Cosmetology State Board Examination Review (California), Exams of Cosmetology

Download Cosmetology State Board Examination Review (California) and more Exams Cosmetology in PDF only on Docsity! Cosmetology State Board Examination Review (California) Cosmetology State Board Examination Review (California) 1000 /General Knowledge Questions with Complete Solutions 2024. The study of the growth and structure of nails is known as - Answer: Onyxology Etiology is the study of - Answer: The cause of a disease Often referred to as the cuticle, it overlaps the lunula at the base of the nail - Answer: Eponychium Cosmetology State Board Examination Review (California) Infection at the nail base, usually with pus, untreated can cause loss of the nail - Answer: Onychia Onychophagy refers to - Answer: Bitten nails Onychia refers to a condition where - Answer: Inflammation at the base of the nail with pus usually present The technical term for bitten nails is - Answer: Onychophagy Tight shoes, or improper trimming of the toe-nails, may result in - Answer: Onychocryptosis/ingrown toe-nails Onychocryptosis is a condition that may result from - Answer: Excessively tight shoes A nail product used to smooth out and fill in minor depressions in a client's nails is - Answer: Ridge filler The nail is composed of a substance known as - Answer: Keratin The area from the nail root to the free edge, contains no blood vessels / nerves - Answer: Both A & C (Nail plate & Nail body) Cosmetology State Board Examination Review (California) Onychophagy may increase blood flow to the ____ and cause the nail to grow faster - Answer: Nail Matrix This portion of the nail effects its shape, size, and rate of growth - Answer: Matrix A half-moon at the base of the nail is known as - Answer: Lunula Oil or moisture under a nail enhancement may cause - Answer: Enhancements to lift / fall off The largest bone in the arm is known as the - Answer: Humerous The correct order of application in polishing a client's nails would be - Answer: Base coat, enamel, top coat This bone is found in the forearm and on the same side as the little finger - Answer: Ulna This bone is found in the forearm and on the same side as the thumb - Answer: Radius When removing polish from artificial nails, use - Answer: Non-acetone When removing artificial nails or nail enhancements, use - Answer: Acetone Cosmetology State Board Examination Review (California) Before performing any nail service, the nail tech should attempt to find out if the client - Answer: Is diabetic What is the best manner in which to treat agnails - Answer: Hot oil manicures When in use, how should manicuring / pedicuring implements be kept? - Answer: On a clean towel When not in use, manicure / pedicure implements should be stored in a - Answer: Closed container These warts, caused by the HPV Virus, are flat, hard, thick growths, usually occurring on the soles of the feet and sometimes look like a circle within a circle - Answer: Plantar warts Nail bleaches and lightners usually contain - Answer: Hydrogen peroxide Thickened white skin and watery blisters between the toes are indications of - Answer: Athlete's foot / Tinea Pedis Another name for Athlete's foot is - Answer: Ringworm of the feet / Tinea Pedis Watery blisters and thickened whitish skin between the toes, is known as - Answer: Tinea Pedis Cosmetology State Board Examination Review (California) If your client has brittle / dry nails or dry cuticles, what should you recommend - Answer: Hot oil manicures To avoid ingrown toe-nails (onychocryptosis) do not file or clip - Answer: Into the corners of the nails The instrument used for trimming the cuticle is a - Answer: Nipper A bacterial infection with pus at the nail matrix is known as - Answer: Onychia When giving a pedicure with a foot & leg massage, you should not massage over the - Answer: Shin bone For a natural effect, the shape of the finger nails should conform to the shape of the - Answer: Client's fingers Most nail techs consider the ideal nail shape is - Answer: Oval Onychophagy is the technical term for - Answer: Bitten nails When pushing back cuticles, how should the nail technician hold the pusher - Answer: Angled with medium pressure Cosmetology State Board Examination Review (California) The technical term for a "hangnail" is - Answer: Agnail The skin beneath / under the Free Edge of the nail - Answer: Hyponychium An inflammation at the base of the nail - Answer: Onychia What is the primary purpose of nail primer - Answer: To improve adhesion What can a nail tech use to smooth out imperfections in a client's natural nails? - Answer: Ridge filler What is used to dry and harden gel nails - Answer: An ultra-violet light In the salon, nail techs often use styptic in this form to stop bleeding from minor cuts - Answer: Powdered alum One of the functions of "primer" when applied during an artificial nail application? - Answer: Both A & B are correct (Absorb oil & moisture; Allow for better bonding) The excessive heat often generated by electric nail sanders may harm the - Answer: Nail plate A steel nail pusher should be used - Answer: On a moist nail Cosmetology State Board Examination Review (California) What effect will acetone have on a sculptured, artificial, or gel nail - Answer: Soften What is the function of a "dehydrator" when applied during an artificial nail application - Answer: Absorb oil & moisture This is found at the base of the nail often overlapping the lunula - Answer: Eponychium The Latin / medical / technical term for nails - Answer: Onyx Very thin nails that are brittle and less flexible than usual are referred to as - Answer: Eggshell nails Found at the nail base, may overlap the lunula and extend as far back as the first knuckle - Answer: Eponychium This refers to the tissue that is found under the free edge of the nail - Answer: Hyponychium This is the deep fold of skin within which the nail root & matrix are found - Answer: Mantle Contains many nerves and blood vessels - Answer: Nail bed Cosmetology State Board Examination Review (California) Wavy nail ridges, often the result of uneven growth due to injury, are known as - Answer: Corrugations Nail tech will shape / file the nail prior to soaking in the nail bath, this is done because - Answer: Both B & C (Filing dry nails is easier for the nail tech; Filing damp nails is more difficult) If the nail matrix is destroyed, what will occur - Answer: Nail will not grow again The nail matrix and nail root are found here - Answer: Nail mantle Functions as a barrier to stop bacteria / infection from getting to the nail matrix - Answer: Eponychium The cuticle overlapping the lunula is referred to as the - Answer: Eponychium All nourishment is supplied to the nail from the - Answer: Nail root Before the nail tech applies artificial nail enhancements, the natural nail must be - Answer: Buffed Improper use of nail nippers may result in - Answer: Agnails Very