinue care, and electing, do not resuscitate status. The process that occurs when a patient is not given needed test, services, and resources to diagnose and treat a medical condition is called: A. Under utilization. B. Subacute care. C. Palliative care. D. Variance. - CORRECT ANSWER- -A. under utilization refers to the process by which a patient is not provided necessary services or resources to properly diagnose and treat a medical condition. Subacute care generally refers to caregiving in a skilled nursing facility. Palliative care provides the best possible. Comfort measures for a patient with a chronic progressive or terminal illness. Variances deviate from expected care. You are a specialist and maternal infant case management. The labor and delivery nurse has told a pregnant woman and preterm labor that she is going to receive betamethasone. How would you explain this to the patient? A. Betamethasone is a drug given to treat preeclampsia. B. Betamethasone is routinely given to stop contractions in order to avoid preterm delivery. C. Betamethasone is a steroid given to pregnant women to help fetal lung development in case of preterm birth. D. Betamethasone strengthens contractions. - CORRECT ANSWER- -C. The only correct answer is C. Betamethasone is a steroid given to pregnant women to facilitate fetal lung development when pre-term birth is anticipated. A woman and her newborn infant are ready for discharge from the hospital. The mother does not have a car seat for the baby. What is the most appropriate solution to this problem? A. Give her a used car seat. You found it a garage sale. B. Purchased a new car seat out of your own pocket for the patient. C. Had advanced knowledge of community, sitters or facilities that provide car seats, and ensure the seat is available for the infants use upon discharge. D. Let the infant ride in the mothers arms as long as she goes directly home. - CORRECT ANSWER- -C. A good case manager will have a car seat available in anticipation of discharge and would have ascertained in advance if the parents had a car seat. You should never use a used car seat because you cannot be sure of its condition and safety. And infant should never ride in the mothers arms, because of the high risk of serious injury, or death in case of a collision. Which of the following is not one of the main components of clinical pathways? A. Identified categories of care. B. Recommendations for best practices. C. A timeline. D. Long-term outcome criteria. - CORRECT ANSWER- -B. There are four main components of clinical pathways identified categories of care, a timeline, outcome, criteria, and allowance for variances. All of the following are examples of non-medical levels of care, except: All of the following are key, success factors for disease management, except: A. Understanding the natural course of the disease. B. Aiming for prevention and resolution. C. Allowing the physician to all the patient education D. Improving patient compliance by education. - CORRECT ANSWER- -C. Peace, success factors for disease management include having knowledge of the course of the disease, focusing on patients who are likely to benefit from intervention, aiming for prevention and resolution, and providing continuity across various healthcare settings, and establishing data management systems. A critical piece of equipment breaks down and prevents completion of a test on a client. What type of variance does this represent? A. Operational B. Patient. C. Healthcare, professional. D. Healthcare company. - CORRECT ANSWER- -A. A variance is anything that does not happen how and when it supposed to happen. If a piece of equipment breaks down before patient testing is complete, an operational variance has occurred. In the case of healthcare, professional variances, the provider causes a delay in attaining the expected outcome. Patient variances may cause delays due to unexpected changes in patient condition or due to refusal of a procedure. All of the following are true about caremaps except: A. MAP timelines can be an hours, days, weeks, or months. B. Common diagnosis usually fall within a 24 hour timeframe. C. A 24 week gestation infant in the neonatal intensive care unit (NICU) usually Falls into a 3 to 4 week timeline D. variance time frames are also part of the MAP timeline - CORRECT ANSWER- -C. timelines for multidisciplinary action plans very depending on the patient's clinical needs. It could be hours, days, weeks, or months. A Caremaps for a 24 week gestation infant could be several months. Variance time frames must also be determined, including determining how much leeway should be allowed for achieving the expected outcomes. Which of the following emphasizes achievement of outcomes in defined time frames with limited resources? A. Variance analysis. B. Social work. C. Case management. D. Risk management. - CORRECT ANSWER- -C. The question itself provides a good definition of case management, the achievement of desired outcomes within a defined timeframe while limiting resources as much as possible. Case management is sometimes called: A. A second generation primary nursing. B. Home healthcare, nursing C. The equivalent of a nurse practitioner. D. Nursing with an additional degree and social work. - CORRECT ANSWER- -A. Nursing case management is an offshoot of primary nursing. It all allows for care, focused on outcomes within a cost