CSFA Practice Exam Questions with 100% Correct Answers | Verified | Latest Update, Exams of Nursing

Download CSFA Practice Exam Questions with 100% Correct Answers | Verified | Latest Update and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! CSFA Practice Exam Questions with 100% Correct Answers | Verified | Latest Update A complication of steep reverse Trendelenburg position is A. deep vein thrombosis. B. arterial compression. C. cardiac overload. D. respiratory alkalosis. - Correct Answer-A. Steep reverse Trendelenburg position decreases venous return. Sequential compression stockings are applied to prevent deep venous thrombosis. Which of the following positions should be utilized for posterior colpotomy? A.prone B.supine C.lithotomy D. Fowler's - Correct Answer-C. Colpotomy is an incision into the vagina. The lithotomy position is necessary for access to this region of the body. Which of the following BEST prevents hypothermia in the OR? A. forced air warming blanket B.warmed IV solution C. warmed irrigation solution D. multiple layers of warm blankets - Correct Answer-A. Patient positioning leads to greater body surface exposure to cool temperatures. Forced air warming blankets are most effective in preventing cutaneous loss of body heat over the greatest surface area. OR humidity must be maintained between which of the following ranges? A. 5% to 20% B. 20% to 60% C.40% to 80% D. 50% to 90% - Correct Answer-20% to 60% moisture provides a conductive medium and allows a static charge to flow and ground as fast as a spark is generated. An important process in which all team members must participate just prior to incision is called the A.huddle. B.timeout. C.debriefing. D.consent. - Correct Answer-B timeout 6. Which of the following is Mohs surgery used to treat? A.malignant melanoma and basal cell carcinoma B.basal cell and squamous cell carcinoma C.malignant melanoma and squamous cell carcinoma D.basal cell and Merkel cell carcinoma - Correct Answer-B. Mohs surgery is used to treat basal cell and squamous cell skin cancers. It is a specialized technique that involves excising the lesion, layer by layer, and examining each layer under the microscope until all abnormal tissue is removed. 7. When reviewing the chart for a patient scheduled for a mammoplasty, it is noticed that the patient's K+ is 5.4. The patient is suffering from which of the following? A. hyperkalemia B. hypokalemia C. hypercalcemia D. hypocalcemia - Correct Answer-A. The patient is suffering from hyperkalemia, a condition in which there is too much potassium in the blood. Normal potassium levels range between 3.5 - 5.0. Hypercalcemia - Correct Answer-condition in which too much calcium is in the blood. Hypocalcemia - Correct Answer-a condition in which there is not enough calcium in the blood. Hypokalemia - Correct Answer-low level of potassium in the blood 8. Which of the following are the preferred positioning devices used during surgical procedures? A.foam pads B.saline bags C.gel pads D.sheet rolls - Correct Answer-gel pads Which of the following could occur as a result of a tourniquet causing excessive pressure on the nerves? A.paralysis C. Satinsky D.Ochsner - Correct Answer-Satinsky Which of the following is a role of the surgical first assistant during robotics cases? A.Place access cannula. B.Exchange instrument arms. C.Position the patient cart. D.Operate instruments from console. - Correct Answer-B exchange instrument arms Injury to which of the following arteries is commonly seen in the temporal lobes, where the skull is the thinnest and meningeal blood vessels are numerous, and is the usual cause of epidural hematomas? A.middle meningeal B.posterior meningeal C.temporal D.cerebral - Correct Answer-A. Epidural hematoma is typically caused by trauma in the middle meningeal artery. A linear fracture of the squamous portion of the temporal bone can tear the middle meningeal. Which of the following is the desired effect when applying a partially threaded cancellous screw to a bone fragment? A.distraction B.rotation C.compression D.subluxation - Correct Answer-Compression During an abdominal hysterectomy, the surgeon initially isolates the uterus by separating it from the A.bladder. B.round ligaments. C broad ligaments. D.cervix. - Correct Answer-B. The round ligaments contain the uterine appendages, including the fallopian tubes, ovaries, and associated ligaments. The uterus must be excised from the round ligaments for eventual removal. 