CPO TEST FINAL EXAM 2024, Exams of Nursing

Download CPO TEST FINAL EXAM 2024 and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! CPO TEST FINAL EXAM 2024, PRACTICE EXAM TEST BANK AND STUDY GUIDE | 300 ACCURATE QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED ANSWERS | EXPERT VERIFIED FOR GUARANTEED PASS | GRADED A | LATEST UPDATE A vulnerability assessment will include a thorough examination of the following: A. Facility and personnel B. Contents and material C. Suppliers and contractors D. All of the above D. All of the above Deterrence is the practice of discouraging an individual or group from even attempting to attack the asset. True or False True All risks can be reduced completely. True or False False There is a theory of loss control developed by Bottom and Kostanoski in security and loss control. It is known as: A. WASTE B. WASTMGMT C. WAECUP D. WHATSUP C. WAECUP The most intangible valuation of an asset would be in what is referred to as: A. Liquid asset B. Respectful damage C. Punitive damage D. Reputational damage D. Reputational damage Intangible property include things such as goodwill, proprietary information, and related property. True or False False Intangible Property: Something which a corporation can have ownership of and can transfer ownership to another corporation, but has no physical substance, for example brand identity or knowledge/intellectual property. Which of these is a type of control force used in Ancient Rome? A. Roman chariots B. Praetorian guards C. Varangian guards D. Nubian mercenaries B. Praetorian guards In what year and country did the Peshtigo Fire occur? A. 1655, England B. 1655, America C. 1871, England D. 1871, America D. 1871, America Railroad police were, and still are, a privately employed police force with full law enforcement authority. True or False True Which of these are reasons that are driving radical Islamic fundamentalism? A. Undereducated or miseducated young men who have learned that the United States is "The Great Satan" B. A large number of unemployed or underemployed people living in poverty. C. Charismatic leaders D. All of the above D. All of the above What is the importance of the Taft-Hartley Act? C. Any and all risks in the WAECUP model D. None of the above C. Any and all risks in the WAECUP model There are five types of critical resources to be protected; which of the following is not one of those? A. Time B. Information C. People D. Reputation A. Time The value added by a protection officer's performance is measured in the level of improvement that his work brings into the organization's protective process and objectives. Examples of this can include: A. Vigilance of better practices and recommends state of the art standards B. Always reporting adequately and keeping adequate records C. Improving policies, procedures, job-specific instructions D. All of the above D. All of the above All actions taken before active protective measures are performed can be included in the preventative functions. Which of the following is not one of those actions? A. Preventative investigations B. Identification of hazards and risk factors C. Induction training D. Separate physically or in time the aggressor from the objective D. Separate physically or in time the aggressor from the objective One of the steps taken during response functions performed by protection officers is recovery. Which of the following is an example of it? A. Preventative investigations B. Identification of hazards and risk factors C. Video footage from a bank robbery is given to local police D. All the above D. All the above Leaders and supervisors are not one and the same. Our expectation is that every supervisor is a leader but not every leader is necessarily a supervisor. True or False True The key for a supervisor to get anyone to do anything is to: A. Threaten them to do it B. Get them to want to do it C. Bribe them to do it D. None of the above B. Get them to want to do it Leadership is not about self-interest; it is about being other-person-centered. Thus, before embarking on a mission to become a leader, one should conduct a self-examination in all the following ways, except to: A. Assure that no one in the group will be able to pass you up and become your boss B. Make ethics more important than your career C. Have a deep desire to help others to solve both work-related and personal problems D. Find the potential in subordinates and push those subordinates to self-actualize A. Assure that no one in the group will be able to pass you up and become your boss An effective team member will display the following attributes: A. Continuously identify ways to improve human performance B. Advise upline management when problems exist in work performance C. Be motivated to improve operations and always strive for excellence D. All of the above D. All of the above Traits that can characterize a leader in any organization include all the following, except: A. Advocate teamwork in the ranks B. Encourage open communications C. Support complacency in the ranks D. None of the above C. Support complacency in the ranks There are numerous critical leadership skills. A leader will display all of the following skill sets, except: A. High ethical beliefs and attitudes B. A high ability to communicate well while understanding and relating to all people C. Learning how the mission of the organization compares to the leader's career goals D. Being aware of the organization's mission and being focused on accomplishing that mission C. Learning how the mission of the organization compares to the leader's career goals There are four communication skills needed for every leader. Which of the following is not one of them? A. Never missing a chance to shut up (listening) B. Top down as a priority communications direction C. Complete and concise face-to-face communications D. Reader-friendly written material, sending complete, clear, easily understood communications B. Top down as a priority communications direction The optimal way to communicate is written. True or False False