CSCT Exam With 100% Correct And Verified Answers 2024, Exams of Advanced Education

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CSCT Exam With 100% Correct And

Verified Answers 2024

Counterclockwise - Correct Answer-Early Transition Rotates Which Direction Clockwise - Correct Answer-Late Transition Rotates Which Direction Transmit impulses form the right atrium to the left atrium - Correct Answer-Bachmann's Bundle Drains venous blood from the thoracic wall to the superior vena cava - Correct Answer- Azygous Veins Embryological cavity where the heart migrates into during development - Correct Answer-Celomic Cavity Adheres one cell to another cell - Correct Answer-Desmosomes Regeneration of nerve fibers - Correct Answer-Nerve reinnervation smallest arteries - Correct Answer-Arterioles External boundary that separates the left and right ventricles - Correct Answer- Intraventricular Sulcus Joins one cardiac muscle cell to another cardiac muscle cell and is required for synchronized cardiac contraction - Correct Answer-Intercalated Disc Increase in Contractility - Correct Answer-Positive Inotropic Effect Volume of blood flow through any tissue at any given period of time - Correct Answer- Local blood flow Electrical activities in the ell causing muscle contraction - Correct Answer- Depolarization Active contractile phase of the cardiac cycle - Correct Answer-Systole Recessed part of the semilunar valves - Correct Answer-Sinus of Valsalva A Groove exterior to the crista terminalis - Correct Answer-sulcus terminalis Separates the os of the coronary sinus and the inferior vena cava - Correct Answer- Eustachian Ridge

The parietal pericardium surrounding the superior vena cava, inferior vena cava, and pulmonary veins - Correct Answer-Fibrous Pericardium, Venous Medsocaridum, Vestigial fold of Marshall Merging of the internal jugular vein and subclavian vein forms the - Correct Answer- Brachiocephalic Vein Nerves that provide motor innervation to the diaphragm - Correct Answer-Phrenic Nerve Troponin that cause inhibition of muscle contraction - Correct Answer-TnI Accounts for the pattern of referred heart pain to the upper thorax, shoulder, and arm during heart attack is known as - Correct Answer-Pain afferent, Pain threshold, Pain reflex Percentage of the population in which the right coronary artery supplies the SA node - Correct Answer-60% Percentage of population in which the left coronary artery supplies the AV node - Correct Answer-10-15% An imaginary grouping of the nerve bundles travelling to and from the heart - Correct Answer-Cardiac Plexus More sympathetic nerves innervate the: - Correct Answer-Ventricles Where do parasympathetic nerve originate from: - Correct Answer-Medulla Oblongata Slowing down conduction velocity is referred to as: - Correct Answer-Negative dromotropic effect Heart sounds are produced by: - Correct Answer-Closure of the heart valves Aortic stenosis is heard best at the: - Correct Answer-2nd ICS on the right side of the sternum Cardiac transplantation can cause: - Correct Answer-Post-Ganglionic denervation The lowest pressure in the aorta before blood is ejected from the ventricle is the: - Correct Answer-Diastolic blood pressure The maximal aortic pressure following ejection is the: - Correct Answer-Systolic blood pressure