26.During a carotid endarterectomy, the final occlusion clamp to be removed after anastomosis is on the A.common carotid. B.internal carotid. C.external carotid. D.thyroid branch. - Correct Answer-internal carotid 27.The primary purpose of a robotic device designed to hold and maneuver a laparoscope is to A.eliminate tremor associated with operating an endoscope. B.replace the surgeon. C.decrease set-up time for an endoscope. D.reduce the incidence of fogging. - Correct Answer-A. eliminate tremor asociated with operating an endoscope During a carotid endarterectomy, the arteries are unclamped and reclamped before arteriotomy closure is performed to A.flush free debris from the carotid. B.restore complete blood flow to the brain. C.increase collateral flow. D.ensure patency of the carotid body - Correct Answer-A. flush free debris from the carotid .When opening the aneurysmal sac during resection of an abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA), which of the following arteries is ligated? A.lumbar B.supine mesenteric C.renal D.common hepatic - Correct Answer-A. Upon opening of the aneurysmal sac, the lumbar vessels, which enter the posterior aortic wall, are ligated with vascular suture. When entering the skull during a craniotomy, it is important to prevent excess heat to the skull and to avoid floating bone dust by A.using a moist sponge to dab at the drill site. B.keeping suction close to the drill site. C.rrigating at the drill site with saline. D.using Raney clips to prevent the drill from getting hot. - Correct Answer-C. Irrigating the skull during drilling will keep the bone cool to avoid cracking and will also keep it moist, which will help to prevent bone dust from floating in the air. During arterial embolectomy, which of the following catheters is used for clot removal? A.Swan-Ganz B.Groshong C.Fogarty D.Broviac - Correct Answer-C. Fogarty 32.A 3-way Foley catheter with a 30-cc balloon should be inserted following a transurethral prostate resection (TURP) to A.irrigate and facilitate hemostasis. B.prevent the patient from getting out of bed. C.keep accurate input and output records. D minimize postoperative hypertrophy. - Correct Answer-A. The pressure of the 30-cc balloon against the walls of the urethra, where the prostate was removed by electrocautery, allows hemostasis, while the lumen of the catheter can be used to irrigate clots from the bladder. When should the patient's chest tubes be attached to the drainage system during a thoracotomy? A.after the thoracic cavity is closed B.immediately upon insertion C.within an hour of the procedure D.upon arrival in the PACU - Correct Answer-A. Chest tubes are attached to the drainage system after the pleural space is closed to begin the process of evacuating blood and fluids from the pleural cavity, as well as to re-establish negative pressure in the intrapleural space. 34.A 60-year-old obese patient with a history of diabetes and renal insufficiency has undergone drainage of an abdominal abscess through a midline incision. Which of the following should be considered for wound closure? A.Multifilament, absorbable suture material provides for optimal wound healing. B.A continuous suture line should be used. C.An interrupted retention suture should be used. D.Use of blunt surgical needles is a consideration in the presence of infection. - Correct Answer-C. Interrupted retention suturing effectively provides a secondary suture line relieving strain on the wound and providing a better opportunity for healing by first intention. 35.A 54-year-old female presents to the OR with a 4 cm oblique volar forearm laceration and a 9 cm transverse dorsal forearm laceration from a dog bite. Which of the following suturing methods and materials is the BEST choice for closure of the wound? A.interrupted silk B.continuous polyglactin C.interrupted polypropylene D.continuous polyester - Correct Answer-C. An interrupted suture would allow for drainage. A polypropylene suture is a monofilament suture, which would be appropriate in this case. C.trocar selection D.patient positioning - Correct Answer-B. Direct visualization is the most important step because it prevents injury to organs. A patient presents with a thigh abscess that was cultured and diagnosed as necrotizing fasciitis. Which of the following is the appropriate treatment? A.Pack the wound. B.Place a drain and close the wound. C.Close the wound. D.Debride all the necrotic tissue. - Correct Answer-Debride all necrotic tissue Which of the following muscles is used to re-implant a section of the parathyroid if it is inadvertently removed during a thyroidectomy? A.sternohyoid B.platysma C.sternocleidomastoid D.sternothyroid - Correct Answer-C. The parathyroids are implanted in pockets of the sternocleidomastoid because it is the largest muscle closest to the incision and avoids another incision. Before the initiation of cardiopulmonary bypass, it is important that the ACT (Activated Clotting Time) is greater than A.100 seconds. B.400 seconds. C.500 seconds. D.1000 seconds. - Correct Answer-C. 500 seconds has been listed as the minimal acceptable limit. 