containment framework. When a patient chooses to make treatment decisions by drawing up, advanced directives, or appointing a healthcare proxy, and choosing not to be resuscitated, he is exercising the principle of: A. Palliative care. B. Hospice determination C. Developing an illness trajectory. D. Patient self determination. - CORRECT ANSWER- -D. This is an example of patient self- determination. In this process, the patient makes treatment decisions, such as establishing, advanced directives, appointing, a healthcare proxy, determining whether to withdraw nutrition, or electing not to be resuscitated. The case management domain that focuses on workplace issues, disability, and job modification is called: A. Case finding an intake. B. Outcomes evaluation, and case closure. C. Vocational concepts and strategies. D. Psychosocial and economic issues. - CORRECT ANSWER- -C. The vocational concepts and strategies domain is a case management domain concentration on disability issues, identifying accessibility barriers in the clients home, determining the need for rehabilitative services, and arranging vocational services. The process that protects the client and ensures that person hired to practice case management are providing quality services by reviewing their licensure, competencies, and history of malpractice is known as: A. Credentialing. B. Certification. C. Accreditation. D. Licensing. - CORRECT ANSWER- -A. credentialing protects the client by ensuring that individuals hired to practice case management are capable of providing quality service. It involves reviewing competencies, licensure, history of malpractice, and other parameters. Certification is a credential awarded by a certifying agency to a person who meets certification criteria bypassing an examination. Accreditation is granted by a nationally recognized agency to a healthcare organization that meets required sanders. licensure affirms that a person has the basic knowledge and skills to practice a profession. Clients whose income is too low to afford health insurance, but too high to qualify for federally funded insurance belong to a: A. Indigent group. precipitated restraint should be well documented. Frequent patient checks should also be done. All of the following required informed consent, except: A. an invasive treatment or procedure B. Treatments that carry potentially dangerous side effects C. A procedure that may result in serious complications. D. An emergency situation, in which lack of action would be a greater risk than the treatment itself. - CORRECT ANSWER- -D. This answer is an example of implied consent. In this case, the lack of an emergency action carries greater risk to the patient than the necessary procedure would. If you are named in a lawsuit, one of the first things you should do: A. Keep quiet and don't ask questions. B. Talk about the case with coworkers. C. Obtain the record and review it carefully. D. Talk about the case with the opposing attorney if asked - CORRECT ANSWER- -C. always obtain the record and review it. You should not talk about the case with coworkers, or the opposing attorney. Talk with your attorney or risk manager. If you have questions about the process, ask. If asked to provide a deposition, be honest and don't volunteer information. Answer"yes or no" questions with only a "yes" or "no" answer. An air ambulance is reimbursed by Medicare if: A. The patient requested. B. The patient's family requested it C. The medical condition is life-threatening, and land. Ambulance travel would be too time- consuming. D. All of the above. - CORRECT ANSWER- -C. Medicare reimburses an air, ambulance transport if the patient has a life-threatening condition that requires immediate medical attention and travel by land ambulance would be too time-consuming. In relation to case management, the profit or loss that results from a hospitals investment in case management is known as: A. Length of stay. B. Resource management outcome. C. Measurable outcomes. D. Return on investment. - CORRECT ANSWER- -D. return on investment (ROI) is the profit or loss that results from a hospitals investment in case management. To calculate ROI, compare cost of case management resources versus the benefit it produces by using the formula (benefit minus cost)/cost time 100 equals percent ROI. Which of the following is the best definition of a case management dashboard? A. A management reporting system providing executive summary level reports of the program. B. A decision making tree that provides wise assessments and interventions. C. A set of tools and risk stratification of a population. D. Case management care plan - CORRECT ANSWER- -A. case managers often create dashboards to assist in meeting case management, goals, patient needs, and the needs of other case management clients. By using dashboard reports, one can determine whether or not a case management department is progressing. It is efforts to improve. It is similar to report card. The process of stratifying a population based based on its risk for certain outcomes, Izz is called: A. Outcomes management. B. Predictive modeling. C. Population Management D. Discharge planning. - CORRECT ANSWER- -B. Patients are risk stratified to determine needs for intervention before an adverse event occurs. It is a form of proactively avoiding increases in medical cost. The judicious use of best practices in a clinical practice