The difference between systolic and diastolic blood pressure is: - Correct Answer-Aortic Pulse Pressure Sound heard during blood pressure measurement is known as: - Correct Answer- Korotkoff Sound What is the presynaptic neurotransmitter of both the sympathetic and parasympathetic nerve - Correct Answer-Acetylcholine correct order of conduction pathway impulses - Correct Answer-Left atrium via the Bachmann's Bundle - AV Node via Wenckebach and Thorel's Bundle of His - Right Bundle Branch and Left Bundle Branch - Purkinje What does the Triangle of Koch Landmark - Correct Answer-AV Node What are the muscles that assist respiration during sleep? - Correct Answer-Scalene Muscles The aponeurotic part of the diaphragm is the: - Correct Answer-Central Tendon The gland that modulates the autonomic control of the heart - Correct Answer- Hypothalamus Beginning at the right surface of the heart, what is the correct order of blood flow - Correct Answer-Acute/Right surface of the heart, Acute Marginal Vein, Anterior Cardiac Vein, Right Atrium, Tricuspid Valve, Right Ventricle Correct order of blood flow beginning with the pulmonary valve - Correct Answer- Pulmonary Artery, Lungs, Pulmonary Veins, Left Atrium, Mitral Valve Correct order of blood flow beginning with the left ventricle - Correct Answer-Aortic valves, OS of the left coronary artery, left coronary artery, obtuse marginal artery, left surface of the heart Trace the pathway of blood beginning at the umbilical vein and ending at the subclavian artery - Correct Answer-Umbillical vein, Ductus Venosus, Inferior Vena Cava, Eustachian Valve, Right Atrium, Formen Ovale, Ostium Secundum, Left atrium, Bicuspid Valve, Left Ventricle, Aortic Semilunar Valve, Aorta, Brachiocephalic Artery, Right subclavian artery Trace the blood from the left atrial appendage to the left atrium - Correct Answer-left atrial appendage, oblique vein of marshall, great cardiac vein, valve of vieussens, coronary sinus, thebesian valve, right atrium, tricuspid valve, right ventricle, pulmonic semilunar vlave, pulmonary artery, lungs, pulmonary veins, left atrium

The central tendon gives rise to which structures - Correct Answer-Aortic hiatus, Esophageal hiatus, vena caval foramen, opening of the lesser splanchnic nerve Norepinephrine is released by the sympathetic nervous system. What is the effect on sodium current influx and sinus node automaticity? - Correct Answer-Increases both sodium current influx and sinus node automaticity The time between the S2 heart sound and subsequent S1 heart sounds represents - Correct Answer-Diastole What structures make up the triangle of Koch - Correct Answer-opening of the coronary sinus, tendon of todaro, anterior portion of tricuspid valve annulus The resting membrane potential of the purkinje action potential is maintained by - Correct Answer-Na-K pump Rectifier ion channels allow the movement of what ions - Correct Answer-K+ What different states can sodium channels be in - Correct Answer-Activated, inactivated, deactivated In the SA-nodal action potential, calcium channels open at what membrane potentials? - Correct Answer--40mV, Threshold Potential What are the determinants of mean arterial pressure? - Correct Answer-Cardiac output, systemic vascular resistance, central venous pressure What nerve fibers deliver information from baroreceptors to the autonomic nervous system. - Correct Answer-Afferent nerve fibers The I-band contains what - Correct Answer-Actin, Thin Myofilament Excitation-contraction coupling occurs during which phase of the pacemaker action potential - Correct Answer-It doesnt The coronary arteries fill with blood during what stage? - Correct Answer-Isovolumetric ventricular relaxation How many actin filaments around each myosin filament - Correct Answer-60- How many myosin filaments in each myofibril? - Correct Answer-200- Slow sodium channels are mainly found in what node - Correct Answer-SA and AV nodes

What is the aortic pulse pressure of someone who has a blood pressure of 150/90mmHg - Correct Answer-150mmHg The physiological purpose of the PR-segment is to - Correct Answer-Slow down impulses coming from the SA node to ensure the ventricles fill adequately with blood What is a normal stroke volume? - Correct Answer-55-75% What does Serum contain? - Correct Answer-Water, Hormones, Nutrients Name three agranular leukocytes - Correct Answer-B-cells, T-cells, Monocytes The lymphatic system transports what kind of vitamins - Correct Answer-Vitamin A, Vitamin D, Vitamin E, Vitamin K The thoracic duct empties into the venous system at the junction of the - Correct Answer-Internal jugular vein and the left subclavian vein What are the characteristics of unstable angina? - Correct Answer-new onset angina, angina developed at rest, sudden increase in the frequency, intensity, and duration of pain What is rheumatic fever? - Correct Answer-Inflammatory condition, a complication of upper respiratory infection caused by group A Streptococci, occurs mainly in children and young adults Beta 1 receptors are found in which part of the body - Correct Answer-Heart, Kidneys, Parts of the eye Class III Antiarrhythmics do what to the action potential - Correct Answer-widen the duration of the action potential Class IV antiarrhythmics are calcium channel blockers which - Correct Answer-effect the pacemaker action potential Beta-Blockers can be sued for which cardiac conditions - Correct Answer-Actue MI, Hypertension, heart failure, aortic dissection, cardiomyopathy, hypertension, ischemic heart disease, aortic dissection Beta-blockers should be given to patients who have had an acute MI within what time frame - Correct Answer-3 hours What diuretic is preferred in hypertension? - Correct Answer-Thiazide In heart failure, diuretics are given to control - Correct Answer-Pulmonary and peripheral signs and symptoms of congestion