49. During a thoracotomy for tumor resection, the surgeon wants to irrigate with a solution that will cause tumor cells to lyse. Which of the following should the surgical first assistant use? A.sterile water B.normal saline C.glycine D.sorbitol - Correct Answer-A. Sterile water causes cells to lyse or rupture. A patient presents with extreme right lower quadrant pain, vomiting, and fever. A CT scan indicates free fluid in the abdomen and the extreme pain subsides. Which of the following is the MOST likely surgical intervention? A.open appendectomy B.laparoscopic appendectomy C.exploratory celiotomy D.laparoscopic cholecystectomy - Correct Answer-A. Open technique is used when perforation of the appendix is likely. In minimally invasive surgery, which of the following would involve Cartesian coordinate geometry? A.robotic endowrist B.total joint design C.synthetic heart valve manufacture D.alignment of compound facial fractures - Correct Answer-A. The robotic endowrist mimics the coordinated actions of the human arm. Which of the following is a direct complication resulting from a total laryngectomy with a radical neck dissection? A.pneumothorax B.cranial aneurysm C.ischemic stroke D.salivary fistula - Correct Answer-D. A salivary fistula can form due to weakness in the pharyngeal suture line. Following an arteriovenous fistula procedure, a patient develops a condition known as "steal syndrome." Which of the following is the MOST appropriate action to remedy this condition? A.Revise fistula. B.Continue anticoagulant therapy C.Discontinue anticoagulant therapy. D.Revise fistula using an argyle shunt. - Correct Answer-A. The most appropriate action is to revise the fistula, so dialysis can be continued. Which of the following is the reason a surgeon would choose to use a locking plate rather than a non-locking plate when repairing a bone fracture? A.low bone density B.comminuted fracture C.compound fracture D.high bone density - Correct Answer-A. A locking plate has threaded screw holes that lock the screws into the plate to prevent the rocking of screws, which tends to loosen them or cause them to back out when placed in patients with low bone density. After a coronary artery bypass procedure, the patient is having difficulty transitioning off the cardiopulmonary bypass machine. Which of the following is the MOST frequently used intervention to address this situation? A.ventricular assist device B.high dose epinephrine C.intra-aortic balloon pump (IABP) D.extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO) - Correct Answer-C. The IABP is the first line, and most common technique for mechanical circulatory support. A patient requires breast reconstructive surgery for breast cancer. When the surgeon places a tissue expander, which of the following muscles are lifted to allow for the placement of the expander? A.pectoralis major, deltoid, and superior rectus sheath B.pectoralis minor, serratus anterior, and superior rectus sheath C.pectoralis major, serratus anterior, and superior rectus sheath D.pectoralis minor, serratus anterior, and latissimus dorsi - Correct Answer-C. The pectoralis major, serratus anterior, and superior rectus sheath are lifted up and the tissue expander is placed underneath and anchored into place. A biologic mesh may be placed over the expander to help the pectoralis cover the expander. Which of the following conditions may be induced when thrombin is used in the management of hemostasis during a vascular procedure? A.thalassemia B.disseminated intravascular clotting C.thrombocytopenia D.von Willebrand's disease - Correct Answer-B. The entry of thrombin through larger vessels has a risk of causing disseminated intravascular clotting (DIC). DIC occurs when overactive coagulation factors cause clots to form in the blood and travel throughout the vascular system. A patient presents with a traumatic soft tissue injury with a Class III wound. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate dressing? A.Dermabond B.Telfa C.Tegaderm D.wound VAC - Correct Answer-D. wound VAC Which of the following is an example of a secondary dressing? A.ACE bandage B.4 X 4 sponge C.wound VAC D.Telfa - Correct Answer-ACE bandage A patient in the preoperative holding area has questions about a surgical procedure. The surgical first assistant should A.ask the surgeon to speak with the patient. B.answer the questions. C.proceed with the procedure. D.ask the anesthesia provider to answer the questions. - Correct Answer-A. ask the surgeon to speak with the pt The surgical team is beginning their timeout. The x-ray tech walks in and states he is going to leave C-Arm outside the OR. Which of the following should the surgical team do NEXT? A.Continue with the timeout. B.Tell the x-ray tech OK and continue with timeout. C.Start over with the timeout. D.Tell the x-ray tech to be quiet or get out. - Correct Answer-C. start over with the timeout To help reduce the risk of an electrostatic spark, which of the following should be done? A.Maintain relative humidity in the correct range. B.Ask the circulator to move