dry cuticles may result in which of the following - Answer: Agnail (hangnails) Cosmetology State Board Examination Review (California) Which of the following can be achieved with the "shears over comb" technique? - Answer: Layering very close to the skin The blood is resupplied with oxygen by the - Answer: Lungs In cutting very straight hair, what degree of tension is recommended? - Answer: Maximum tension A client has fine, dense hair, and wants it thinned out. How far from the head, should the stylist hold the razor, or thinning shears? - Answer: 1 inch Club cutting is a method of cutting the hair - Answer: Blunt and straight across To create the appearance of height, cut the hair - Answer: Close at the nape and high in the crown When trying to create more body in fine hair - Answer: Give a blunt cut In razor cutting, the amount of hair removed in one razor stroke is dependent upon - Answer: Angle of the razor When slithering hair, the best results will be obtained when using shears with which edge - Answer: Sharp Cosmetology State Board Examination Review (California) Flexible comb, used in a "scissors over comb" technique, creates a close / tight neckline is - Answer: Barber comb Which of the following hair cutting implements may be used on wet or dry hair - Answer: Shears Which of the following hair cutting implements could be used on dry hair? - Answer: Both A and C (Shears; Clippers) Which of the following hair cutting implements is best used on wet / damp hair? - Answer: Razors These hair-cutting lines are used to create a sense of weight and stability - Answer: Horizontal These hair-cutting lines are used to create a sense / illusion of movement - Answer: Diagonal The angle / degree at which you hold the hair out from the scalp prior to cutting - Answer: Elevation A blunt cut, tends to create lines that are - Answer: Hard In the "shears over comb" cutting technique, which comb is generally used - Answer: Barber comb Cosmetology State Board Examination Review (California) In the "shears over comb" technique, you should work with an area - Answer: No wider than the comb In the "shear over comb" technique, the angle of the comb will determine - Answer: The length of the hair In the "shears over comb" technique, the stylist should begin the haircut at the - Answer: Nape If your client has lice, what must you do? - Answer: Refuse service When cutting the hair with clippers, it is generally best to - Answer: Go against the direction of the hair growth pattern When using the "clipper over comb" technique, the clippers move - Answer: Sideways across top of the comb While cutting a client's hair, if the stylist momentarily stops cutting, what is the best method to handle the shears - Answer: Palm them, closed, facing the stylist Thinning shears are used to - Answer: Remove excess bulk Using "single-notched" shears will have which of the following effects - Answer: Remove more hair than double-notched Cosmetology State Board Examination Review (California) Which of the following will remove the greatest amount of hair - Answer: Regular shears The approximate pH of permanent wave neutralizer is - Answer: 3 - 5 Which of the following would likely need to be melted prior to use - Answer: Wax Paraffin is - Answer: Wax You have lightened your client's hair from a Level 3 to a Level 6, what is the underlying exposed warm pigment and what is the correct Toner to create a neutral result - Answer: Orange / Blue You have lightened your client's hair from Level 5 to a Level 9, what is the underlying exposed warm pigment and what is the correct Toner to create a neutral result - Answer: Yellow / Violet You have lightened your client's hair from Level 5 to Level 9, you then apply a blue based toner, what is the result - Answer: Green In the "scissors over comb" technique, holding comb flat against the head will result in - Answer: Less scalp visibility / longer hair Silking, refers to - Answer: Relaxing the hair with heat Cosmetology State Board Examination Review (California) The approximate pH of an ammonium thioglycolate solution is - Answer: 8.2 - 9.6 About 90% of the scalp hair is in this stage / phase at any given time - Answer: Anagen About 10% of the scalp hair is in this stage / phase at any given time - Answer: Telogen Although vellus and lanugo hair are similar, vellus hair can be distinguished because - Answer: Vellus hair has no pigment A row of Pin Curls going in one direction beside a row going in the other direction - Answer: Skip Waves The hair that we are primarily concerned with cutting, is refered to as - Answer: Terminal hair Hair cut on an "angle" is also referred to as being cut - Answer: On a Bias Which of the following design lines would be used to add weight / build weight line? - Answer: Horizontal lines Lanugo hair can be easily distinguished from vellus hair because - Answer: Lanugo hair has pigment Cosmetology State Board Examination Review (California) The primary distinction between vellus and lanugo hair is - Answer: Lanugo has pigment, vellus does not Which of the following can be achieved with the "shears over comb" technique? - Answer: Layering the nape very close to the skin Which type of haircut could be used to disguise a large chin and / or prominent jaw line? - Answer: Chin length BOB When clipper cutting hair, the clippers should be held in what relationship to the comb? - Answer: In the same position as the comb This is the widest portion of the head, sometimes referred to as the "crest area" - Answer: Parietal The angle at which the fingers are held during a hair cut - Answer: Cutting line In hair cutting, elevation is used to create - Answer: Graduation When cutting a BOB, Blunt Cut, or Solid Form, the most common cutting position is - Answer: Palm Down The most commonly used elevations in haircutting are - Answer: 45 degree and 92 degree Cosmetology State Board Examination Review (California) In blow-drying and wet-setting, the use of over direction will create - Answer: Maximum volume This type of guideline is used in blunt cutting / to create a gradual increase in length - Answer: Stationary Whether the layers are different lengths or uniform, this type of guideline is used primarily when creating layered / graduated designs - Answer: Traveling Check the hair in the opposite direction from that which it was cut - Answer: Cross checking The main ingredient in most permanent wave neutralizers is - Answer: Hydrogen Peroxide Hydrogen peroxide is - Answer: Acid The neutralizer for a permanent wave or chemical relaxer is - Answer: Acid When cutting diagonal lines (movement), the most common cutting position is - Answer: Palm up In cutting very straight hair, what degree of tension is recommended - Answer: Maximum tension Cosmetology State Board Examination Review (California) The effect of effleurage movements would be - Answer: Relaxing A medium pressure, kneading or rolling motions is called - Answer: Petrissage A light, tapping movememt applied with either the hand or the finger tip is called - Answer: Tapotement Anhidrosis - Answer: Inability to sweat A tapping motion applied with the finger tips moving quickly across the face - Answer: Tapotement A stimulating, brisk shaking movement, done with the finger tips is called - Answer: Vibration Approximately 12% of sunlight is comprised of - Answer: Visible light Approximately 80% of sunlight is comprised of - Answer: Infra red With both chemical and germicidal effects, White and Blue lights are considered - Answer: Penetrating A sudden elevation or increase in the amount of sweat produced is referred to as - Answer: Hyperhidrosis Cosmetology State Board Examination Review (California) Excessively foul smelling sweat is called - Answer: Bromidrosis Bromhidrosis - Answer: Foul smelling sweat The technical name for skin is - Answer: Derma The fatty layer of the skin that creates softness and suppleness, is called - Answer: Subcutaneous / Adipose The thinnest skin is found on the - Answer: Eyelids A congenital defect wherein the skin is unable to produce melanin is referred to as - Answer: Albinism Hypo (low) - pigmentation of the skin, caused by a decrease in melanocyte activity - Answer: Lecoderma What is the largest organ of the body - Answer: Dermis Sebaceous glands are also known as - Answer: Oil Glands Sudoriferous glands are also known as - Answer: Sweat Glands Cosmetology State Board Examination Review (California) This is a temporary hair removal technique producing results similar to waxing - Answer: Sugaring The only permanent hair removal technique - Answer: Electrolysis What type of test should be conducted prior to any waxing or exfoliation procedure - Answer: Predisposition test If the dermatologist says you have verrucas, you have - Answer: Warts Pityriasis Capitis, can result from extreme changes in temperature, as a contact reaction to certain skin and hair care products, or, as an allergic reaction to certain foods; it can be oily or dry - and is commonly known as - Answer: Dandruff Dandruff, can result from extreme changes in temperature, as a contact reaction to certain skin and hair care products, or, as an allergic reaction to certain foods; it can be oily or dry - and goes by the Latin / medical name of - Answer: Pityriasis Capitis The epidermis is the - Answer: Top or outermost layer of the skin The study of the microscopic anatomy of plant and animal cells, including their structure and function is known as - Answer: Histology Cosmetology State Board Examination Review (California) Responsible for main taining the bodies internal temperature - Answer: Sudoriferous glands The Integumentary System refers to - Answer: The skin, its appendages, and accessory organs Serve to waterproof, cushion, excrete waste, and regulate the body's temperature - Answer: The sebaceous & sudoriferous glands Exfoliating creams usually have a pH in what range? - Answer: Alkaline The pH range of human skin is between - Answer: 4.5 - 5.5 All exfoliation techniques (manual, mechanical, chemical) do essentially the same thing - Answer: Remove skin tissue Which governmental agency regulates cosmetics in the United States - Answer: FDA Which agency regulates & approves the efficacy of products used for infection control - Answer: EPA Which governmental agency enforces health and safety standards in the workplace - Answer: OSHA Cosmetology State Board Examination Review (California) Which of the following agencies is responsible for approval of disinfectant solutions - Answer: Environmental Protection Agency The function of the medulla is - Answer: Has no known function If the papilla of the hair is destroyed, what will happen - Answer: Hair will never grow again How far can wet hair be safely stretched without causing damage or breakage - Answer: 40 - 50 % How far can dry hair be safely stretched without causing damage or breakage - Answer: 20% The term for baldness is - Answer: Alopecia The term for baldness in patches, usually the result of illness or injury - Answer: Alopecia areata All permanent chemical changes to the hair occur in the - Answer: Cortex To cause a permanent change in the hair, a product must reach what layer - Answer: The cortex Which of the following terms refers to the hairs Cosmetology State Board Examination Review (California) This hair is pigmented, quite fine, and can often be found all over the body - Answer: Lanugo hair There are 3 layers / parts of the hair shaft, which is the inner most layer - Answer: Medulla There are 3 layers / parts of the hair shaft, which is the outer most layer / part - Answer: Cuticle There are 3 layers / parts of the hair shaft, which is the middle layer / part - Answer: Cortex Erythrocites are - Answer: Red blood cells In which part / layer of the hair shaft, do all "chemical reactions" occur - Answer: Cortex In which part / layer of the hair shaft, do all "permanent changes" occur - Answer: Cortex Hair thickness can mean different things to different people, for state board, which of the following refers to the actual number of hairs on a person's head - Answer: Density Cosmetology State Board Examination Review (California) Which of the following terms refers to the actual size of the hairs on a person's head - Answer: Diameter Texture refers to - Answer: Diameter Which two layers of the hair shaft are responsible for the diameter of a hair shaft - Answer: Medulla & Cortex If the medulla is absent from an individual's hair, that person would have - Answer: Lesser diameter "Diameter" refers to the actual size of each hair, diameter can influence - Answer: Hair texture This hair is unpigmented, quite fine, and can often be found all over the body - Answer: Vellus hair This hair is thicker, more pigmented, and found on the scalp, face, and extremities - Answer: Terminal Although similar, lanugo hair is easily distinguished from vellus hair because - Answer: Lanugo hair has pigment What is the technical name for the eye lashes and eyebrows - Answer: Supercilia & Cilia Cosmetology State Board Examination Review (California) How many hair follicles does the "average" person have on their head - Answer: 100,000 This bone forms the back / rear most portion of the skull - Answer: Occipital What is the average rate of daily hair loss - Answer: 50 - 75 hairs per day Contraction of the arrector pile muscle (anger, fear, cold) causes which of the following - Answer: Elevation of the hair follicle Soft, fine, broken hair, that may appear "Beaded" - Answer: Monilethrix The approximate pH of an acid balanced permanent wave is - Answer: 4.5 - 7.9 The approximate pH of an acid permanent wave is - Answer: 4.5 - 6.5 In the salon industry, the word "Tool" refers to - Answer: A perm rod Alkaline permanent waves should be wrapped - Answer: Without tension Acid permanent waves should be wrapped - Answer: With firm even tension A tiny cup-shaped pit buried