Diuretics in hypertension must: - Correct Answer-Provide enough natiuresis (Na+ loss) to shrink fluid volume to some extent Beta 2 Receptors are found in what part of the body - Correct Answer-Bronchials in lungs, vascualr smooth muscle, GI tract, insulin secreting tissue of pancreas Beta 1 receptor blockade causes: - Correct Answer-decrease in HR, conduction, automaticity, contractility Calcium channel blockers blcok entry of calcium through calcium channels in both smooth muscle and myocardium: this leads to: - Correct Answer-less calcium for contractile process, vasodilation and negative inotropic effect Class IC Sodium channel medications Flecainide and Propafenone are: - Correct Answer-Proarrhythmic, used in life threatening ventricular arrhythmias, used in paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardias Amiodarone is categorized on the Vaughan Williams classification as a Class III drug. How does this drug work? - Correct Answer-by prolonging action potential duration, decreasing spontaneous depolarization and affecting phase 4 An adverse effect of all Class III antiarrhythmics is what rhythm - Correct Answer- Torsades de Pointes What does the Vaughan Williams Classification classify? - Correct Answer-Classifies drug actions, not drug class Beta 2 receptors blockade causes - Correct Answer-Bronchoconstriction in lungs, vasoconstriction of arterioles in skeletal muscles, decreased intestinal motility, decreased breakdown of glycogen Class II antiarrhythmics - beta blockers effect which action potential - Correct Answer- pacemaker action potential The most commonly used loop diuretic is - Correct Answer-Furosemide (Lasix) Which drug prolongs the effective reffractory period in all cardiac tissues including accessory pathways. - Correct Answer-Class III Amiodarone Which diuretic is preferred in heart failure? - Correct Answer-Loop diuretic What conditions are beta-blockers contraindicated or used cautiously - Correct Answer- asthma and bronchospastic lung disease, peripheral vascular disease and diabetes

Class IB sodium channel medication Lidocaine has adverse effects such as - Correct Answer-confusion and slurred speech Class I antiarrhythmics are: - Correct Answer-Sodium Channel Blockers What does Lidocaine act on? - Correct Answer-Acts on ischemic myocardium, used for suppression of serious ventricular arrhythmias 4 cardiac cell properties - Correct Answer-contractility, automaticity, excitability, conductivity Cardioselective beta-blockers primarily block - Correct Answer-beta 1 receptors Rate pressure product is: - Correct Answer-RPP = HR x SBP Heart rate target for beta-blockers and angina are - Correct Answer-Resting heart rate 55-60 beats per minutes Class I sodium channel blocker medications effect - Correct Answer-both the myocyte action potential and the pacemaker action potential Dobutamine is a preferred inotropic agent in acute heart failure for cardiac medicine or cardiac care unit patient because it - Correct Answer-predominantly has beta 1 effects, increasing cardiac output To decrease blood pressure, all antihypertensives must - Correct Answer-decrease cardiac output or decrease peripheral vascualr resistance Is High Density Lipoprotein cholesterol Good or Bad? - Correct Answer-Good Cholesterol What does HDL do to bad cholesterol? - Correct Answer-Carries it away from artery walls and returns it to the liver for storage Where do bile acids go? - Correct Answer-Unless the bile acids are bound to specific foods and leave via the digestion tract, the liver absorbs the bile acids recycling them The equation for Total Cholesterol is: - Correct Answer-TC = HDL + LDL + TG The three clinical conditions of heart failure are: - Correct Answer-Chronic heart failure, acute heart failure with pulmonary edema, and cardiogenic shock What dysrhythmias are seen with Digoxin toxicity - Correct Answer-AV Blocks, bradyarrhythmias, PVCs

