CPSS OPHTHALMOLOGY EXAM 2024/2025 WITH 100% ACCURATE SOLUTIONS, Exams of Nursing

Download CPSS OPHTHALMOLOGY EXAM 2024/2025 WITH 100% ACCURATE SOLUTIONS and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!

CPSS OPHTHALMOLOGY EXAM 2024/2025 WITH

100% ACCURATE SOLUTIONS

HIPAA stands for a. Health Information Portability and Accountability Act b. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act c. Health Insurance Protection and Activity Act d. Home Information Protection and Accountability Act. - Precise Answer ✔✔b. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act One primary change included in the HIPAA Omnibus Final Rule of 2013 requires a business associate of the covered entity (physician practice) to sign a Business Associate Agreement with: a. Subcontractors of professional associations b. Subcontractors of business associates c. Subcontractors of optometrists d. Subcontractors of affiliated hospitals - Precise Answer ✔✔b. Subcontractors of business associates T/F. According to the regulations contained in the Omnibus Final Rule of 2013, a patient has the right to receive a copy of his or her medical record in an electronic format if the associated provider utilizes electronic health records. - Precise Answer ✔✔True

Covered entities under HIPAA include: a. Lawyers b. Health care providers c. Health care facilities d. Librarians e. a and d. f. b and c. - Precise Answer ✔✔b and c. Health care providers and Health care facilities Protected Health Information (PHI) includes: a. Demographic information on individuals b. Insurance eligibility and coverage information c. Billing records, claims data, referral authorizations d. Medical records, diagnosis, genetic information, and testing e. c and d f. All of the above. - Precise Answer ✔✔f. All of the above. T/F. Entities covered under HIPAA are required to develop a Notice of Privacy Practices (NPP) and must make these available to individuals accessing services through the entity. - Precise Answer ✔✔True Which of the following disclosures require signed permission from the individual whose PHI is being requested? a. Referrals to physicians

b. Consultations between physicians treating individuals c. Information requested by an attorney without a subpoena d. Information requested by insurance companies for payment purposes.

• Precise Answer ✔✔c. Information requested by an attorney without a subpoena T/F. Patient names on a sign-in form are considered an intentional breach of PHI. - Precise Answer ✔✔False; incidental breach T/F. Under the HITECH Act, the Breach Notification Act does NOT require notification to HHS of the intentional or unintentional disclosure of PHI to unapproved entities on an annual basis unless the breach has affected more than 500 individuals. - Precise Answer ✔✔False Notice of Privacy Practices (NPP) must be updated in 2013 to include which of the following? a. Names of the owners of the covered entity b. Names of companies that have access to PHI c. Patient's right to restrict disclosures of PHI to a health plan when the patient pays out of pocket and in full for the health care item or service. d. Profitability of the covered entity. - Precise Answer ✔✔c. Patient's right to restrict disclosures of PHI to a health plan when the patient pays out of pocket and in full for the health care item or service. If an individual or staff member has a complaint regarding the use of PHI, the individual must speak with the facility's:

a. Manager b. Owner c. Maintenance coordinator d. Privacy Officer e. Chief Physician - Precise Answer ✔✔d. Privacy officer. Which of the following is NOT an administrative safeguard requirement? a. Designating a privacy officer b. Developing a cost analysis of HIPAA requirements. c. Obtaining HIPAA-compliant business associate agreements for subcontractors d. Establishing procedures to prevent terminated employees from obtaining access to confidential information after termination - Precise Answer ✔✔b. Developing a cost analysis of HIPAA requirements. Physical safeguards do NOT include which of the following? a. Posting PHI on a white board in the facility b. Storage of PHI in a secure place c. Shredding of PHI d. Use of surge-protectors - Precise Answer ✔✔a. Posting PHI on a white board in the facility Technical safeguards include which of the following? a. Encryption of data