within the fatty layer of the scalp - Answer: Papilla Cosmetology State Board Examination Review (California) In the average person, what percent of hair is in the Anagen stage at any given time - Answer: 90% In the average person, in what stage is most of the hair at any given point in time - Answer: Anagen The secondary stage, during which hair growth slows down - Answer: Catagen The Telogen stage / phase is also known as the - Answer: Resting / dormant stage How much would you expect the hair of an average person to grow with in 1 year - Answer: 6 inches Often referred to as the "resting phase / stage" of hair growth - Answer: Telogen You cut a client's hair in January, 6 months later they return requesting you cut the hair to the same length as in January; how many inches should you remove - Answer: 3 inches Shaving is an example of cutting or removing the hair at the level of the skin, what is the term used for this type of hair removal - Answer: Depiliation Short, fine, soft hair with pigment - Answer: Lanugo Cosmetology State Board Examination Review (California) Short, fine, light colored/unpigmented hair, often observed on women and children - Answer: Vellus Extremely curly hair tends to grow - Answer: Somewhat slower than the 1/2" norm Short hairs, 1 to 2 centimeters in length, containing little or no pigment - Answer: Vellus Canities is another name for - Answer: Grey hair This short, fine, pigmented hair is often observed on premature babies - Answer: Lanugo Normal wet hair can be stretched _____% of its length without damage or breakage - Answer: 40 - 50% Normal dry hair can be stretched _____% of its length without damage or breakage - Answer: 20% The hair follicle determines the hairs - Answer: Shape, size, and density Which croquignole curl (roller set / curling iron) creates the least movement in the hair - Answer: No stem / On base Cosmetology State Board Examination Review (California) Which of the following terms is not part of pin curl - Answer: Strand If the stylist is attempting to create finger waves and the comb does not penetrate to the scalp to make certain the hair at the scalp is moving, the result will be - Answer: A weak wave The most important factor in achieving a strong finger wave is - Answer: Be certain the hair at the scalp is moving A hair set using alternating rows of pin-curls & finger waves is referred to as - Answer: Skip waves What is the effect of "On-Base" or "No-Stem" placement on the hair - Answer: More volume, less movement Which type of placement creates the greatest degree of movement or softness - Answer: Full stem / off base What base type is best used for barrel curls - Answer: Rectangular Which type of placement creates the least degree of movement or softness - Answer: No stem / on base What is the effect of "Off-Base" placement on the hair - Answer: Less volume Cosmetology State Board Examination Review (California) Stand up pin-curls are often referred to as - Answer: Barrel curls In a roller-set, the part of the hair / curl closest to the head is referred to as the - Answer: Closed end When doing a roller (wet) set, what should be the width of the parting - Answer: Same size as the roller In a wet set, which of the following placements would result in the lease volume - Answer: Off base In a pin-curl set, which of the following placements creates maximum volume - Answer: No stem Which of the following takes longer to rinse from your client's hair - Answer: Acid perm Which permanent wave will cause the least swelling / opening of the cuticle - Answer: Acid wave Triangular shaped bases in a pin-curl set can be used to - Answer: Avoid any splits in the dried style Which of the following takes the least time to rinse from your client's hair - Answer: Ammonium Thioglycolate perm Cosmetology State Board Examination Review (California) During which period in the permanent wave process does oxidation occur - Answer: Neutralizing Reduction occurs during which of the following periods - Answer: Processing During which period in the permanent wave process does oxidation occur - Answer: Both A and C ( Neutralizing; Processing) Curling the hair from the scalp to the ends is referred to as - Answer: Spiral In a permanent wave, the diameter of the rod will determine the - Answer: Size of the curl Which type of shampoo may increase porosity and hasten color fading - Answer: Volumizing In hair coloring, the word "complimentary", means the same as - Answer: Opposite What is 20 volume hydrogen peroxide equivalent to - Answer: 6% What is 40 volume hydrogen peroxide equivalent to - Answer: 12% What is the "complimentary" color for yellow - Answer: Violet Cosmetology State Board Examination Review (California) What color neutralizes yellow when tinting - Answer: Violet What is the opposite color to yellow - Answer: Violet A client's hair has been lightened to a shade of pale yellow, they want to see no warmth in the hair, you should use a toner with what base color - Answer: Violet If you wanted NO lift, and deposit only, which strength of H2O2 would you use - Answer: 5 volume Over oxidation, in any chemical process, may result in - Answer: Hair breakaage An acid rinse may be used to achieve all the following except - Answer: Open the cuticle Which of the following would you use to achieve maximum lift in a one-process color - Answer: 12% or 40 volume Approximately how long will a bleach mixture last before losing its potency - Answer: 2 hours What is the "Complimentary" color for red - Answer: Green What is the "Opposite" color for red - Answer: Green Cosmetology State Board Examination Review (California) You have lightened your client's medium brown hair to lightest pale yellow, what toner should you apply to achieve a neutral / platinum blonde shade - Answer: Violet If you lightened your client's medium brown hair to lightest pale yellow, and you apply a blue based toner, what will be the result - Answer: Light Green What is the darkest pigment color - Answer: Blue The law of color suggests you would use which of the following to darken a color - Answer: Blue When applied to white or very light grey hair, Hennas will produce what color - Answer: Orange If a client wants a perm and color, what would be the recommended order - Answer: Color then perm Hair with a hard / closed / compact cuticle layer is - Answer: Resistant and non- porous How far in advance must a predisposition test, a patch test, or a strand test, be given - Answer: 24-48 hours Cosmetology State Board Examination Review (California) Which one of the following colors would not require a predisposition test - Answer: Certified color When tinting , Blue, Green, and Violet are classified as - Answer: Cool colors / tones When tinting, Red, Orange, and Yellow are classified as - Answer: Warm colors / tones Which of the following is correct in terms of lasting on the hair (shortest to longest) - Answer: Temporary, semi-permanent, demi-permanent, permanent