Two most common indications for Digoxin are: - Correct Answer-atrial fibrillation with uncontrolled ventricular response, heart failure What is the absorption site for oral tablets of Nitroglycerin? - Correct Answer- gastrointestinal tract What is the absorption site for intravenous infusion of Nitroglycerin? - Correct Answer- blood stream What is the absorption site for sublingual spray of Nitroglycerin? - Correct Answer- mucous membranes What is the absorption site for patches of Nitroglycerin? - Correct Answer-skin What is the disadvantage of ARBs for Hypertension over ACE inhibitors? - Correct Answer-absence of bradykinins vasodilator effect ACE stands for: - Correct Answer-Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme What is the nitrate free interval - Correct Answer-10-12 hours in length What is the BP for hypertensive crisis? - Correct Answer-Diastolic BP > 120mmHg, and Systolic BP > 180mmHG What are ARBs? - Correct Answer-Angiotensin receptor blockers What antianginals are given for ACUTE angina attacks? - Correct Answer-Nitrates Blood pressure is calculated by - Correct Answer-BP = CO x PVR Digoxin is - Correct Answer-positive inotrope, many conditions increase sensitivity to digoxin What kind of Diuretic is used for hypertension? - Correct Answer-longer acting thiazide- type diuretics are used for hypertension as vasodilators, nitrates cause - Correct Answer-marked venous dilation, modest coronary dilation, and lesser arterial dilation What does the patient have to do that is specific to Labetalol? - Correct Answer-patient must remain supine during infusion and for 4 hours following What should be assessed ongoing when a patient is having angina and using nitroglycerin spray - Correct Answer-Pain scale 0-10, BP, o2 sats

ACE Inhibitors are agents that - Correct Answer-Inhibit ACE from converting angiotensin I to angiotensin II ACE Inhibitors generic drug names end in - Correct Answer-pril Adverse effects of ACE inhibitors include: - Correct Answer-Hypotension, cough, angioedem, hyperkalemmia in what cardiac condition, is prolonged benefit of ACE inhibitors compromised by aldosterone formation - Correct Answer-Heart failure ACE inhibitors and ARBs both limit the renin-angiotension-aldosterone system (RAAS) from stimulation: - Correct Answer-vasoconstriction, increased aldosterone, and increased sympathetic actvity During prolonged ACE inhibitor therapy, _______________ formation does not stay fully blocked - Correct Answer-aldosterone indications of ACE inhibitors - Correct Answer-Heart failure, hypertension, acute MI, post-infarct LV dysfunction ARBs are agents that - Correct Answer-block angiotensin from the AT 1 receptors What does Digoxin do - Correct Answer-increase the force of contraction Vector - Correct Answer-Direction and strength of impulses Travel of impulses from the AVN to the Purkinjie fibers on an ECG - Correct Answer-PR segment Transition zone - Correct Answer-area in the chest leads where the mostly negative QRS shifts to a mostly positive QRS Ventricular depolarization through repolarization on an ECG - Correct Answer-QT interval Progressively increasing R wave amplitude from right to left in the chest leads - Correct Answer-R wave progression Early ventricular repolarization - Correct Answer-STsegment upward depolarization of the atrium - Correct Answer-retrograde conduction travel of impulses from the SA node to the Prukinje fibers on an ECG - Correct Answer- PR interval