Some experts say we conduct a vast amount of our communications nonverbally. No matter how we or others communicate nonverbally, we must always strive for clarification if we want to achieve understanding. Which of the following is true about nonverbal communications? A. The content is more difficult to read than verbal and written communications. B. The message being sent is usually just as important as other forms of communication C. Asking for clarification will keep the misunderstanding to a minimum D. All of the above D. All of the above Leaders are often called upon to institute change in a department. Change is hard to accept by many subordinates because of insecurities or lack of trust. Resistance can be overcome by all of the following suggestions, except: A. When possible, discuss why the change is required B. Inform the employees that if they cannot accept the change you will help them find work elsewhere C. Be honest and consistent D. Answer questions, or take the information and follow-up if you don't know the answer B. Inform the employees that if they cannot accept the change you will help them find work elsewhere Which of the following best describes the importance of career planning? A. Meet with parents and friends to determine which career is best C. A message that is sent to a person with hope that it will be understood by all D. All of the above A. A faithful reproduction of a message sent to a receiver clearly understood and confirmed by the receiver Tort law expects every business to actively pursue the following: A. Employee background checks B. Due diligence regarding safety and security C. Adequate training of all employees D. Employee benefits B. Due diligence regarding safety and security There are four channels of communications in most companies; which of the following is not a channel? A. Top-down communications B. Bottom-up communications C. Grapevine communications D. Reverse-horizontal communications D. Reverse-horizontal communications There are six essentials of effective communications; which of the following is not one of those essentials? A. The communications must be complete B. The communications must be clear C. The communications must be consistent D. The communications must be concise C. The communications must be consistent Effective communications has built-in flexibility to facilitate the needs of the receiver or receiver groups. Which of the following characteristics is important to take into consideration? A. Communications grade level remembering the seventh-grade midpoint rule. B. English as a Second Language (ESL), people with poor understanding of English C. Medical condition such as speech impediment, hearing loss, or poor sight D. All of the above D. All of the above A very important part of effective communications is that the communicator must be able to tell which of the following? Choose the best answer. A. That the communications were necessary B. That the communications were timely C. That the message was received D. That the message has been received and understood D. That the message has been received and understood The only misconception that causes more errors than any other in effective communications is: A. Every message must be brief B. Every message requires some interpretation C. Every message must be clear and concise D. None of the above A. Every message must be brief The telephone equipment in a security program must be which of the following? Choose the best answer. A. It must be technologically rugged and capable of working under severe conditions B. It must be simple to use with the least probability of failing during an emergency C. It must be available on a 24/7 basis D. None of the above B. It must be simple to use with the least probability of failing during an emergency In the security office, separate and apart from the general use telephone, there will be a red phone used exclusively for emergencies. That phone will have the following attachments to make it more effective. Which of the following is not one of those attachments? A. Ringer B. Strobe C. Tape recording device D. Beeping sound every 3 seconds C. Tape recording device During some emergency situations, the phone system will be destroyed, especially when there is a building collapse. What can we do to protect that phone line? A. Use a separate single-cable phone line not part of the building's main phone system B. Place the telephone cable inside of a metal conduit C. Have the cable enter/exit the building at the lowest level of the building D. All of the above D. All of the above Security awareness is simply letting everyone know in the organization how security impacts them and how important they are, as stakeholders and team members, to the continued success of the company. True or False True To be effective, the security department should instill "security awareness" among all levels of the organization and external partners. True or False True Security awareness meetings should be held with all departments at a minimum frequency of: A. Annually B. Quarterly C. Weekly D. Daily B. Quarterly Security awareness should be instilled among half of the members, from all layers of the organization and external partners. True or False True In double loop communication, information should not only flow from the top of the organization but also a process should be in place for information to travel back to the top. True or False True The "lessons learned" examples help employees and partners understand why security awareness is important to them personally and for the success of the organization. True or False True Which is a method to increase security awareness among all layers of the organization and external partners? A. Eyeglasses C. Cellular Transmission D. None of the above D. None of the above A smoke detector is a device to manually initiate a fire alarm. True or False True Gas, temperature and power failure are examples of which of the following sensors? A. Access control B. Building automation C. Closed circuit television D. Fire alarm