the electrocautery machine farther away from the field. C.Wait until the patient is asleep to plug in the electrocautery and turn it on. D.Use synthetic fiber blankets. - Correct Answer-A. maintain relative humidity in the correct range In the event of a chemical spill in the OR, which of the following MOST appropriate reference for exposure control and clean up? A.OSHA manual B.chemical label C.JCAHO standards D.Safety Data Sheets - Correct Answer-D. All hazardous chemical manufactures are required to create safety data sheets on how to handle a spill or gross contamination by OSHA. If the OR's humidity increases above 70% before the patient arrives to the OR, which of the following steps should be taken? A.Tear down the sterile field and reset once the humidity level is normal. B.Proceed as normal. C.Monitor room and proceed once the humidity has reached normal levels. D.Rinse all instrumentation in saline. - Correct Answer-A During a radical mastectomy, in addition to providing exposure, it is imperative that the surgical first assistant A.inquires if a local anesthetic is available for the end of the procedure. B.ensures saline is on the field for irrigation. C.weighs the specimen. D.evacuates the smoke plume. - Correct Answer-D. evacuates the smoke plume A skin tag is removed from a patient under general anesthesia. It is not part of the procedure and is not within the surgical site. Under which of the following categories does this fall? A.negligence B.malpractice C.assault and battery D.Borrowed Servant Rule - Correct Answer-C. Assault and battery occur when bodily harm has been done by an unauthorized procedure. Negligence - Correct Answer-Negligence is when employees fail to ensure an acceptable level of care is provided. Malpractice - Correct Answer-Malpractice is substandard delivery of care that results in harm. Borrowed Servant Rule - Correct Answer-The Borrowed Servant Rule states that the surgeon is responsible. A patient requires an I&D of the thigh. The team has anticipated using 6 bottles of warm saline and brings them to the OR. During the 2-hour case, only four of the bottles are used while the other two have become room temperature. Which of the following actions should be taken with cool saline? A.Return to warmer within one hour. B.Immediately return to warmer. C.Put with cold saline stock. D.Cold saline cannot be used. - Correct Answer-D. cold saline cannot be used Which of the following is an example of a high-level disinfecting agent? A.glutaraldehyde B.isopropyl alcohol C.quaternary ammonium D.iodophor solution - Correct Answer-A. glutaraldehyde Which of the following is the vertical dimension within which objects are seen in focus? A.depth of field B.stereopsis C.working distance D.focal length - Correct Answer-A. Depth of field is the vertical field in which objects can be seen in focus. To model bone tissue in plastic and reconstructive surgery, which of the following should be used? Abone wax B.rotating burr C.oscillating saw D.bone cement - Correct Answer-B. The rotating burr removes small increments of bone. An example of "cold" sterilization utilizes which of the following chemicals? A.glutaraldehyde B.phenol C.ethylene oxide D.hydrogen peroxide - Correct Answer-C. Ethylene oxide is used for "cold" sterilization at a temperature of 85-100 degrees. Geobacillis stearothermophilus is the biological indicator used in which of the following sterilizers? A.steam B.dry heat C.ethylene oxide D.gas plasma - Correct Answer-A. Geobacillis stearothermophilus is the biological indicator used with a steam sterilizer. A tourniquet that displays an error message and fails to inflate should be A.turned off and restarted. B.used for the case. C.removed from service. D.reported to the charge nurse. - Correct Answer-C. removed from service When using a Dynamic Air removal system, which of the following is the minimum required sterilization time for a wrapped instrument pan at 275ºF? A.3 minutes B.4 minutes C.15 minutes D.30 minutes - Correct Answer-A. 3 minutes is the minimum parameter for this temperature. An autoimmune disease that causes diffuse, bilateral enlargement of the thyroid gland, and hyperthyroidism is A. Hashimoto's thyroiditis. B. goiter disease. C. Graves' disease. D. malignant disease. - Correct Answer-C. Graves' disease is the most common cause of hyperthyroidism. The production of thyroid hormone is increased, causing a wide range of symptoms, from anxiety and restlessness to insomnia and weight loss. Goiter disease - Correct Answer-thyroid gland enlargement. An enlarged thyroid gland may be caused by thyroiditis, benign thyroid nodules, malignancy, iodine deficiency, or any condition that causes hyperfunction or hypofunction of the gland. Hashimoto's thyroiditis - Correct Answer-is an autoimmune illness characterized by inflammation, and then destruction and fibrosis of the thyroid gland, ultimately