in what leads should the QRS complex be negative - Correct Answer-AVR Normal QRS com[;exes should have a width of - Correct Answer-less than 0. seconds wide five large boxes on ECG paper is equivalent to how much time - Correct Answer- second There is significant artifact in several limb leads on the ECG you are recording. Out of leads 1, 2, and 3, lead 2 has the least artifact. from which limb electrode are you getting the most interference - Correct Answer-LA Ventricular Fibrillation has no - Correct Answer-P waves or QRS complexes Atrial Fibrillation has no - Correct Answer-p waves a Premature atrial beat occurring during the repolarization period of the Right Bundle Branch - Correct Answer-Aberrant Beat Junctional Bradycardia has a heart rate of - Correct Answer-less than 40 bpm a PVC sandwiched between 2 sinus beats without altering the timing - Correct Answer- interpolated PVC Atrial ectopic beat that fell during he refractory period of the AV node - Correct Answer- non-conducted PAC length of time between an ectopic beat and sinus beat preceding it - Correct Answer- coupling interval encapsulated irritable cell not affected by depolarization of other cells - Correct Answer- ventricular parasystole re-entrant circuit of impulses looping within the AV node - Correct Answer-typical AVNRT tachycardia lasting 30 seconds or more - Correct Answer-sustained tachycardia PVCs occurring after 3 sinus beats - Correct Answer-ventricular trigeminy sinus node timing is altered by an ectopic beat - Correct Answer-non-compensatory pause upward depolarization of the atria - Correct Answer-retrograde conduction PVCs originating from 2 or more ectopic foci - Correct Answer-multifocal PVCs

Blood clots collecting in the atria are a possible complication of what rhythm? - Correct Answer-Atrial fibrillation conduction to the atria in junctional rhythms is said to be - Correct Answer-retrograde A junctional rhythm with a heart rate of 125 BPM is called - Correct Answer-Junctional tachycardia junctional rhythms originate in the - Correct Answer-AV node in third degree AV block, the site of the block is either the - Correct Answer-Av node or the bundle of HIS The type of AV block characterized by two P waves to each QRS and a constant PR interval is: - Correct Answer-2:1 AV Block AV Blocks with a constant PR interval are - Correct Answer-1st degree AV Block and Mobitz II second degree AV Block Wenchebach is characterized by - Correct Answer-gradually prolonging PR intervals Treatment for third degree AV Block usually includes - Correct Answer-pacemaker Complete heart block is another name for - Correct Answer-third degree AV Block AV dissociation is a hallmark of - Correct Answer-third degree AV block Wenckebach is a type of - Correct Answer-second degree AVB In first degree AVB, the site of the block is the: - Correct Answer-AV node In which kind of AV block do NONE of the sinus impulses reach the ventricles - Correct Answer-Third degree AVB A pause that occurs when one sinus node impulse is not conducted out of the sinus node itself - Correct Answer-sinus exit block What is a trifasicular block - Correct Answer-LPFB/LAFD, RBBB, first degree AVB Indication for a diagnosis of LAFB - Correct Answer-an axis deviation of greater than or equal to -45 degrees a deep slurred S wave in lead 1 is the characteristic pattern seen in patients with - Correct Answer-RBBB

an incomplete RBBB is characterized by - Correct Answer-QRS width no greater than 0.11 secs an axis deviation of greater than or equal to +120 is characteristic of - Correct Answer- LPFB a QS pattern in V1 is characteristic of - Correct Answer-LBBB an axis of +120 degrees is - Correct Answer-RAD If the heart's current originates in the left ventricle and travels upward to the right, there would be RAD - Correct Answer-false an example of a bifasicular block - Correct Answer-sinus rhythm with RBBB and LAFB/LPFB In LBBB, the deflections in V1 and V2 are: - Correct Answer-negative Capture is evidenced on the ECG by the presence of - Correct Answer-P waves or QRS complexes following the pacemaker spikes Indications of pacemakers - Correct Answer-idioventricular rhythm, 3rd degree AV block, Mobitz II 2nd degree AVB What does the 5th letter of the pacemaker code stand for? - Correct Answer-Anti- tachycardia function What is meant by 'sensing' - Correct Answer-ability of the pacemaker to recognize beats what does the 4th letter of the pacemaker code stand for - Correct Answer- programmable function What is meant by the pacemaker threshold - Correct Answer-minimum voltage to depolarize the heart the 1st letter position in the pacemaker code describes - Correct Answer-chamber paced a paced ventricular captured beat is similar in appearance to a... - Correct Answer- ventricular beat An AICD is - Correct Answer-an implantable cardiac defibrillator the pacemakers generation of an electrical impulse is represented on the ECG as - Correct Answer-pacer spike