B. Building automation Automated visitor management systems should only be used in large, complex organizations with multiple facilities. True or False False One use for crime mapping is to help determine where to locate new facilities. True or False True Studies indicate that security technologies will soon make security officers obsolete. True or False False Incident Management Systems today are really nothing more than word processing systems that allow an officer to enter reports electronically. True or False False Two dangers mentioned in this chapter that protection professionals should be aware of in using online resources are (Choose two): A. The possibility of going off on a tangent rather than focusing on the objective. B. The possibility of introducing a virus to the system C. Accidentally disseminating sensitive information to unauthorized recipients. D. Assuming that information in online databases is credible. C. Accidentally disseminating sensitive information to unauthorized recipients. D. Assuming that information in online databases is credible. Among the advantages of automated visitor management systems are (choose all that apply): A. Ability to reduce costs by integrating with access control systems B. Ability to keep a searchable record of visitors C. Ability to better account for all building occupants during an evacuation D. Ability to support subsequent investigations in the event of an incident. A. Ability to reduce costs by integrating with access control systems B. Ability to keep a searchable record of visitors C. Ability to better account for all building occupants during an evacuation D. Ability to support subsequent investigations in the event of an incident. A study by Bolyard and Powell concluded that "security officers lacking this knowledge would be placed at a great disadvantage..." What "knowledge" were they referring to? A. An understanding of basic electronic security systems and design parameters B. A thorough understanding of contemporary information technology )IT) security threats and risks C. An orientation on automated tools such as incident and visitor managements systems as well as crime mapping and analysis D. An orientation on the historical basis for automation in protection operations as it applies to the security industry in the United States C. An orientation on automated tools such as incident and visitor managements systems as well as crime mapping and analysis Geographic Information Systems (GIS) are closely related to: A. Integrated security systems B. Crime mapping systems C. Automated incident management systems D. Graphical user interface systems B. Crime mapping systems A number of studies in recent years have projected massive expansion of electronic security systems employing advanced technologies, but they also concluded that the human element (i.e., security officers) will not be predominantly replaced by technology. True or False True Technology and automation is not bringing the benefits, efficiencies, and opportunities to the field of security and asset protection that was anticipated. True or False False Uniformed and paid police did not come around until which of the following: A. The early 1900s just before World War I B. The 1830s when Philadelphia started paying police C. The late 1700s about the start of the Revolutionary War D. 725 A.D. B. The 1830s when Philadelphia started paying police The patrol function is the least important but necessary part of the loss control approach. True or False False Based on organizational needs, there are many major purposes of patrol. Which of the following is not one of those purposes? A. To detect unauthorized activity B. To prevent unauthorized activity C. To perform an activity that creates the appearance of authority D. To provide emergency response in a timely fashion C. To perform an activity that creates the appearance of authority There are basically two types of patrol. Which of the following are those two types? A. Mobile and foot patrol B. CCTV Surveillance and foot patrol C. Canine patrol and checking ID's at the main entrance D. None of the above A. Mobile and foot patrol Preparation for a patrol tour of duty requires more than just putting on the uniform and going to work. It also requires mental and psychological preparation. True or False True Proper protection against the elements is an important factor in maintaining effective traffic control. True or False True The primary use of the traffic whistle is to attract the police. True or False False General rules for traffic direction are: A. Select a position best suited for the intersection B. Use uniform signals and gestures C. Be cheerful, but firm D. All the above D. All the above When on traffic control, proper equipment includes: A. Proper clothing B. Flashlight C. Radio D. All the above D. All the above In controlling a hostile crowd, sufficient ______________ is/are basic to your success. A. Force B. Manpower C. Time D. Weapons A. Force The protection officer should attempt to isolate and individual troublemaker by: A. Taking them down B. Tranquilizing them C. Removing them D. Arresting them C. Removing them If you observe a hostile crowd gathering, never hesitate to request additional: A. Weapons B. Assistance C. Rioters D. Vehicles B. Assistance A demonstration is a crowd that is exhibiting sympathy for or against authority, or some political, economical, or social condition. True or False True A riot means any extreme or catastrophic condition that imperils or results in loss of life and/or property. True or False True The basic reason for the information of any crowd is the occurrence of an event that is of common interest to each individual. True or False True A leaderless crowd that is attempting to flee from something it fears is a/an: A. Spectator crowd B. Emotional crowd C. Hostile crowd D. Escape crowd D. Escape crowd Some psychological factors in crowd formation are: A. Security B. Novelty C. Loss of identity D. None of the above E. All the above E. All the above The protection officer dealing with