b. Computer system log-ins and passwords c. Anti-virus software and firewalls d. Information technology (IT) certification review e. All of the above - Precise Answer ✔✔e. All of the above "Safe" computing includes which of the following? a. Sharing passwords with other staff members b. Remaining "logged on" always, to save time c. Using email and the internet ONLY as allowed by practice protocols d. Installing personal software on the computer - Precise Answer ✔✔c. Using email and the internet ONLY as allowed by practice protocols T/F. Most elective care focused practices answer the telephone within one or two rings. - Precise Answer ✔✔True T/F. It is not necessary to give your name if you have already said the practice name in the greeting. - Precise Answer ✔✔False When a caller inquires about a procedure the receptionist should: a. Just confirm that they offer the procedure by saying, "Yes we do." b. Try to engage callers by asking if they have had any similar procedure before. c. Put callers on hold until they have time to talk.

d. Tell the caller to call back later when we aren't so busy. - Precise Answer ✔✔b. Try to engage callers by asking if they have had any similar procedure before. What percentage of consultants would book appointments with practice they mystery shopped? a. 10% b. 28% c. 57% d. 91% - Precise Answer ✔✔c. 57% T/F. When a caller asks a practice whether it performs a particular procedure, and the receptionist simply says, "Yes, we do," the next question will likely be, "How much is it?" - Precise Answer ✔✔True In the research study discussed, what percentage of the time did the practices actually send the information they promised to patients? a. 90% b. 50% c. 30% d. 10% - Precise Answer ✔✔c. 30% It is important to establish a dialogue with prospective patients because: a. It allows the practice to create rapport with the patient

b. It helps the receptionist credential the providers and practice with the patient. c. It leads to a higher inquiry-to-appointment rate. d. ALl of the above - Precise Answer ✔✔d. All of the above If a prospective patient isn't ready to schedule an appointment, it is important to: a. Let prospective patients know they can call back to schedule an appointment at a later date. b. Ask the prospective patient for contact information and offer to send information by asking for preference of home address or e-mail address. c. Inform the caller about upcoming events or seminars. d. Both b and c. - Precise Answer ✔✔d. Both b and c. Ask the prospective patient for contact information and offer to send information by asking for preference of home address or e-mail address. Inform the caller about upcoming events or seminars. Creating a "touch point" with a prospective caller means: a. Having contact information so that a business can send additional information. b. Being able to see the prospective caller at meetings. c. Knowing the caller's family d. Asking callers how they were referred. - Precise Answer ✔✔a. Having contact information so that a business can send additional information

It is important to do which of the following in order to increase the inquiry-to-appointment ratio: a. Ask the caller's name and use in conversation b. Ask how the caller was referred to the practice. c. Answer a question with a question d. Ask if all the caller's questions have been answered e. Attempt to schedule an appointment by offering two different options f. A and d. g. All of the above. - Precise Answer ✔✔g. All of the above. T/F. Light enters the interior of the eye through the pupil. - Precise Answer ✔✔True Which tissue regulates the amount of light entering the eye? a. Retina b. Iris c. Choroid d. Cornea - Precise Answer ✔✔b. Iris What is the transparent, curved tissue at the front of the eye? a. Pupil b. Cornea c. Lens

d. Iris - Precise Answer ✔✔b. Cornea The sclera is also referred to as which of the following? a. The blind spot b. The colored part of the eye c. The white of the eye d. Tear film - Precise Answer ✔✔c. The white of the eye T/F. The ciliary processes secrete fluid in the eye, which is called aqueous humor. - Precise Answer ✔✔True Which of the following are the three layers of the tear film? a. Mucin b. Watery c. Hyaloid d. Oily e. Choroid - Precise Answer ✔✔a, b, and d. Mucin, watery, oily With age, the lens becomes thick, hard, and non-transparent, causing impaired sight. What is this condition called? a. Cataract b. Corneal Opacity c. Glaucoma