Toners are - Answer: Aniline derivative tints in pale, delicate shades What coloring effect would the use of Chamomile produce on very light hair - Answer: Pale, yellow blonde tone If the client has 80% grey hair, which of the following is best for maximum coverage - Answer: Permanent color Why would the stylist use a filler on bleached or highly lightened hair - Answer: To even out its porosity Colors with no warmth (red, orange, yellow) are considered - Answer: Cool shades Cosmetology State Board Examination Review (California) In hair coloring, the expression "double process" refers to - Answer: Bleach and Tone Returning the color to its original shade, whether lighter or darker, is known - Answer: Tint back Any product designed to remove artificial color from the hair is known as - Answer: Dye solvent An oxidative tint is best mixed in a container made from - Answer: Glass / plastic The angle / degree at which you hold the hair out from the scalp prior to cutting - Answer: Elevation Slithering / effilating refers to the technique of decreasing bulk by - Answer: Both B and C (Thinning the hair; Opening & partially closing shears up & down the hair shaft) Extremely resistant canities hair may require the stylist to use - Answer: A pre- softner Para - phenylene - diamene colors are generally used for - Answer: Hair Cosmetology State Board Examination Review (California) What would you use to remove old, very dark tint - Answer: Dye solvent Why are high lift tints and bleach applied away from the scalp in a virgin lightening - Answer: To achieve even porosity and color Why is the product initially applied away from the scalp in a virgin / high - lift tint - Answer: All of the above (The scalp will process faster; To achieve even lightening; To avoid possible scalp burns) The minimum sub - partings in a bleach application are - Answer: 1/8 inch When applying a high lift - high volume virgin tint on the hair, begin the application - Answer: Away from the scalp up TO the ends When applying a virgin bleach on the hair, begin the application - Answer: 1/2 inch away from the scalp and 1 inch from the ends In which layer of the hair do all permanent chemical reactions occur - Answer: Cortex Which of the following colors will not penetrate the cortex - Answer: Temporary Another term sometimes used for Bleach is - Answer: Decolorizer Cosmetology State Board Examination Review (California) When decolorizing hair, strand tests are preformed to test for - Answer: Both B and C (Elasticity; Decolorization) What liquid could your use to reduce the strength of Hydrogen Peroxide - Answer: Distilled water When doing a "tint - back" from a lighter color, which of the following should be used - Answer: Filler When testing for the presence of metallic dyes / salts in the hair, you should place a strand of the hair in which of the following solutions - Answer: 20 v. H2O2, 20 drops ammonia, 30 minutes Which of the following will decolorize the fastest - Answer: Soft, fine, light hair When using a higher volume H2O2 than manufacturer recommends, what is likely - Answer: Burning of client's scalp Although anyone may decide an allergy, patch or predisposition test might be a good idea, which agency is responsible for "Ordering" that these types of tests be administered - Answer: None of the above(The state government; The State Board of Cosmetology; Salon management) A tone lacking warm pigment may be referred to as all of the following except - Answer: Silvery tones Cosmetology State Board Examination Review (California) A strand test reveals too much orange in the hair, what would not correct this - Answer: Add a warm toner A strand test reveals too much yellow in the hair, what would correct this - Answer: Add a violet toner A strand test reveals a greenish cast in the hair, all of the following are incorrect except - Answer: Adding a warm toner The normal pH of human hair, skin, and nails is - Answer: 4.5 - 5.5 After the removal of perm solution, relaxer, bleach, or aniline tints, hair is in what state - Answer: Both B and C (Alkaline; Base) The best way to be certain how a color will appear on a clients hair, is to conduct a / an - Answer: Strand test The best way to determine how a client's hair, skin, or nails will react to a certain product is to conduct , any or all of the following except - Answer: Allergy test If the client's skin becomes inflamed after a Patch Test is given, this result is said to be - Answer: Positive Cosmetology State Board Examination Review (California) Builds up and coats the cuticle, with repeated applications makes the hair darker - Answer: Progressive dye / tint What is the action of a semi or demi - permanent color on the hair - Answer: Deposit pigment What is the action of an aniline derivative tint color (w/ appropriate H2O2) on the hair - Answer: Lift and deposit pigment What is the action of a high lift color (w/ appropriate developer) on the hair - Answer: Lift and deposit pigment What is the action of a bleach (w/ appropriate developer) on the hair - Answer: Lift natural pigment What is the action of a dye solvent (w/ appropriate developer) on the hair - Answer: Lift artificial pigment What is the action of a deposit only color (w/ appropriate developer) on the hair - Answer: Deposit pigment The agent that begins any chemical reaction is know as - Answer: A catalyst Cosmetology State Board Examination Review (California) When rinsing a decolorizer from the hair, the stylist should use cool water - Answer: To avoid tangling Which of the following ingredients, all used by the cosmetologist, is the principal ingredient in semi, demi, and permanent hair color - Answer: Para phenylenediamine Because most oxidative tints contain known allergens, prior to use they require a / an - Answer: P.D. Test During a permanent wave, if the hair begins to smoke, or the cotton turns purple - Answer: This indicates the presence of metallic salts Decolorizing is another term for - Answer: Bleaching In a virgin tint going darker, apply the product - Answer: 1/2 inch from the scalp until 1/2 from the ends After decolorizing a client's hair, you would likely use - Answer: A toner The decolorization process is best done on hair that is - Answer: Dry Stylists use Activators, Boosters, and Protinators, and ____ as a catalyst - Answer: H2O2 Cosmetology State Board Examination Review (California) If your client began the decolorization process with darkest brown or black hair, how many levels would the hair go through to reach a platinum level / stage - Answer: 10 If your client began the decolorization process with dark brown or black hair, how many levels could the hair safely go through before serious harm occurred - Answer: 7 This chemical reaction occurs when H2O2 is combined with an aniline derivative tint - Answer: Oxidation A "positive" reaction to a P.D. Test would mean that - Answer: Client is allergic to the product Which