What does the 2nd letter of the pacemaker code stand for - Correct Answer-chamber sensed AAI pacemaker paces which chambers of the heart - Correct Answer-right atrium A DDD pacemaker paces which chambers of the heart - Correct Answer-Right atrium and ventricle Which blood vessel is commonly used for access in permanent pacemaker - Correct Answer-Subclavian vein What is hysteresis - Correct Answer-pacemaker delays its firing to allow the intrinsic heart rhythm to depolarize a transcultaneous pacemaker paces the heart - Correct Answer-externally through the skin The most common pacemaker malfunctions include - Correct Answer-oversensing, failure to capture, undersensing A CRT pacemaker will have leads implanted in - Correct Answer-right atrium, right ventricle, left ventricle what is a fusion beat - Correct Answer-beat due to simultaneous depolarization of the ventricles by the pacemaker and an intrinsic beat the pulse generator is - Correct Answer-the battery pack and the brains of the pacemaker Mrs. Chilton has a VVI pacemaker set at a rate of 70ppm. What rhythms should the pacemaker prevent from happening - Correct Answer-junctional bradycardia The lead wires of VVI pacemakers are inserted into which chamber of the heart - Correct Answer-right ventricle Your patient has intrinsic P waves but no QRS complexes. His DDD pacemaker should:

• Correct Answer-sense the intrinsic P waves, deliver QRS complexes to follow the P waves within a preset rate range If a pacemaker fails to fire, what is shown on the ECG - Correct Answer-lack of a pacemaker spike where there should be one A VOO pacemaker would pace the - Correct Answer-Ventricle, senses nothing, and has no response to sensed events since it cannot sense

Asynchronous pacemakers are the same as - Correct Answer-fixed-rate pacemakers. They fire at their preset rate regardless of intrinsic beats, they can cause ventricular fibrillation if the paced beat lands on the vulnerable period of an intrinsic beat a fixed rate pacemaker - Correct Answer-fires at its preset rate regardless of intrinsic beats Mr. Gorp has a pacemaker that senses atrial and ventricular depolarization and paces atrium and ventricle. It can be inhibited or triggered by sensed events. What kind of pacemaker is this? - Correct Answer-DDD CRT is used to treat - Correct Answer-heart failure 1st degree AVB has - Correct Answer-a prolonged and constant PRI 2nd degree AVB type 1 has - Correct Answer-a progressively prolonging PRI with dropped QRS complexes in a pattern 2nd degree AVB type 2 has - Correct Answer-constant PRI with dropped QRS complexes in a pattern or not 2:1 AVB has - Correct Answer-constant PRI with 1 QRS to every 2 P waves 3rd degree AVB has - Correct Answer-Regular P wave rhythm, regular QRS rhythm, not related to each other What rhythm will an automated external defibrillator (AED) will shock - Correct Answer- ventricular fibrillation and ventricular tachycardia in 3rd degree AVB, how do the QRS complexes exist - Correct Answer-the junction or ventricles create their own impulses through the mechanism of an escape rhythm In AVB, the atrial rhythm - Correct Answer-is normal and regular What is cross talk - Correct Answer-when pacemaker generated impulse is sensed by the lead in a second chamber causing inappropriate inhibition of pacing in the second chamber The pulse generator of a pacemaker is most commonly implanted in which region? - Correct Answer-infraclavicular Mangnitude and direction of electrical impulses to produce depolarization - Correct Answer-vector An ECG complex caused by 2 pacemakers - SAN and ventricular pacemaker - Correct Answer-fusion beat