d. Hyperopia - Precise Answer ✔✔a. Cataract Which tissue is located at the back of the eye and converts light to electric impulses, which are carried to the brain? a. Cornea b. Posterior Chamber c. Retina d. Lens - Precise Answer ✔✔c. Retina Impaired drainage of the aqueous humor leads to a rise in intraocular pressure which can damage the retinal nerves. What is this condition called? a. Cataract b. Presbyopia c. Corneal Opacity d. Glaucoma - Precise Answer ✔✔d. Glaucoma T/F. An area of the retina known as the macula provides the clearest and most detailed vision. - Precise Answer ✔✔True Which part of the patient examination tests for gross measurement of peripheral vision, range of motion and function of eye muscles, and evaluates the size, shape, and reaction of the pupils? a. History b. Visual Acuity

c. External Exam d. Slit Lamp Examination e. Fundus Examination - Precise Answer ✔✔c. External Exam A numerical value associated with the smallest objects a patient can see on a specific chart at a specific distance is called: a. History b. Visual Acuity c. External Exam d. Slit Lamp Examination e. Fundus Examination - Precise Answer ✔✔b. Visual Acuity The lids and eyelashes, the conjunctiva, the cornea, iris, lens, and vitreous are evaluated during which portion of the eye exam? a. History b. Visual Acuity c. External Exam d. Slit Lamp Examination e. Fundus Examination - Precise Answer ✔✔d. Slit Lamp Examination A patient will be asked for their chief complaint and symptoms of their current problem during which portion of the eye exam? a. History b. Visual Acuity

c. External Exam d. Slit Lamp Examination e. Fundus Examination - Precise Answer ✔✔a. History The examination in the back of the eye is called the: a. History b. Visual Acuity c. External Exam d. Slit Lamp Examination e. Fundus Examination - Precise Answer ✔✔e. Fundus Examination The portion of the examination that determines the best lens correction for the patient, and may result in a prescription for glasses is called: a. Lensometry b. Refraction c. Tonometry d. Dilation - Precise Answer ✔✔b. Refraction In order for the physician to see clearly the details of the back of the eye (retina), patients are given drops that make the pupil larger. This process is called: a. Lensometry b. Refraction c. Tonometry

d. Dilation - Precise Answer ✔✔d. Dilation The measurement documenting the patient's current spectacle prescription is called: a. Lensometry b. Refraction c. Tonometry d. Dilation - Precise Answer ✔✔a. Lensometry The measurement of intraocular pressure is called: a. Lensometry b. Refraction c. Tonometry d. Dilation - Precise Answer ✔✔c. Tonometry Which of the following describes OSHA's (Occupational Safety and Health Administration's) primary goal? a. Provides unpaid leave for employees for specific health-related conditions b. Gives terminated employees and their beneficiary's health care benefits for a designated period of time. c. Protects employees in the work place d. A and b. - Precise Answer ✔✔c. Protects employees in the workplace

HIPAA is the acronym for which of the following? a. Health Insurance Privacy and Accessibility b. Home Insurance Protection Affordability Act. c. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act d. None of the above. - Precise Answer ✔✔c. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act T/F. The Privacy Rule is the first national regulation on medical privacy and health information management. - Precise Answer ✔✔True Which of the following best describes Worker's Compensation Insurance? a. Insurance coverage that is provided at no charge to employees for injury or illness sustained in the course of employment b. Payment made to the employee by the employers for health insurance benefits. c. Employer insurance coverage to protect against the inability to pay employee wages d. None of the above. - Precise Answer ✔✔a. Insurance coverage that is provided at no charge to employees for injury or illness sustained in the course of employment T/F. An exempt employee is defined as someone who is most commonly paid an hourly wage. - Precise Answer ✔✔False

T/F. A non-exempt employee is eligible for overtime pay for hours worked in excess of 40 hours per week - Precise Answer ✔✔True Which of the following best describes the function of the Administration Department in the ophthalmology office? a. Administers all patient care functions b. Coordinates all business functions of the practice, as well as staff oversight and management. c. Provides all patient check-in and appointment scheduling functions. d. a and c - Precise Answer ✔✔b. Coordinates all business functions of the practice, as well as staff oversight and management. T/F. The Back Office is responsible for work functions the patient normally does not see, such as janitorial services, mail delivery, chart preparations, etc. - Precise Answer ✔✔False Which of the following functions are performed in the Business Office? a. Patient billing b. Appointment scheduling c. Patient check-out d. Data entry e. a, c, and d. - Precise Answer ✔✔e. a, c, and d. Patient billing, Patient check-out, and data entry