resulting in hypothyroidism. Hashimoto's is the most common cause of hypothyroidism in areas of the world where there are inadequate levels of iodine. It affects people of all ages, but is most common in older women and those with a family history of autoimmune diseases. Thyroid hormone replacement is required. During an open reduction and internal fixation of a clavicular fracture, the surgeon must use extreme caution when drilling screw holes to avoid injury to which of the following structures, which lies directly underneath the clavicle? A.subclavian vein B.subclavian artery C.brachial plexus D.aortic arch - Correct Answer-A. The subclavian vein is a continuation of the axillary vein and is located just deep to the middle third of the clavicle, running parallel to it (close anatomic relationship between the subclavian vein and the clavicle) and is the first vessel encountered beneath the clavicle. Compression of which of the following structures is considered a surgical emergency with a hemorrhage after a thyroidectomy? A.jugular vein B.carotid artery C.trachea D.esophagus - Correct Answer-C. Compression of the trachea would cause airway issues which is a surgical emergency. The gallbladder drains into which of the following structures? A.thoracic duct B.hepatic duct C.common bile duct D.cystic duct - Correct Answer-D. This option is correct. The cystic duct drains the bile from gallbladder into the common bile duct. During a laparoscopic cholecystectomy, the infundibulum of the gallbladder is retracted to expose the A. artery of Drummond. B.ligament of Treitz. C.triangle of Calot. D.sphincter of Oddi. - Correct Answer-C. The triangle of Calot is made from the cystic duct, common hepatic duct, and the liver margin. A distinguishing feature of lupus is A.fatigue. B.joint pain. C.muscle pain. D.a butterfly rash. - Correct Answer-D. While all the other above signs and symptoms can be associated with lupus, the butterfly rash is a distinguishing feature. A butterfly rash occurs across the cheeks and the bridge of the nose. Which of the following hemodynamic concepts describes the resistance the heart must overcome to pump blood into the systemic circulation? A.cardiac output B.preload C.contractility D.afterload - Correct Answer-D. Ejection of blood from the heart begins when the pressure in the right ventricle exceeds the pressure in the pulmonary trunk, and when the pressure in the left ventricle exceeds the pressure in the aorta. At that point, the higher pressure in the ventricles causes blood to push the semilunar valves open. The pressure that must be overcome before a semilunar valve can open is termed the afterload. The third ventricle empties into the fourth ventricle through which of the following small ducts, which is the only exit for the third and lateral ventricles? A.foramen of Monro B.aqueduct of Sylvius C.foramina of Luschka D.foramina of Magendie - Correct Answer-B. The third ventricle empties into the fourth through the aqueduct of Sylvius (cerebral aqueduct). It is a small duct that is the only exit for the third and lateral ventricles. It is the weakest and most important point for the ventricular system due to its location and small size. Which of the following types of hernia consists of a protrusion of fat through defects in the abdominal wall located between the umbilicus and the xiphoid process and symptoms of nausea and slight upper abdominal pain? A.spigelian B.epigastric C.interparietal D.umbilical - Correct Answer-B. An epigastric hernia is a hernia of the linea alba (midline) between the sternum and navel. Which of the following bones is the MOST superior tarsal and articulates with the distal end of the tibia? A.calcaneus B.navicular C.talus D.cuboid - Correct Answer-C. The talus is located on the medial side of the foot and touches the tibia superiorly. A latissimus dorsi flap used for breast reconstruction following a mastectomy gets its main blood supply from which of the following arteries? A.thoracodorsal B.long thoracic C.superior epigastric D.inferior epigastric - Correct Answer-A. The thoracodorsal artery supplies the latissimus dorsi and therefore would be used as the pedicle for the flap. A surgeon is performing a lumbar laminectomy and discectomy for an L5-S1 disc herniation that has protruded into the epidural space. Which of the following parts of the disc should be removed? A.nucleus pulposus B.annulus fibrosus C.anterior annulus D.anterior ligament - Correct Answer-A. The nucleus pulposus is correct because the nucleus pulposus is the soft inner part of the disc that protrudes outside of the annulus fibrosus when it tears. During heart transplant surgery, which of the following is the correct order of chamber/vessel anastomosis? A.right atrium, left atrium, aorta, pulmonary artery B.left atrium, right atrium, aorta, pulmonary artery C.Xaorta, pulmonary artery, left atrium, right atrium