of the following products are not added to bleach to speed up the action - Answer: Impediments ____ may not be used, if hair has been treated with a metallic salts product - Answer: Bleach Black, White and Grey are often referred to as - Answer: Achromatic colors Colors approved by the FDA that do not require a P.D. Test prior to use - Answer: Certified Colors Cosmetology State Board Examination Review (California) Client with kinky hair wants it permanently relaxed (straight), stylist should do - Answer: A Sodium hydroxide relaxer When applying a virgin SODIUM HYDROXIDE relaxer, the application should be done - Answer: 1/2 inch from the scalp, 1 inch from the ends When applying a virgin THIO relaxer, the application should be done - Answer: 1/2 inch from scalp to the ends When relaxing the hair with a Thio relaxer, how wide should the partings be - Answer: 1/8 inch Which of the following relaxers leave the hair unfit for any further chemical service - Answer: Sodium hydroxide Hair previously relaxed with a sodium hydroxide product should not be - Answer: Flat ironed Hair that was relaxed with a thioglycolate based product, should not be treated with - Answer: Sodium based product Pressing creams, oils, and other products designed to protect the hair, should be used - Answer: On dry hair after the shampoo This type of relaxer is usually advised as a "no - lye" relaxer - Answer: Guanidine Cosmetology State Board Examination Review (California) relaxer recommended for sensitive scalps and sold "over - the - counter" - Answer: Guanidine Process where a hydroxide relaxer removes one atom of sulfur from a disulfide bond - Answer: Lanthionization The hydroxide relaxer breaks the disulfide bond (it losses one atom of sulfur) thereafter, it is referred to as a "Lanthionine Bond", these bonds - Answer: Can never be reformed If a laxer is advertised as "no - lye", you can be certain it is not which of the following - Answer: Sodium hydroxide All of the following are true of guanidine relaxers except - Answer: Have a lower pH than Thio relaxers Although marketed for sensitive scalps, this type of relaxer will cause more swelling of the hair shaft and is more drying to the hair than hydroxide type relaxers - Answer: Guanidine If the relaxer is rinsed with cold water, there is a good chance the hair will - Answer: All of the above (Break; Revert; Tangle) Cosmetology State Board Examination Review (California) When doing a chemical relaxer service, the best H2O2 temperature for shampooing is - Answer: Tepid Unless instructions say otherwise, to stop the action of a relaxer, the stylist should - Answer: Rinse with cool / tepid water To avoid "Tangling" the hair while rinsing the relaxer, use - Answer: Tepid water with medium pressure Unless otherwise instructed by manufacturer, when rinsing any relaxer it is best to use - Answer: Cool to tepid water To stop the chemical reaction after relaxer has been removed, stylist should use / apply - Answer: Fixative, neutralizer, or stabilizer In a chemical relaxer, the action of the neutralizer is to do which of the following - Answer: All of the above (Stop the action of the processing solution; Reform the broken bonds of the hair; Establish how curly / straight the hair will be) In a chemical relaxer, the action of the fixative is to do which of the following - Answer: All of the above (Stop the action of the processing solution; Reform the broken bonds of the hair; Establish how straight the hair will be) A thio relaxer should be applied to - Answer: Damp hair Cosmetology State Board Examination Review (California) Because they are incompatible and usage may cause extensive breakage, hair treated with a Sodium hydroxide relaxer should not be treated with - Answer: Ammonium Thioglycolate To remove relaxers from the hair, stop their chemical action, and avoid damage to the hair itself, it is necessary to - Answer: Rinse the hair well If the relaxer comes into contact with the skin or scalp, it must be - Answer: Gently removed with a moist towel How often is it recommended to have a relaxer retouch - Answer: 3 to 4 months What strength relaxer would you suggest using on fine / damaged hair - Answer: Mild If the relaxer is left on the hair longer than directions state, what will likely occur - Answer: Hair may break A disulphide relaxer, often marketed as "less damaging" to the hair, is or has - Answer: An acidic pH Relaxer application generally begins - Answer: At the nape What would be the first step in a chemical relaxer service - Answer: Discuss with client Cosmetology State Board Examination Review (California) Once hair is relaxed with a Thio relaxer, the application of a new Thio relaxer may cause - Answer: Breakage In cutting chemically relaxed hair, it is recommended you use - Answer: Shears Using very cold water while rinsing the relaxer, will cause all of the following except - Answer: Looser curl Which of the following is not a strength of professionally made relaxers - Answer: Color-Treated The product protecting the scalp from irritation in a "no-base" relaxer is known as - Answer: No scalp cream is applied in a no-base relaxer The product protecting the scalp from irritation in a relaxer service is known as - Answer: Base cream In a virgin relaxer, the relaxing product should be applied - Answer: 1/2 inch from the scalp and 1 inch from the ends When doing a retouch relaxer service, avoid - Answer: Overlapping the previously relaxed hair Cosmetology State Board Examination Review (California) Which agency approves the efficacy of products used for infection control - Answer: Environmental Protection Agency Designed to reform the hair's disulphide bonds, neutralizers have what effect on the hair? - Answer: Harden and shrink Which of the following cannot be used to reform the hair after the relaxer is removed - Answer: Conditioner Stretching of the hair during the application of the relaxing cream, will cause it to - Answer: Break The average pH range of a sodium Hydroxide relaxer is - Answer: Somewhere higher than a Thio Relaxer When doing a retouch relaxer service, it is a good idea to - Answer: Leave conditioner on previously relaxed hair during the service Chemical relaxers and permanent wave solutions have what effect on the hair - Answer: Alkaline so they swell and soften The average pH range of an ammonium Thioglycolate relaxer is - Answer: 8.5-11.5 The average / approximate pH range of a sodium hydroxide relaxer is - Answer: 11.5-14 Cosmetology State Board Examination Review (California) When using very hot irons on highly lightened hair, in addition to breakage, you will - Answer: Scorch the hair Thermal styling may be done on wigs made of - Answer: Either human or remy hair Thermal styling will likely be unsuccessful on which of the following types of wigs - Answer: Synthetic The use of creams, oils and other products are used during thermal styling - Answer: As a protection from heat damage