T/F. Front Office staff are responsible for answering phones, greeting patients when they arrive, and obtaining their contact and insurance information. - Precise Answer ✔✔True In most cases, the patient's initial encounter with the practice is: a. upon arrival at the office b. by telephone c. at the hospital d. in the treatment room - Precise Answer ✔✔b. by telephone Which of the following telephone techniques will help create a positive image for the practice? a. Implement a 2 ring rule. Always make sure the phone is answered before the 3rd ring. b. acknowledge the caller by name c. minimize customer hold time and frequently return to reassure the caller they have not been forgotten. d. use automated answering system. e. all of the above f. a, b, c. - Precise Answer ✔✔F. a, b, and c. a. Implement a 2 ring rule. Always make sure the phone is answered before the 3rd ring. b. acknowledge the caller by name c. minimize customer hold time and frequently return to reassure the caller they have not been forgotten.

T/F. If the recipient of a call is on the phone, it is best to alert them that a call is holding; they may be expecting the call. - Precise Answer ✔✔True The basic components of effective telephone communication include which of the following: a. answering the telephone b. transferring calls c. ensuring there are adequate phone lines in the practice d. placing calls on hold e. all of the above f. a, b, d. - Precise Answer ✔✔f. a, b, d answering the telephone transferring calls placing calls on hold T/F. If you call a patient and reach their voicemail, it is best to only leave your name and phone number. - Precise Answer ✔✔False Which of the following is most important to meet patient demands and be successful in today's highly competitive market? a. Provide free parking to patients b. Respond to patient's questions, concerns, or complaints with a positive and professional attitude.

c. Offer discounts on products d. Provide a good selection of magazines and other reading material in the waiting room. - Precise Answer ✔✔b. Respond to patient's questions, concerns, or complaints with a positive and professional attitude. T/F. A neutral tone of voice may be perceived to indicate the person is bored, tired, indifferent, detached, or unenthusiastic. - Precise Answer ✔✔True Which of the following actions will help you portray a positive image on the telephone? a. Place a mirror on your desk to remind you to smile before answering the phone. b. Use positive language and display kindness over the phone c. Replace negative thoughts with positive powerful ones. d. All of the above. e. A and C. - Precise Answer ✔✔D. all of the above. It is best to use which of the following actions if you are on another call when the telephone rings: a. Do not interrupt your existing caller and let the incoming call transfer to voicemail. b. Place the call on hold and answer the incoming call, "Hold please" c. Tell the incoming caller you are on another line and ask them to call back.

d. Ask permission of the existing caller to be placed on hold while you answer the other telephone. - Precise Answer ✔✔d. Ask permission of the existing caller to be placed on hold while you answer the other telephone. Which of the following are traits of successful telephone staff? a. the ability to maintain a rapid rate of speech b. Putting a smile in one's voice c. being honest and sincere with all callers d. using a neutral voice tone e. all of the above f. b and c - Precise Answer ✔✔f. b and c Putting a smile in one's voice Being honest and sincere with all callers What does an Excludes1 note mean in ICD-10? a. An external cause code must also be reported b. A manifestation must be coded first c. The code excluded should never be used d. Both codes must always be coded together. - Precise Answer ✔✔c. The code excluded should never be used When a condition or disease affects both eyes, it is considered to be bilateral. In ICD-10, what character is used to identify a bilateral service?

