CST Exam With Complete Solutions Latest Update 1, Exams of Nursing

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Which of the following is a sign of cardiac arrest? A. edema B.convulsion C. cyanosis D. hypertension - correct answers c While being transferred from the stretcher to the operating room bed, the patient expresses fear of not awakening from anesthesia. The surgical technologist should A. proceed with the transfer and disregard patient comments. B. explain the action of the anesthetic agent. C. reassure the patient that the anesthetic is safe. D. have the anesthesia care provider address the patient's concerns. - correct answers d Which of the following rongeurs is used to expand the antrostomy in a Caldwell-Luc procedure? A. Cushing B. Bethune C. Kerrison D. Stille-Luer - correct answers c

During a procedure, a surgical technologist notices a hole in his glove. Which of the following should be done next? A. Continue the case. B. Change the glove using the open-gloving technique. C. Change the glove using the closed-gloving technique. D. Break scrub, rescrub, gown and glove. - correct answers b Which of the following is an unexpected occurrence that involves physiologic or psychologic injury or death? A. unintentional tort B. sentinel event C. negligence D. malpractice - correct answers b The tissue that covers bones and provides movement to the skeletal system is A. nerve. B. cartilage. C. muscle. D. ligament. - correct answers C. Muscles are tissue that cover bone and provide movement to the skeletal system.

Which of the following is MOST commonly used for wound closure in the presence of infection? A. stainless steel B. polyglactin- C. plain gut D. silk - correct answers A. Stainless steel suture is recommended for use in infected areas because it is non- absorbable with indefinite tensile strength A 15-year-old girl with anemia will be undergoing an exploratory procedure and a blood transfusion will be necessary. The parents are Jehovah's Witnesses and will not consent to a blood transfusion, but the patient states that she wants the transfusion. The operating room staff reports this to the nurse manager. Which of the following is the BEST course of action now? A. The physician or nurse manager should contact the hospital's clergy to provide an intervention. B. The operating room staff should inform the patient that her parents must give consent before she can receive the transfusion. C. The operating room staff should inform the patient that since she is a minor, she cannot make health care decisions for herself. D. The physician or nurse manager should contact the hospital's administration to request that legal counsel becomes involved. - correct answers D. Since the patient is 15 and may understand the consequences of her

actions, the physician or nurse manager should contact the hospital's administration to request that legal counsel becomes involved. They will be able to advise the operating room staff as to the best course of action considering all of the legal and ethical implications. A surgical technologist counts only 9 sponges in a pack on the initial count. After recounting the sponges, it is confirmed that there are only 9 sponges in the pack. Which of the following is the appropriate course of action? A. Change the count sheet to match the initial count and use the sponges from the current package. B. Leave the current package on the surgical field; document the problem; open a new package; recount. C. Remove the current package from the surgical field, but not the operating room; document the problem; open a new package; recount. D. Remove the current package from the operating room; document the problem; open a new package; and recount. - correct answers C. If a package of sponges contains an incorrect number, it should immediately be handed off the sterile field and documented. It should be bagged, labeled as incorrect, and placed in a remote location in the OR. A new package of sponges should be opened and counted. When utilizing a laparoscopic set-up, potential hazards associated with the equipment include

A. non-ionizing radiation. B. nitrogen embolus. C. pneumoperitoneum. D. fiberoptic beam fire. - correct answers D. The intense fiberoptic beam can ignite the patient's drapes and cause fires. Therefore, cameras should be turned off when not in use and should be appropriately placed during procedures. A patient with multiple trauma injuries requires surgical intervention. The patient has a history of DVT and is currently taking anticoagulants. Which of the following should be done to ensure a clot does not develop? A. Administer a subcutaneous anticoagulant preoperatively. B. Continue current anticoagulation therapy. C. Place a sequential compression device on lower extremities. D. Draw a PT-PTT and send the patient to surgery. - correct answers C. Sequential compression devices are clinically proven to help in the prevention of developing clots. Which of the following catheters is MOST commonly used to perform an embolectomy? A. Robinson B. Fogarty

C. Malecot D. Angiocath - correct answers B. A Fogarty catheter is inserted past the clot, then inflated to remove the clot. A surgeon is performing a procedure to repair damage from a gunshot wound to the chest. Which of the following types of drains should the surgical technologist have available at the end of the procedure? A. passive B. suction C. gravity D. underwater - correct answers D. An underwater drain is used to pull fluid or air from the thoracic cavity after surgery or trauma to the thorax. It is used to restore negative pressure to the thoracic cavity. Which of the following structures is behind and below the base of the penis? A. scrotum B. seminal vesicles C. vas deferens D. prepuce - correct answers A. The scrotum is located behind and below the base of the penis. A T-tube drain may be used following

A. a splenectomy. B. a choledochotomy. C. an appendectomy. D. a herniorrhaphy. - correct answers B. A T-tube drain is used to irrigate and to demonstrate patency of the common bile duct. A T-tube's unique design fits into the common duct and facilitates drainage outside of the body. While removing peel pack instruments from the sterilizer, a surgical technologist notices several of the packages have ruptured. Which of the following would MOST likely be the cause of this? A. The air was not evacuated from the pouch. B. The temperature of the autoclave was too high. C. The package was sterilized too long. D. The instruments in the pouch were too heavy. - correct answers A. Air should be evacuated from the pouch before it is sealed. Otherwise, the package may rupture during sterilization. For steam sterilization, biological indicators should be placed A. in the most challenging area of the load. B. at the center of the load. C. in the least challenging area of the load.