confirm that the ECG conforms to the standard format - Correct Answer-calibration Mobitz 1 is also called - Correct Answer-Wenckebach repolarization abnormality in ventricular hypertrophy - Correct Answer-strain pattern LAE has what kind of p wave - Correct Answer-P mitrale atrial or ventricular ectopic beats that comes in pairs - Correct Answer-couplets impulses spread backwards through the atria from the AVN causing negative P waves in lead II and positive in AVR - Correct Answer-retrograde conduction twisting of the points in VT - Correct Answer-Torsade de pointes nonspecific ventricular conduction delay - Correct Answer-IVCD idioventricular rhythm has a heart rate of - Correct Answer-20-40 bpm atrial rate can be calculated by counting - Correct Answer-the p-p intervals the type of AVB characterized by two p waves to each QRS and a constant PR interval is - Correct Answer- If artifact is present in leads I, II and AVR, the most likely source of the artifact is the - Correct Answer-right arm What is the rate for ventricular tachycardia - Correct Answer-120-250bpm What is the rate for sinus rhythm - Correct Answer-60-100bpm What is the rate for junctional rhythm - Correct Answer-40-60bpm What is the rate for accelerated idioventricular rhythm - Correct Answer-40-100bpm What is the rate for atrial flutter atrial rate - Correct Answer-250-350bpm What is the rate for atrial fibrillation atrial rate - Correct Answer-400-600bpm A Pause that occurs when one sinus node impulse is not conducted out of the sinus node itself is - Correct Answer-sinus exit block atrial fibrillation is - Correct Answer-irregular

a regular rhythm with narrow QRS complexes, indistinguishable P waves, and a heart rate of 155 would be consistent with - Correct Answer-supraventricular tachycardia A junctional escape beat is a beat from the - Correct Answer-AV junction Ventricular fibrillation has what effect on the cardiac output - Correct Answer-causes cardiac output to stop completely The most common cause for the P wave, QRS complex, and T wave to be inverted in lead I is - Correct Answer-incorrect lead placement Appropriate treatment for asystole - Correct Answer-CPR, oxygen, pacemaker In which rhythm, is decreased cardiac output most likely to be a concern - Correct Answer-junctional bradycardia LBBB is an indication of - Correct Answer-heart disease LBBB is characterized by - Correct Answer-a deep S wave in V1, and wide QRS complexes If the patient's rhythm changes, you should first - Correct Answer-assess your patient for possible signs of decreased cardiac output The difference between wandering atrial pacemaker and multifocal atrial tachycardia is - Correct Answer-multifocal atrial tachycardia has a faster heart rate An axis of -45 degrees and a negative QRS complex in Lead II would indicate - Correct Answer-LAH Shortening the QT interval is suggestive of - Correct Answer-Hypercalcemia When paper speed is increased to 50mm/sec it will cause the QRS complexes to appear - Correct Answer-further apart What is the criteria for diagnosis of BBB - Correct Answer-QRS 0.12 seconds or greater If you see muscle tremor artifact on an ECG, what is that called - Correct Answer- Somatic tremor chest pressure or pain caused by cardiac ischemia is called - Correct Answer-angina augmented voltage leads are - Correct Answer-AV leads obstruction of blood flow due to artherosclerosis is called - Correct Answer-occlusion

abnormal condition in which the heart is situated on the right side - Correct Answer- Dextrocardia Amount of time the electrical impulses travel from the endocardium to the epicardium is called - Correct Answer-Ventricular Activation Time (VAT) magnitude and direction of impulses to cause myocardial depolarization - Correct Answer-vector precordial lead in which the negative and positive components of the ECG are of almost equal amplitude - Correct Answer-transitional lead What causes WPW - Correct Answer-bundle of Kent occurs due to pericardial effusion - Correct Answer-electrical alternans pacemaker programmed parameter to inhibit pacing allowing the heart to beat on its own - Correct Answer-hysteresis chest pain occurring at night - Correct Answer-nocturnal angina failure of pacemaker to detect intrinsic beat - Correct Answer-undersensing minimum amount of energy necessary to cause myocardial depolarization - Correct Answer-pacemaker threshold suggest pulmonary embolism in 12 lead ECG - Correct Answer-S1Q3T Extreme RAD is a common observation in which arrhythmia - Correct Answer- ventricular tachycardia Occlusion of the right coronary artery may cause - Correct Answer-inferior ischemia what is the genetic condition showing RBBB pattern with ST elevation in V1-V3 that may cause sudden nocturnal death - Correct Answer-Brugada Syndrome ST segment elevation of long standing (weeks/months) is suggestive of - Correct Answer-ventricular aneurysm what combination of conduction issues could be part of a trifasicular block - Correct Answer-RBBB, 1st degree AVB, LAFB/LPFB The blanking period of the pacemaker reflects - Correct Answer-short interval of time that the device cannot sense any events