based on evidence from systematic research findings is called: A. A performance indicator. B. A quality improvement project. C. Evidence based healthcare. D. A clinical guideline. - CORRECT ANSWER- -C. And evidence based healthcare practice, uses current best practices from evidence obtained by systematic research findings. The "usability "of information systems refers to their: A. Easiness. B. Low error rate. C. Intuitive navigation. D. All of the above. - CORRECT ANSWER- -D. Information systems should be user-friendly, and should not have a steep learning curve. It must allow the user to complete task quickly and with a low air rate. Which one of the following is true about the Americans with disabilities act (ADA)? A. An individual need only submit evidence of impairment and diagnosis. B. The goal of the ADA is to offer maximum chances for societal integration to individuals and both the private public sectors. C. All impairments are protected under the ADA. D. The disability and question is an impairment that minimally limits activity. - CORRECT ANSWER- -B. The goals of the ADA include full participation, equal opportunity, independent, living, and economic self-sufficiency. Individuals must submit to a case by C. A suicidal plan. D. Suicidal gestures. - CORRECT ANSWER- -B. suicidal intent is demonstrated by giving away possessions or by performing other life, closing actions. A person with suicidal ideation has thoughts about killing himself. A person with a suicidal plan has contemplated ways he could kill himself. A suicidal gesture is an attempt to call self injury without actually intending to commit suicide. Well, you are making a home visit to a patient, she asked you to change her surgical dressing on her abdomen. Which of the following is the best thing to do? A. Tell her you'll return later to do it after your shift is over. B. Gladly change the dressing because you have the training to do it anyway. C. Contact her home care nurse, or physician D. Reprimanded family members for not changing the dressing. - CORRECT ANSWER- -C. A case managers job is to coordinate medical treatment rather than to perform clinical hands on task. The best answer is to contact her home care nurse, or physician. Avoid the temptation to do the task yourself even if you have had past relevant training. A client who wants to receive Worker's Compensation privately discloses to you that he was injured when he fell off a bicycle rather than while it worked. Which of the following options is the best course of action? A. Report the information to the worker compensation carrier. B. Keep the information confidential. C. Withdrawal from the case. D. Tell the patient you'll decide what to do in the next couple of days. - CORRECT ANSWER- -A. Patients often disclosed "secrets" to case managers. You are obligated to report the truth. Advise a client that you were going to notify the Worker's Compensation carrier. Under which of the following conditions can a case manager refuse to see a patient? A. If there is a conflict of interest in working with that patient. B. If providing services to that patient places and personal danger. C. A case manager cannot refuse to see a patient. D. A and B - CORRECT ANSWER- -D. if there is a possibility, conflict of interest in working with a patient, report it to your supervisor, so that another case manager can take the assignment. You should never place yourself in personal danger in order to provide services. Again, report dangerous conditions to your supervisor. All of the following are indicators of end-stage dementia, except: A. Inability to hold the head up. B. Ejection fraction of less than 20%. C. Difficulty swallowing. D. Limited speech (six or less). - CORRECT ANSWER- -B. Common indicators of end-stage dementia include the inability to walk, sit, or hold the head up; difficulty, swallowing; limited speech; and weight loss. An injection fraction of less than 20% is indicative of end- stage heart disease. A scale used to classify a patient's functional impairment is: A. Karnofsky scale B. Glasgow scale. C. Pain scale. D. Body mass index. - CORRECT ANSWER- -A. The.Karnofsky scale, classifies a patient's functional impairment. It is useful to assess the prognosis of patients. The lower the score is, the worst the prognosis. The Glasgow scale, grades levels of coma. The case closure domain of case management focuses: A. Obtaining client consent for services. B. Utilization review. C. Notification of termination of services to all stakeholders. D. Evaluating the ability of a caregiver to perform necessary services. - CORRECT ANSWER- -C. The case closure domain focuses on ending the case manager, client relationship, and on notification of service termination to stakeholders. Answer a refers to the case finding an intake domain, while answer B refers to the utilization management, domain, and answer D refers to the psychosocial domain. A partnership of physicians, hospitals, and other providers that manage healthcare is a: A. Integrated delivery system. B. Exclusive provider organization C. Prefer preferred provider organization. D. Discounted fee for service plan. - CORRECT ANSWER- -A. an integrated delivery system consist of hospitals, physicians, and other providers to manage healthcare. It provides services along the continuum of care. EPO is a form of manage care that provides benefits only if care is given by