D. at the top of the load. - correct answers A. The test pack is placed in the area of the sterilizer that is most difficult for the sterilant to reach. Which of the following instruments may be used to clamp the aorta? A. Doyen B. Duval C. Bulldog D. Satinsky - correct answers D. A Satinsky may be used to clamp large vessels such as the aorta The drug MOST commonly used to treat ventricular tachycardia is A. epinephrine (Adrenalin). B. nitroglycerin (Nitrostat). C. lidocaine (Xylocaine). D. norepinephrine (Levophed). - correct answers C. Lidocaine is an antiarrhythmic. Which of the following types of anesthetic is injected during a Bier block? A. bupivacaine (Marcaine) B. lidocaine (Xylocaine) with epinephrine C. bupivacaine (Marcaine) with epinephrine

D. lidocaine (Xylocaine) - correct answers D. Lidocaine (Xylocaine) when utilized for regional Bier block anesthesia does not carry as significant a risk for anesthetic agent toxicity as bupivacaine (Marcaine). Which of the following does NOT result after dipping a bloody RAY-TEC sponge into irrigation solution? A. The solution is tainted. B. Lint is released into the solution. C. The solution is diluted. D. Cellular components are released into the solution. - correct answers B. The RAY-TEC sponges will not release lint into the solution because they are lint free. Which of the following statements is true regarding surgical correction of a Colles' fracture? A. The distal radius is fractured and the periosteum will be closed with absorbable sutures. B. The distal fibula is fractured and the periosteum will be closed with absorbable sutures. C. The proximal tibia is fractured and the endosteum will be closed with non-absorbable sutures. D. The proximal ulna is fractured and the endosteum will be closed with non-absorbable sutures. - correct answers A. In a Colles' fracture, the distal radius is fractured at the epiphysis within 2.54 centimeters of the wrist joint, forcing the hand into a dorsal and lateral position.

When a hernia is strangulated, which of the following instrument sets is added to the general abdominal set- up? A. rectal B. vascular C. common duct D. gastrointestinal - correct answers D. A resection of necrotic bowel calls for gastrointestinal instrumentation. Which of the following is used to cross-clamp the intestine during a bowel resection? A. Allen B. Lahey C. Heaney D. Duval - correct answers A. The Allen clamp is an intestinal clamp. On which of the following would an antiseptic be used? A. skin surface B. anesthesia masks C. intravenous tubing D. operating room table - correct answers A. Antiseptics are safe to use on human tissues.

Which of the following destroys bacterial spores? A. germicide B. antiseptic C. sterilant D. fungicide - correct answers C. Sterilants destroy microbes including spore-forming organisms. A patient presented in the OR without family history related to anesthesia complications. Which of the following complications is of MOST concern related to the lack of family history? A. malignant hyperthermia B. bronchospasm C. cardiac arrest D. transfusion reaction - correct answers A. Malignant hyperthermia is a rare but life-threatening reaction triggered in susceptible individuals by administration of certain anesthetic agents. It is an inherited muscle condition that causes a hypermetabolic state in patients exposed to those specific trigger agents. The destruction of organisms in an autoclave is accomplished by the A. division of the nucleus. B. desiccation of the nucleus. C. coagulation of cell protein.

D. destruction of the cell membrane. - correct answers C. Thermal destruction denatures and coagulates cell proteins. The first pair of cranial nerves is associated with which of the following? A. smell B. sight C. speech D. balance - correct answers A. Smell is associated with the first pair of cranial nerves (olfactory). The diagnostic procedure that examines the interior of the respiratory structures is A. bronchoscopy. B. culdoscopy. C. esophagoscopy. D. mediastinoscopy. - correct answers A. Bronchoscopy is the viewing of the tracheobronchial tree. Which of the following is classified as a clean- contaminated wound (Class II)? A. suprapubic prostatectomy B. incision and drainage of abscessed foot C. coronary artery bypass graft (CABG)