blood clots collecting in the atria are a possible complication of what rhythm - Correct Answer-a fib conduction to the atria in junctional rhythms are said to be - Correct Answer-retrograde The most appropriate pacemaker mode for a patient that has a fib with slow ventricular response is - Correct Answer-VVI - single chamber ventricular pacing The James bundle will produce what effect on the ECG - Correct Answer-short PRI Subendocaridal injury is also referred to as - Correct Answer-non-q wave MI Osborne waves are seen in - Correct Answer-hypothermia What ECG wave represents ventricular repolarization - Correct Answer-T wave In a lateral wall MI, which coronary artery is most likely occluded - Correct Answer-LCX The part of the ECG machine that converts electrical impulses to mechanical action - Correct Answer-Galvanometer Repolarization abnormalities of the hypertrophied ventricle showing ST segment depression is known as - Correct Answer-strain pattern premature atrial beats occurring during the repolarization period of the right bunch branch - Correct Answer-aberrant beat Peaked T waves with narrow QRS complexes are seen in - Correct Answer- hyperkalemia the most common cause of LVH - Correct Answer-hypertension flattening of T waves with pronounced U waves are seen in - Correct Answer- hypokalemia proper capture is evidenced on the ECG by the presence of - Correct Answer-P waves of QRS complexes following the pacemaker spikes normal QRS complexes should have a width of - Correct Answer-less than 0.12 secs wide normal PRI is - Correct Answer-0.12-0. a conduction abnormality with PR intervals that prolong until a beat is dropped is - Correct Answer-Mobitz I

6 potential causes of dominant R waves in V1 - Correct Answer-RBBB, Pediatric, RVH, anterior I WPW type A, posterior MI, incorrect lead placement normal calibration voltage of an ECG is - Correct Answer-10mm/mV What are three possible accessory pathways in the heart - Correct Answer-Kent bundle, james bundle, mahaim fibers Arrhythmogenesis mechanisms include: - Correct Answer-enhanced automaticity, triggered activity, re-entry What is the position of the CS ostium - Correct Answer-posterior wall of the right atrium in Triangle of Koch Normal axis is defined by - Correct Answer--30 - 90 degrees the SA node has the greatest automaticity due to - Correct Answer-highest phase 4 slope What arrhythmia mechanism will induce AVRT - Correct Answer-re-entry What EGM channel displays the signal from the AV node - Correct Answer-HIS What electrode pair on a catheter is most often used to deliver electrical stimulus to the heart - Correct Answer-1- Which of the 4 standard EP catheters is most often fed through the superior vena cava - Correct Answer-CS What ECG findings are suggestive of an MI when a patient has LBBB or presents with a paced rhythm? - Correct Answer-Positive QRS complexes with T-wave concordance and ST-elevation of more than 1mm, concordant ST-depression of more than 1mm, Discordant ST-elevation of 5mm or more Pericardial effusion is consistent with which of the following ECG findings - Correct Answer-Tachycardia, electrical alternans, low voltage What are some characteristics of Ashman's phenomenon? - Correct Answer-Long R-R interval followed by a short R-R interval then aberrant beat, the aberrant beat most often has a RBBB morphology in V1, the aberrant beat produces an RR' morphology in V where in R' is taller than R