crowds should: A. Exchange pleasantries with the crowd B. Give the impression he/she will enforce orders C. Apologize for his/her actions D. All of the above E. None of the above B. Give the impression he/she will enforce orders Some riot control, force deployment procedures are: A. Arrowhead, left and right flanking line B. Right flanking, bullet, left flanking C. Line, bow, arrowhead D. Arrowhead, bullet, left flanking A. Arrowhead, left and right flanking line Environmental crime control theory focuses upon the _____________ of the criminal act: A. Time B. Location C. Perpetuator D. Victim B. Location Basically the offender uses a decision making process whereby the positive and negative aspects of committing a particular act is weighed. This is an example of: A. CPTED (Crime Prevention Through Environmental Design) B. Routine activity theory C. Rational choice theory D. Defensible space C. Rational choice theory The application of situational crime prevention techniques are the results of this theory. A. Rational choice theory B. Routine activity theory C. Crime pattern theory D. Defensible space C. Crime pattern theory C. Lighting D. All the above D. All the above the security industry has a rich and varied background. Security implies all of the following except: guaranteed high-paying jobs for security officers Protective efforts are often spawned by which of the following? the need for mutual protection after serious problems have occured The first major undercover investigation was used in which of the following cases? Molly Maguires Underground organization Air transport is vulnerable to all the following security issues except: Increased fuel prices Prevention functions for the security officer includes all the following except Installing CCTV systems Mitigation functions for the security officer included which of the following? A. Dissuading potential aggressors B. Detecting hazards that are being activated C. Detaining or stopping hazards D. All the above D. All the above Response function for the security officer include all the following except Resuming operations by gaining control of the situation As a professional, the security officer does all the following except: A. Following a code of ethics B. Shares a common history with colleagues C. Possesses a common body of knowledge D. All the above D. All the above A leader must have which of the following traits? Be willing to develop potential in others If someone really wants to be a leader, they need all the following characteristics except: they enjoy the feeling of power over others There are four basic communicationr9 skills needed to be a good leader. which of the following is not one of those basic communication skills? Top-Down Communications only Which of the following is a characteristic of a manager who is not an effective leader? Apply the principle of autocratic management using the threat of punishment for an incentive to accomplish his or her goals Training is an important part of job development. It is designed to enable one to perform a specific task. Which of the following represents a benefit of training? A. Training increases the effectiveness of employees B. Training reduces fear and frustrations on the job C. Generally training reduces employees turnover D. All the above D. All the above Education is the cornerstone of career development. Which of the following is true about the effects of education on career development? Education enables a broader view of the industry and the various disciplines within that industry There are numerous formats for resumes. Which of the following is not one of those formats? Perpetual Networking provides many benefits beyond finding the next job. Which of the following is one of those benefits? Networking enables to stay up to date on industry news and trends which is a big help in finding job leads and ultimately finding work Which of the following is a code normally used by the receiver of messages, indicating they did receive and under that message sent? Ten-Four Which of the following misconceptions of report writing causes the most errors? Witting too brief Effective communications are the faithful reproduction of all of the following except: Brevity The term faithful reproduction means which of the following? The message was both recieved and understood The process that shows how security awareness fits into the organization's culture is which of the following? Lessons-learned techniques Argus and Schon, in 1978, developed a theory known as the "double loop learning" model. With this double loop communications in an organization, all employees can experience which of the following? Becoming stakeholders who have a vested interest in the success of the security awareness effort Double loop communications includes which of the following? Feedback from employees To develop security awareness in a security officer department, which of the following is not necessary, having little to do with security awareness? each new employee should be given a payroll and benefits orientation Fire alarm early warning devices include which of the following? Wall mounted fire alarm pull stations Alarm systems incorporate a wide variety of sensors at various points throughout a protected facility. the basic purpose of a sensor is to do which of the following? Detect a physical change in the environment, interpret what event might be taking place and transmit that information back to a central processor in the dispatch officer Intrusion sensors are set up to alert that dispatcher an unauthorized person has breached security and accessed a protected area. All of the following intrusion sensors are commonly used in alarm systems except Auto-electromechanical RF sensors There are many reasons to go keyless and use card access for the numerous doors in a large manufacturing site. Which of the following is one of those reasons? A card access system can best control access to sensitive areas by identifying who enters each of these areas of the facility Automated tools for visitor management