a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 9 - Precise Answer ✔✔c. 3 When a condition is noted as bilateral and no bilateral code exists, how should it be reported? a. It should be assigned an unspecified code b. It should be assigned only the left or right code c. It should be assigned separate codes for both left and right side d. It should be assigned both the left and right codes twice. - Precise Answer ✔✔c. It should be assigned separate codes for both left and right side T/F. When coding services for eyelids, if no bilateral code exists, and the condition affects all four eyelids, separate codes must be assigned for all four eyelids. - Precise Answer ✔✔True In the Alphabetic Index _____ are used to identify manifestation codes. a. Bold face letters b. Brackets c. Parenthesis d. Quotation marks - Precise Answer ✔✔b. Brackets

In the CMS "Grace Period" guidance, what is meant by a "family" of codes? a. Any 7-character category b. Any 6-character category c. Any 3-character category d. Any 5-character category - Precise Answer ✔✔c. Any 3-character category The term used in ICD-10 to represent a consequence of a previous disease or injury is: a. Eponym b. Manifestation c. Sequelae d. Chronic - Precise Answer ✔✔c. Sequelae What is the maximum number of characters that an ICD-10 code can contain? a. 5 b. 7 c. 8 d. 6 - Precise Answer ✔✔b. 7 When an Excludes2 note appears in ICD-10, it means: a. Two codes cannot be reported together

b. No other code need be reported c. The two codes can be reported together d. The manifestation must be coded first - Precise Answer ✔✔c. the two codes can be reported together In ICD-10 a placeholder ______ is used to allow for future expansion in codes that require seven digits. a. A b. P c. X d. D - Precise Answer ✔✔c. X What is the biggest change in the structure of ICD-10 that does not exist in ICD-9 codes? a. Glaucoma stages b. Encounter types c. Combination codes d. Laterality - Precise Answer ✔✔D. Laterality What entity is responsible for implementation of ICD-10 and maintaining the codes? a. American Medical Association b. Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services c. World Health Organization

d. United States Government Printing Offices - Precise Answer ✔✔b. Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services In ICD-9, Diseases of the Eye and Adnexa are included with the Diseases of the Nervous System. In ICD-10, the eye codes are located in Chapter ____ which includes only eye and adnexa codes. a. 3 b. 5 c. 7 d. 9 - Precise Answer ✔✔c. 7 T/F. When reporting diagnosis codes for October 1, 2015, dates of service and beyond, only ICD-10 codes can be used. - Precise Answer ✔✔True In ICD-10, the term "senile" cataract has been replaced with: a. Cataract b. Cortical cataract c. Age-related cataract d. Other senile cataracts - Precise Answer ✔✔c. Age-related cataract How is a glaucoma stage reported in ICD-10? a. The stage is now included in the description of the code. b. The glaucoma stages are no longer required to be reported.

c. The stage must be identified by a seventh-character code. d. The stage must be identified by an alpha code to identify the stage. - Precise Answer ✔✔c. The stage must be identified by a seventh- character code. T/F. The General Equivalency Mappings created by CMS can be used to code claims. - Precise Answer ✔✔False What organization is responsible for creating and publishing the ICD-10 codes? a. World Health Organization b. American Medical Association c. Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services d. Office of Inspector General - Precise Answer ✔✔a. World Health Organization A feature of a patient portal is: a. Appointment scheduling b. Messaging c. Ability to pay bills d. All of the above - Precise Answer ✔✔d. All of the above What document should a practice request from a portal vendor? a. HTTPS

b. SSAE 16 SOCII c. HIPAA d. HITECH - Precise Answer ✔✔b. SSAE 16 SOCII Which government regulatory program requires the use of a portal? a. PQRS b. Meaningful Use c. HIPAA d. HITECH - Precise Answer ✔✔b. Meaningful Use In Stage 2, Meaningful Use, a measure requires more than ____ of patients to view, download, and transmit health information. a. 10% b. 80% c. 30% d. 50% - Precise Answer ✔✔d. 50% T/F. Practices should consider whether or not a portal has an "un-enroll" feature. - Precise Answer ✔✔True Which of the following is not a type of patient portal? a. Provided by an EHR vendor b. Provided by CMS c. Provided by third-party vendor