The comb used in a thermal styling service is usually made of - Answer: Brass What portion of the thermal pressing comb carries the heat and does the pressing - Answer: Red When pressing fine or damaged hair, use - Answer: Low heat and light pressure Pressing combs are usually made of - Answer: Both B & C (Steel / Brass) When pressing extremely processed hair, use - Answer: Low heat and light pressure Thermal services are - Answer: Temporary Cosmetology State Board Examination Review (California) Modern thermal irons tend to be made of "fine steel" because it allows them to be - Answer: Heated evenly Following a thermal press & curl, how long should you wait to style the hair - Answer: Wait until the hair cools A sign of good porosity in the hair is - Answer: Hair will absorb products easily and usually process quickly Poor porosity means - Answer: Hair absorbs products poorly and will process slowly Hair with good porosity will - Answer: Absorb products quickly, process quickly Porosity refers to - Answer: The hairs ability to absorb moisture Permanent Wave solutions tend to be - Answer: Alkaline In a permanent wave procedure, when should the cotton be removed - Answer: Both B & C (Before rinsing / After saturation) The action of the perm solution on the hair is - Answer: Soften and swell Alkaline solutions have what effect on the hair and skin - Answer: Soften and swell Cosmetology State Board Examination Review (California) Neutralilzers are usually - Answer: Acid Acid solutions have what effect on the hair and skin - Answer: Harden and shrink Cold wave solutions will have a pH in the range of - Answer: 8.2 - 9.6 What is the approximate pH range of acid waves - Answer: 5.8 - 6.8 What is the approximate pH range of neutral / acid-balanced waves - Answer: 4.5 - 6.5 What is the basic ingredient used in most chemical relaxers - Answer: Sodium Hydroxide The basic ingredient in most neutralizers is either H2O2 or - Answer: Sodium Bromide The basic ingredient of most neutralizers is either Sodium Bromide or - Answer: 2% Hydrogen Peroxide Vigorous brushing or shampooing prior to any chemical service may result in - Answer: Chemical burns Which of the following is not a type of bond found in the hair - Answer: Keratin Cosmetology State Board Examination Review (California) Poor wrapping technique may cause breakage, uneven curl formation and - Answer: Fishhooks Under processing will generally result in - Answer: Loose curls Which of the following is not a possible reason for a curl that is too loose - Answer: Color treated hair Which bonds must be broken to achieve a permanent change - Answer: Cystine What bonds are broken during a permanent wave procedure - Answer: Disulfide After rinsing perm solution from the hair, which of the following chemicals is applied - Answer: Any of the above (Fixative / Neutralizer / Stabilizer) The controlling factor in determining the processing time of hair in a permanent wave is - Answer: Porosity Of the following hair types, which would require the shortest processing time - Answer: Hair with good porosity Of the following hair types, which would require the longest processing time - Answer: Hair with poor porosity Cosmetology State Board Examination Review (California) Test curls are given to - Answer: All of the above (Determine processing time / Determine porosity / Hair with good elasticity) If you were going to color your client's hair immediately after perming, which of the following would offer your best (least damaging) choice - Answer: Demi- permanent color Oxidation occurs during which of the following periods - Answer: Neutralization An ammonium thioglycolate solution is an alkaline or cold wave and should be wrapped with - Answer: No tension All of the following will open the cuticle or keep it open, except - Answer: Vinegar In permanent waving, a "Test Curl", is most analogous to giving a - Answer: Strand test Wrapping the hair 2 to 3 times around the word will produce - Answer: Soft to medium curls How many times must hair be wrapped around the rod to produce one curl - Answer: 2 1/2 times If hair is wrapped less than 2 1/2 times around the rod, the result will be - Answer: little to no curl Cosmetology State Board Examination Review (California) Very fine, thin, or sparse hair, will generally achieve the best result when the stylist uses - Answer: Small rods with small blockings Very dense hair (hairs per square inch, not the diameter of the hair), will provide the best results in a permanent wave if wrapped with - Answer: Larger rods with small blockings In addition to the size rod used, what determines the size of the resultant curl pattern - Answer: Size of the partings / blockings When perming bleached hair use - Answer: Large rods Conditioning immediately prior to performing a permanent wave service, may result in - Answer: Hair not absorbing the lotion Conditioning immediately prior to preforming a permanent wave service, may result in - Answer: Hair being under-processed Which of the following is the most important in determining processing time - Answer: Porosity If insufficient cysteine / disulfide bonds are broken in the hair, the likely result will be - Answer: Under processed hair / weak curl formation Cosmetology State Board Examination Review (California) What is the active ingredient in most chemical relaxers - Answer: Sodium Hydroxide Which type of wrap or perm is generally suggested for long hair - Answer: Both A & B (Spiral / Double halo) Thick, coarse hair, with poor porosity, is probably resistant to any chemical service and would usually require the application of which type perm solution - Answer: Alkaline wave The use of end papers make it easier for the cosmetologist to wrap the hair in perm rods; however, the primary function of end papers is to - Answer: Protect the ends Client's hair is rinsed & neutralized before sufficient curl formation occurs, the result is - Answer: Under processed hair You have applied the apparently correct perm solution to the client's hair, and after 10 minutes there is no curl formation beginning, what should you do - Answer: Blot and use stronger perm solution there is no wave pattern after perm has completed processing time. What can you do - Answer: Blot and re-saturate with new perm solution Cosmetology State Board Examination Review (California) A permanent may be air neutralized or self neutralized, these terms mean - Answer: Neutralizer is not used The hair is dry and brittle after a permanent wave, this is most likely the result of - Answer: Over neutralization If the saturated cotton is left on the skin too long, what may occur - Answer: Chemical burns To avoid chemical burns to a client's skin, it is best to - Answer: Change cotton after applying perm solution When should the cotton placed around the hairline in a permanent wave be changed - Answer: As soon as solution stops dripping Hair that appears very curly when wet, but