have several advantages. Which of the following is one of those advantages? A. the ability to keep a searchable record of visitors B. The ability to generate reports based on individuals, companies, and date ranges Demonstration Which of the following describes a crowd that is casual or temporary assemblage of people having no leader or cohesive behavior? Spectators at the scene of a serious accident Why should security officers know the reasons for applying particular security applications as well as the theory behind them? A. Educated practitioners may be more successful because they understand what motivates criminals B. Education allows the practitioner to make better analytical and informed crime control decisions based on learning by OPE C. The educated practitioner can be roe cost-effective in security applications D. All the above All the above The Rational Choice Theory holds that People will only commit a crime if the opportunity presents itself Physical mechanisms for achieving defensible space include which of the following? A. Mechanisms that enhance the safety of adjourning areas such as communal B. Mechanisms that define spheres of influence where occupants can easily adopt proprietary attitudes C. Mechanisms that improve the natural capability of residents to survey both the interior and exterior of the space D. All the above All the above CPED stands for... Crime Prevention Through Environmental Design Physical security systems controls consist of components that transform individual sensors/detectors into a network of intelligence-gathering devices. System controls include all the following except: External lighting and fencing perimeter controls Every intrusion detection system is meant to detect which of the following? Unauthorized entry, Unauthorized movement within the protected area and Unauthorized access controlled areas or objects To be useful a card access system should have which of the following minimum capabilities? The system must be able to restrict access by authorized persons to certain times and/or days of the week, Allow controlled after-hours access to selected areas, control after-hours access to parking garages Which of the following is a first line of defense? A barrier at the perimeter of the property like a fence there are four methods of monitoring an alarm system, they include all the following except: A. Local Monitoring B. Centrel Station Monitoring C. Propreitry monitororing D. None of the above None of the above A glass-break sensor is s sensor with which of the following charateristics? Operates on ultrasonic audio frequencies designed to reduce alarms Which of the following devices help assist the operator? A. Audible alarm devices B. Alarm printers C. Visual Displays D. All the above All teh above Which of the following is not a cause for false alarm? An attempted intrusion where the intruder leaves before the police get there To provide suitable security for some properties, it will be necessary to install additional hardware. which of the following is one of those hardware additions? A. Fences B.Signage C. Checkpoints D. All the above All the above Modern electronic access systems have many features to enhance the level of access control to a facility, area, or room. these include the following except: Piggy-back capability Access control becomes a critical function for the security officer during emergencies. Which of the following are locations in a facility where the officer may be required to provide control or access during a fire or medical emergency A. Loading docks B. Elevators or other conveyances C. Parking lot entrances D. All the above All the above Which of the following is not an access control biometric sensor? DNA analysis Devices used for detection metal vary by applications and composition sensitivity. That makes it necessary at times to use which of the following? A handheld metal detector swee of specific areas of the body Which of the following is not a way canines can be of great assistance to the security officer? Deing able to detect the gender of other canines Which of the following is not a metal detection techology? HornTechnic Field Strength Detectors Barcode sensors and detectors is which of the following? RFID Which of the following is not a common fire hazard to look for on patrol? Inspection of tolity facilites Which of the following is not in one of the four basic groups of fire? Combustible gases like highly explosive CO2 Motivation for the act of setting a fire may be Financial, a psychological disorder, or to cover up criminal activity Which of the following is not one of two common methods for fire detection? Canine patrol and animal observation The protection officer by the very nature of their job duties and familiarity with their environment is in the best position to identify all of the following except: Potential hazards A _____________ is the process to determine the susceptibility of assets to attack from threats identified by the AT Threat assessment. - CORRECT ANSWER Vulnerability assessment (VA) Which assessment combines Criticality, Threat, and Vulnerability assessments in order to provide a more complete picture of the risks to an asset or group of assets? - CORRECT ANSWER Risk assessment A deploying unit having ______ or more personnel assigned or under the operational control of a designated commander should have a Level II certified ATO. - CORRECT ANSWER 300 What is the primary role of the ATO? - CORRECT ANSWER Provide the commander or civilian equivalent with information and recommendations within the parameters of the AT program Installations and separate facility level ATOs should consider holding an Antiterrorism Working Group (ATWG) meeting or similar meeting at least __________ or more frequently, depending upon the level of threat activity, to address the AT plan, and emergent or emergency AT program issues. - CORRECT ANSWER Semi-annually Installations and separate facility level ATOs should consider establishing a Threat working group (TWG) or similar group that meets at least ________ or more frequently, depending upon the level of threat activity, to develop and refine terrorism threat assessments and coordinate and disseminate threat warnings, reports, and summaries. - CORRECT ANSWER Quarterly An ______________ or similarly structured corporate body at the installation and separate facility level should meet at least semi-annually to develop and refine AT program guidance, policy, and standards; to act upon recommendations of the ATWG and TWG or similar forums; and to determine resource allocation priorities to mitigate or eliminate terrorism-related - CORRECT ANSWER AT executive-level committee Who is responsible for incorporating physical security systems into the AT plan? - CORRECT ANSWER The installation commander Who is in charge of the installation RAM (random antiterrorism measure) program? - CORRECT ANSWER Installation ATO Mission assurance steering group will meet how often to provide advocacy, coordination, and oversight to assist in both vertical and horizontal MA alignment efforts on issues that cut across all DoD protection programs, including AT? - CORRECT ANSWER Quarterly Who sets DoD terrorist threat levels and provide terrorist threat intelligence to the DoD Components in support of their AT and PR planning efforts? - CORRECT ANSWER Director, Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA) he DoD MA Assessment Benchmarks that reference ___________ provide the baseline criteria commanders will use to conduct their terrorism-focused RAs. - CORRECT ANSWER DODI 2000.16 AT standards DoD Component heads will establish the means to validate AT risk management reviews within how many days of their - CORRECT ANSWER 90 days Conducting an _________ is the first step in the AT risk management process and supports the development of an AT plan. - CORRECT ANSWER AT risk assessment (AT RA) ______________ is the next step in AT risk management and is a proactive, continuous, and deliberate process of using the AT RA to inform risk decisions. - CORRECT ANSWER Risk evaluation For commands without Tier I or II task critical assets, the Higher Headquarters Mission Assurance Assessment (HHQ MAA) periodicity will be at least once every ___ years. - CORRECT ANSWER Five (5) DoD Component heads will ensure all subordinate commanders conduct terrorism-focused RAs how often? - CORRECT ANSWER Annually DoD Component heads will ensure that the DoD Risk Assessment database of record is populated with all assessment results within how many days of completion of the terrorism vulnerability assessment? - CORRECT ANSWER 120 days Within ___ days of completing a terrorism-based VA, provide the results to the first general or flag officer, or civilian equivalent director in the chain of command or supervision. - CORRECT ANSWER 90 days What is protection and sanctuary granted by the U.S. Government within its territorial jurisdiction or on international waters to a foreign national who applies for such protection because of persecution? - CORRECT ANSWER Asylum . What are the two typical organizational structures used by terrorist groups? - CORRECT ANSWER Hierarchical and networked What organizational structure distributes authority and responsibility throughout an organization, often creating redundant key functions? - CORRECT ANSWER Networked 2. What organizational structure has a well-defined vertical chain of command and responsibility? - CORRECT ANSWER Hierarchical There are _______ basic types of terrorist network structures. - CORRECT ANSWER Three (3) 9. The minimum elements of an AT program are what? - CORRECT ANSWER AT risk management, planning, training and exercises, resource management, and a program review The M240G machine gun is what type of weapon system? - CORRECT ANSWER An air- cooled, belt-fed, gas-operated automatic weapon Max range of the M240G - CORRECT ANSWER 3,725 meters What is 18 U.S.C. 13? - CORRECT ANSWER Assimilative Crimes Act Which division is responsible for formulating the policies, procedures, and measures to safeguard personnel, property, equipment, and facilities within the installation? - CORRECT ANSWER Physical Security division Crime prevention records shall be maintained for a period of ___ years. - CORRECT ANSWER Three (3) What division is responsible for ensuring all personnel performing LE and PS duties have completed minimum training as required in OPNAVINST 5530.14 (series), Navy Physical Security and Law Enforcement Program? - CORRECT ANSWER Training Division What list will installations develop of most likely/dangerous threats from which they extrapolate, from which the PS and AT plan to include resourcing strategy is based? - CORRECT ANSWER Design Basis Threat (DBT) Force must be reasonable in what? - CORRECT ANSWER Intensity, duration, and magnitude What is policy for Non-lethal Weapons? - CORRECT ANSWER DODD 3000.3 The federal government may investigate and prosecute violations of federal laws as well as, under the Assimilative Crimes Act (18 U.S.C. 13), violations of state law that occur on the property. The state has no authority to investigate or prosecute violations of state law that occur onboard the installation. - CORRECT ANSWER Exclusive Jurisdiction The federal and state governments each have the right to prosecute and investigate violations of federal and state law, respectively. - CORRECT ANSWER Concurrent Jurisdiction The federal government has the authority to investigate and prosecute nonterritory-based federal offenses committed on the property, such as assault on a federal officer, but not violations of state laws. - CORRECT ANSWER Proprietary Jurisdiction Article ___ of the UCMJ and MCM Rule ____ are the basis upon which these personnel are empowered to apprehend military offenders. - CORRECT ANSWER 7, 302b Security inspections will be conducted at least once every _____ years. - CORRECT ANSWER Two (2) Landside security inspections will be documented on what form? - CORRECT ANSWER DD Form 2637 Physical Security Evaluation Guide Waterside security inspections will be documented on what form? - CORRECT