providers in a specified network. PPO is a type of insurance that establishes contracts with healthcare providers. A discounted fee for service plan pays providers a previously agreed-upon discount for a specified service. The percentage of all medication errors in the hospital that can be attributed to lack of medication. Reconciliation is closest to.: A. 20% B. 38% C. 50% D. 60% - CORRECT ANSWER- -C. 50% of medication errors and hospitals can be attributed to lack of proper medication reconciliation. Which of the following is true about depression among the elderly? A. It is usually overt treated. B., heart attack, and stroke or risk factors C. Clinical tools to detect elder depression are not available. D. Geriatric depression is not widespread at this time. - CORRECT ANSWER- -B. risk factors for elder depression, include family, history, chronic disease, alcohol, abuse, heart, attack, B. Coordinator. C. Leader. D. Quality manager. - CORRECT ANSWER- -A. case managers often collaborate with various other service providers about patient needs. A coordinator organizes complex services. And the role of leader, the case manager takes leadership responsibilities in areas, such as utilization review, gatekeeping, revenue management, and allocation of resources. Quality management involves improving patient safety and improving the quality of care. A formal report of a work related injury, written by the employer is: A. First report of injury (FROI) B. Impairment rating. C. Functional capacity examination. D. Scheduled injury. - CORRECT ANSWER- -A. An FROI is written by the employer to report a work related injury to begin. The process of filing a Worker's Compensation claim employers are not trained to do functional capacity exams, or to provide an impairment rating. Impairment ratings are based on the findings of a physician. A temporary partial disability is defined as: A. Impairment that renders a worker, unable to work in any capacity that carries the expectation of recovery and return to normal employment B. Impairment that prevents a worker from returning to his usual job, but still allow him to work in some capacity until the injury is healed. C. An impairment or injury that results in a decrease in a wage earning capacity. D. None of the above. - CORRECT ANSWER- -B. A temporary partial disability renders a worker, unable to perform his usual job temporarily. While waiting to regain full function, the worker can continue to work in some capacity. Answer a refers to temporary total disability; answer C refers to permanent, partial disability. Which of the following is true about treatment protocols? A. Protocols are more specific than algorithms. B. Protocols address specific treatments for a given clinical problem. C. Protocols do not allow provider, flexibility, and treatment options. D. Protocols only assessments rather than therapeutic interventions. - CORRECT ANSWER- -B. Protocols address, specific treatments for given clinical problem and allow providers some flexibility and selecting treatment options. Protocols are less specific than algorithms. System, in which all payers of healthcare (individuals, the government, and private insurer) pay the same rates for the same medical service is called: A. And all payer system. B. A federal payer system. C. Socialized medicine. D. An alternative delivery system - CORRECT ANSWER- -A. there is only one correct answer (a). And then all pair system, pairs of the healthcare bills, whether they are individuals, companies, or the government, pay the same rates for the same medical service. The rates are set by the government. The amount a beneficiary has to pay a provider for services covered by Medicare is called: A. Fee for service. B. Bundle payment. C. Beneficiary liability D. Bonus payment. - CORRECT ANSWER- -C. Beneficiary liability is an amount. The beneficiary is responsible for paying to a provider for Medicare covered services. It could be in the form of a copayment, deductible, or balance billing. A patient's routine, dialysis test, drugs, and supplies are paid by Medicare as a bundle of services. This type of payment is known as.: A. A discounted service. B. Bundling of services. C. A form of fraud. D. A composite rate. - CORRECT ANSWER- -D. In the case of this, patient, the bundle of services needed for dialysis, such as medication's, test, and supplies, is paid by Medicare. This is known as a composite rate. Which one of the following can function as a gatekeeper? A. Nurse. B. Medical assistant. C. Pharmacist. D. None of the above. - CORRECT ANSWER- -A. A gatekeeper is a professional and a manage care organization, who determines if a patient will, or will not be referred to a specialist. Physicians, nurses, and physician assistance can all function as gatekeepers. An individual wants to change jobs, but he is unable to do so, because he would lose valuable medical benefits. This situation is known as.: A. A pre-existing condition. B. Job lock. C. Job freeze. D. Both B and C - CORRECT ANSWER- -B. A patient faces a predicament when he wants to change jobs, but he faces losing crucial healthcare benefits if he does. This situation is known as job lock. The individual feels "locked in" to the job just to keep the same level of benefits. Under Medicare, part, B, all of the following are considered "suppliers "except: A. Ambulance services. B. Healthcare practitioners. C. Prosthetists