frizzy or straight when dry, has been - Answer: Over processed When deciding if the processing time of a permanent is completed look for - Answer: Well developed "S" pattern An acid or acid balanced perm would be good for all the following hair types except - Answer: Coarse, virgin hair Cosmetology State Board Examination Review (California) A highly alkaline perm would be a good choice for all the following except - Answer: High-lift, color treated hair The action of the perm solution will continue until which of the following occurs - Answer: It is neutralized During a massage, muscles are typically manipulated from the - Answer: Insertion to the origin What test can be performed to distinguish between synthetic and human hair wigs - Answer: Match test Remy hair refers to hair that is or has - Answer: Human hair that was chemically processed The biggest / largest / best selling hair in the world is - Answer: Non-Remy hair Remy hair has - Answer: Cuticle running in the same direction Remy means - Answer: Cuticle faces direction of original growth Non-Remy hair is also known as - Answer: Fallen hair From what animal do manufactures obtain most of the non-human hair used in wigs - Answer: Yak Cosmetology State Board Examination Review (California) A 3 strand braid using the under-hand technique is also known as - Answer: Visible braid The corrective make-up color used to correct / camouflage a sallow complexion - Answer: Pink A ruddy (red) complexion could be improved with the use of - Answer: Green A grey, ashen pallor can be covered up by use of - Answer: Gold A chalky (white) complexion can be camouflaged by the use of - Answer: Gold An eyebrow pencil should be sharpened - Answer: Before and after every usage After tweezing a client's eyebrows, you should - Answer: Apply astringent Eye shadow concentrated at the outer most corner of the lid will cause the eyes to appear - Answer: Further apart Eye shadow concentrated at the inner most corner of the lid will cause the eyes to appear - Answer: Closer together To correct very close set eyes, and make them appear further apart, the make-up artist will probably apply shadow - Answer: At the outer corner of the upper lid Cosmetology State Board Examination Review (California) To correct very wide set eyes, and make them appear closer together, the makeup artist will probably apply shadow - Answer: At the inner portion of the lid Application of individual false eyelashes should begin - Answer: At the center of the eye and move outwards The application of individual false eyelashes is often referred to as - Answer: Eye tabbing Another name for strip lashes is - Answer: None of the above (Banded lashes / Individual lashes / Attached lashes) Eye tabbing is a process involving the application of - Answer: Single individual lashes When applying false eyelashes, because of the adhesive used, it is advisable to - Answer: Give a P.D. test and wait 24 - 48 hours In removing band / strip eyelashes - Answer: Peel slowly & gently from outer corner When shaping eyebrows using tweezers, in what direction should the hairs be removed - Answer: In the direction of the hair growth Cosmetology State Board Examination Review (California) In a make-up application, what is considered the "ideal" shaped face - Answer: Oval What facial shape are most professional make-up artists trying to mimic or create - Answer: Oval In the "heart-shaped" face, the greatest width will be found - Answer: At the temples In the "diamond-shaped" face, the greatest width will be found - Answer: At the cheek bones In the "diamond shaped" face, the greatest width will be found - Answer: All of the above (At the zygomatic bone / At the cheek bones / At the malar bone) From the highest to lowest, decontamination is as follows - Answer: Sterilization, disinfection, sanitation From lowest to highest, decontamination is as follows - Answer: Sanitation, disinfection, sterilization To reduce the width of an overly broad nose, you would apply - Answer: Darker shade on sides of nose Bacteriology is the science dealing with the study of - Answer: Micro-organisms Cosmetology State Board Examination Review (California) When stored together, sodium bromate and ammonia are combustible and may produce - Answer: All of the above (Highly unpleasant odors / Fire / Toxic fumes) Pediculosis refers to - Answer: Lice Pediculosis capitis refers to - Answer: Head lice Tinea refers to, or is also known as - Answer: Ringworm Tinea capits refers to - Answer: Ringworm of the scalp A common affliction caused by Tinea Pedis or Ringworm is - Answer: Athletes Foot Products are often placed in cobalt blue or amber colored bottles for what reason - Answer: Protect contents from light Which of the following terms are used to mean unsanitary conditions - Answer: Septic Which of the following terms are used to mean sanitary conditions - Answer: Aseptic If the State Board Inspector gave you a failing grade because your implements were unclean and stored in an unsanitary manner, this would mean they were - Answer: Septic Cosmetology State Board Examination Review (California) If an object is free form pathogenic bacteria, it is said to be - Answer: Aseptic Sodium Hypoclorite, is more commonly known as - Answer: Bleach Caustic is a term that refers to - Answer: Burn Bleach is a very effective disinfectant for - Answer: Laundry (including towels and capes) Blood platelets are colorless cells that help in blood clotting, they are also known as - Answer: Thrombocytes This is a colorless -/slightly yellow liquid found in blood plasma - Answer: Lymph Ultra violet sanitizers are very effective when used in what capacity - Answer: Store previously disinfected implements The process that effectively kills any transmissible agents (fungi, spores, bacteria, viruses, spore forms, etc.) from food, surfaces or equipment - Answer: Sterilization The process where the body produces antibodies to fight infection is known as - Answer: Active or natural immunity Cosmetology State Board Examination Review (California) When the body relies on the injection of antibodies from another source to fight infection - Answer: Passive or acquired immunity Hydrogen Peroxide in different strengths has which of the following actions - Answer: All of the above (2% is used to cleanse the skin / 10 v. is used as a deposit only / 6% and above is used to lift and deposit) Plastic combs and metal shears should not be placed in bleach because bleach is - Answer: Corrosive Disinfection means to - Answer: Kill / eliminate microorganism on a surface A disease which can be spread to others is known as - Answer: Communicable Bacteria may be broadly classified into two groups - Answer: Pathogenic and non- pathogenic The vast majority of bacteria are - Answer: Non-pathogenic Pathogenic bacteria are - Answer: Harmful and disease producing How many bones are found in the hand (fingers / digits and palm / carpus) - Answer: 19