ANSWER DD Form 2638 Waterside Security Evaluation Guide Sewers, air intakes, exhaust tunnels, and other utility openings that penetrate the perimeter or restricted area barrier and have a cross-section area of ____ inches or greater shall be protected by securely fastened bars, grills, locked manhole covers, or other equivalent means that provide security commensurate with that of the perimeter or restricted area barrier. - CORRECT ANSWER 96 Requirements for standoff distances can be found in instruction? - CORRECT ANSWER UFC 4-010-01, DOD Minimum Antiterrorism Standards for Buildings The Inshore Boat Unit (IBU) is a deployable CR-I asset. Each IBU has ____ C-130 deployable, shallow-draft, high-speed patrol boats for conducting surveillance, interdiction, and point defense (PD) operations. - CORRECT ANSWER Six (6). . Each MSD is equipped with _____ armed, 25-foot (ft) patrol boats, for conducting surveillance and interdiction operations to protect an HVA. - CORRECT ANSWER (3) three. The Port Security Unit (PSU) is a deployable USCG unit equipped with _____ armed, 25-foot, transportable port security boats (TPSBs). - CORRECT ANSWER (6) six. Level ___ threats are composed of individuals who can be defeated with NCW self-defense measures - CORRECT ANSWER One (I) Examples of level one threats: - CORRECT ANSWER Enemy-controlled agents, civilians sympathetic to the enemy, terrorists and civil disturbances Level ___ threats are comprised of small tactical squads that can be defeated with NCW self- defense measures. - CORRECT ANSWER Two (II) Examples of level two threats: - CORRECT ANSWER Guerilla forces, special operations forces and small tactical units Level ___ threats are comprised of large tactical forces (platoon size and above) that can only be defeated with the augmentation of tactical combat forces to NCW self-defense measures. - CORRECT ANSWER 3 . Examples of level three threats: - CORRECT ANSWER Conventional military forces, air/missle attacks and CBRNE weapons . Each NCW unit is required to deploy as a self-sustained unit with ___ days of supply - CORRECT ANSWER 14 (fourteen) This terrorist cell is tasked with formulating the operational plan: - CORRECT ANSWER Planning and Preparation Cell The calculated use of unlawful violence or threat of unlawful violence to inculcate fear; intended to coerce or to intimidate governments or societies in the pursuit of goals that are generally political, religious or ideological is defined as: - CORRECT ANSWER Terrorism Activities must conduct AA&E security surveys every ___ months (___ months for ships) and maintain records for 3 years for review during assistance visits, command inspections and explosive safety inspections. - CORRECT ANSWER 12/6 Is IDS required for Category III and IV storage facilities? - CORRECT ANSWER no What is the primary objective of the Navy Security Program? - CORRECT ANSWER Safeguard personnel, property, facilities and materiel and to enforce laws, rules, and regulations at Navy installations, activities, and operational commands Security inspections on non-AA&E areas. shall be conducted at least once every ___ years. - CORRECT ANSWER Two (2) years This statute makes it a crime for an individual to violate certain regulations or orders promulgated or approved by a military commander designated by the Secretary of Defense? - CORRECT ANSWER Section 797 of title 50, United States Code (U.S.C.) section 21 of the Internal Security Act of 1950 Prior to a ship's arrival in a non-U.S. Navy controlled port, the ship's CO will develop an _____________ using the most recent Port Integrated Vulnerability Assessments (PIVAS) and threat assessments. - CORRECT ANSWER Inport Security Plan (ISP What is the highest priority waterfront asset? - CORRECT ANSWER SSBNs Harbors with home-ported priority A, B, or C assets present shall have a minimum of _____ boats in the water and available how often? - CORRECT ANSWER 2/ 24/7 What program provides a management tool for commanders and COs as well as those in the chain of command to review and monitor corrective actions for standards that cannot readily be achieved? - CORRECT ANSWER Waiver and Exception Program Waivers must not exceed what amount of time? - CORRECT ANSWER 1 (one) year Exceptions can be permanent or approved for up to ____ months. - CORRECT ANSWER 36 months What gives NSF the authority to apprehend individuals? - CORRECT ANSWER MCM, Rule 302b Post validations will be conducted every ____ years. - CORRECT ANSWER 5 years Patrol and watch section supervisors will be validated based on section size (minimum ____ per section) and/or complexity of operations (ROC 1/2 installations). - CORRECT ANSWER 15 What detection rate is required for all DRUG DETECTOR TEAMS? - CORRECT ANSWER 90 percent of each of the required substances What detection rate is required for all EXPLOSIVE DETECTOR TEAMS? - CORRECT ANSWER 95 percent of the required substances What is the required marking for an MWD vehicle? - CORRECT ANSWER 12. What is the form number for the DETECTOR DOG TRAINING AND UTILIZATION RECORD? - CORRECT ANSWER OPNAV Form 5585/3 What is the form number for the MWD UTILIZATION RECORD SUPPLEMENTAL? - CORRECT ANSWER 5585/2 What is the form number for the CANINE VALIDITY TEST DATA EVALUATION SHEET? - CORRECT ANSWER OPNAV Form 5585/6 What form is used as the MWD SERVICE RECORD? - CORRECT ANSWER DD Form 1834 . What form is used to record daily and monthly performance in both training and actual use for each of the MWD's required patrol tasks and is maintained by the respective MWD handler? - CORRECT ANSWER 5585/1, MWD Training and Utilization Record What form provides a method of documenting detector dog performance during training and actual search situations? - CORRECT ANSWER 5585/3, Detector Dog Training and Utilization Record What form provides a method to record each positive response and document the results of field and lab tests for all substances confiscated as a result of the MWD's response? - CORRECT ANSWER 5585/2, Military Working Dog Utilization Record (Supplemental) How often must a commanding officer (or named official) review each folder containing the PROBABLE CAUSE HISTORY for each PAT/DRUG or DDD team? - CORRECT ANSWER Once a year, immediately following certification or re-certification of the detector dog team A detector dog's false response rate must not be higher than what? - CORRECT ANSWER 4 percent When should PAT/DRUG or DDD team demonstrations be performed for the base commanding officer? - CORRECT ANSWER Upon receipt of the team; upon change of base commander (authorizing authority); upon change of a handler; and upon change of dog(s) Where should the MWD be positioned while escorting fund custodians to and from the vehicle in order to observe hostile acts? - CORRECT ANSWER Slightly to the rear How should the MWD be positioned after an apprehension while a search of the suspect is being completed? - CORRECT ANSWER In the guard position What is Locard's principle of exchange - CORRECT ANSWER Physical evidence is exchanged anytime two objects or persons make contact with each other Admissibility of evidence in court is generally dependent on what thing? - CORRECT ANSWER Whether the evidence is relevant, whether it was obtained legally, and whether positive control (chain of custody) over the evidence has been maintained to ensure that the evidence has been protected and unaltered Which part of the Manual for Courts Martial (MCM) are Military rules of evidence (MRE) contained? - CORRECT ANSWER Part III The exclusionary rule, often referred to as fruit of the poisonous tree applies to what? - CORRECT ANSWER Evidence obtained as a result of an unlawful search or seizure which violated the Fourth Amendment rights of the accused What is a search? - CORRECT ANSWER An examination, authorized by law, of a specific person, property, or area for specified evidence or property or of a specific person for the purpose of seizing such property, evidence, or person During a lawful apprehension in which a vehicle is involved, what area of the vehicle is NOT considered an immediate control area? - CORRECT ANSWER Trunk or the engine compartment Is probable cause required for an exigent circumstance? - CORRECT ANSWER Yes What is an exigent circumstance? - CORRECT ANSWER One where there is a compelling reason to search immediately rather than wait for authorization When do exigent circumstances apply? - CORRECT ANSWER When there is a reasonable belief that the delay in obtaining a search warrant or search authorization would result in removal, destruction, or concealment of evidence President-designated non-DOD or DOD property, the actual theft or sabotage of which the president determines would seriously jeopardize the fulfillment of a national defense mission and would create an imminent threat of death or serious bodily harm. - CORRECT ANSWER Assets vital to national security Property considered inherently dangerous if in the hands of an unauthorized individual. - CORRECT ANSWER Inherently dangerous property President-designated public utilities or similar critical infrastructure vital to public health or safety. - CORRECT ANSWER National critical infrastructure Who serves as the principal military advisor to the Secretary of Defense for all DoD AT issues? - CORRECT ANSWER Chairman, Joint chiefs of staff (CJCS) Intelligence that is required for the formulation of strategy, policy, and military plans and operations at the national and theater levels. - CORRECT ANSWER Strategic intelligence . Intelligence required for planning and conducting campaigns and major operations to accomplish strategic objectives within theaters or AOs - CORRECT ANSWER Operational intelligence Intelligence that is required for planning and conducting tactical operations. - CORRECT ANSWER Tactical intelligence . The ___________ assesses the terrorist threat to DoD personnel, facilities, and interests. - CORRECT ANSWER DOD Terrorist threat level (TTL) system Anti-U.S. terrorists are operationally active and use large casualty producing attacks as their preferred method of operation. There is a substantial DoD presence and the Operating Environment favors the terrorist. - CORRECT ANSWER Terrorist threat level High Anti-U.S. terrorists are present and attack personnel as their preferred method of operation or a group uses large casualty producing attacks as their preferred method but has limited operational activity. The Operating Environment is neutral. - CORRECT ANSWER Terrorist threat level Significant What is the primary role of the ATO? - CORRECT ANSWER Provide the commander or civilian equivalent with information and recommendations within the parameters of the AT program . Installations and separate facility level ATOs should consider holding an Antiterrorism Working Group (ATWG) meeting or similar meeting at least __________ or more frequently, depending upon the level of threat activity, to address the AT plan, and emergent or emergency AT program issues. - CORRECT ANSWER Semi-annually An ______________ or similarly structured corporate body at the installation and separate facility level should meet at least semi-annually to develop and refine AT program guidance, policy, and standards; to act upon recommendations of the ATWG and TWG or similar forums; and to determine resource allocation priorities to mitigate or eliminate terrorism-related - CORRECT ANSWER AT executive-level committee The DoD MA Assessment Benchmarks that reference ___________ provide the baseline criteria commanders will use to conduct their terrorism-focused RAs. - CORRECT ANSWER DODI 2000.16 AT standards DoD Component heads will establish the means to validate AT risk management reviews within how many days of their completion? - CORRECT ANSWER The ASIS International General Security Risk Assessment Guideline defines an asset as "Any real or personal property, tangible or intangible, that a company or individual owns, that can be given or assigned a monetary value. True or False True CPTED stands for Crime Prevention through Environmental Dedication. True or False False CPTED: Crime Prevention through Environmental Design