D. gunshot wound - correct answers A. A suprapubic prostatectomy is classified as a clean-contaminated wound because the genitourinary tract is entered under controlled conditions. A device used to measure fluid pressure is known as a A. capnometer. B. manometer. C. spirometer. D. thermometer. - correct answers B. A manometer measures fluid pressure. Which of the following wound classes is assigned to a bowel case in which the resident perforated during the procedure? A. I B. II C. III D. IV - correct answers C. Class III indicates that gross spillage from the gastrointestinal tract occurred during the procedure. Where is the gastrocnemius muscle located? A. arm B. calf

C. back D. thigh - correct answers B. The gastrocnemius is a muscle in the posterior portion of the lower leg. Which of the following instruments is used to grasp the base of the hemorrhoid during a hemorrhoidectomy? A. Allis B. Pennington C. Kocher D. mosquito - correct answers A. An Allis is a grasping forceps used to grasp the base of a hemorrhoid during a hemorrhoidectomy. For a splenectomy procedure, which of the following clamps could be used? A. Allen B. Doyen C. Duval D. Satinsky - correct answers D. A Satinsky is an atraumatic clamp used for vascular cases. Which of the following is an absorbable suture? A. silk B. nylon C. polypropylene (Prolene)

D. polyglycolic acid (Dexon) - correct answers D. Polyglycolic acid is an absorbable suture. A trauma patient from a motor vehicle accident is on the way to the operating room. Which of the following injuries is MOST likely related to airbag deployment? A. liver or spleen lacerations B. femur fracture C. arm fractures D. bruising of the heart muscle - correct answers C. Humeral, radial, and ulnar fractures are commonly associated with airbag deployment. Which of the following solutions can be used to disinfect endoscopic instruments? A. iodophors B. ethyl alcohol 70% C. phenolic compounds D. activated glutaraldehyde - correct answers D. Activated glutaraldehyde is a high-level disinfectant widely used for disinfection of endoscopes Which of the following may be needed during an emergency splenectomy that may not be required during a routine splenectomy? A. CUSA

B. Sarot clamp C. vascular sets D. ligating clip appliers - correct answers B. A Sarot clamp would be required for an emergency splenectomy, but may not be required for a routine splenectomy. During a laser laryngoscopy, which of the following supplies must be available? A. wet sponges, towels, and sterile water B. microscope, sterile water, and bronchoscope C. sterile water, thyroid tray, and methylene blue D. tracheotomy tray and tube, bronchoscope, and sterile water - correct answers A. Sterile water must be available in the event of a fire to keep sponges and towels wet so that they do not ignite. Clostridium A. aerobic B. anaerobic C. Gram-negative D. non-spore-forming - correct answers B. anaerobic Which of the following is necessary for ethylene oxide sterilization to occur? A. indirect contact B. gravity displacement

C. humidity D. steam - correct answers C. Spores must be hydrated to facilitate passage of the ethylene oxide into the organism. In comparison to oral Fahrenheit temperatures, rectal Fahrenheit temperatures are A. exactly the same. B. approximately 1 degree lower. C. approximately 1 degree higher. D. approximately 2 degrees higher. - correct answers C. Rectal temperatures are 1 degree higher than oral temperatures. During an excisional biopsy of sentinel nodes, the surgical technologist should prepare specimens using which of the following methods? A. Place on a RAY-TEC to be handed off to the circulator. B. Separate on Telfa and pass to the circulator. C. Place in separate containers and identify. D. Place in specimen container held by the circulator using a hemostat. - correct answers C. The surgical technologist must place each node in a separate sterile container and ensure that they are identified appropriately. Which of the following is a specimen container used in a flexible or rigid bronchoscopy?

A. Ellik B. chest bottle C. Lukens D. suction canister - correct answers C. A Lukens trap is used to collect secretions as they are suctioned. A colonoscopy has just concluded, and it is time to reprocess the instruments utilized in the case. Which of the following is the MOST effective method for processing the endoscopes? A. gravity displacement sterilizer B. ethylene oxide C. cobalt-60 radiation D. glutaraldehyde - correct answers D. Glutaraldehyde is a form of high level disinfection recommended for semicritical items, such as endoscopes. Place the following phases of wound healing by first intention in correct order from first to last: I. proliferation II. remodeling III. inflammatory A. I, II, III B. II, I, III C. III, I, II

D. III, II, I - correct answers C. The inflammatory phase begins within minutes of a tissue trauma. The proliferation phase begins on the third day following tissue trauma. The remodeling phase begins 14 days following tissue trauma. When a cholecystectomy is performed, which of the following anatomical structures must be preserved? A. cystic duct B. cystic vein C. common duct D. cystic artery - correct answers C. The common duct is preserved in order to drain bile or perform a common bile duct exploration. Which of the following procedures treats a congenital obstructed lesion found at the distal end of an infant's stomach? A. gastrostomy B. Nissen fundoplication C. Heller myotomy D. pyloromyotomy - correct answers D. Infantile pyloric stenosis is relieved by removing the congenital obstructive lesion in the pylorus of the stomach. This procedure is called pyloromyotomy.

When an anesthetized patient's position is changed from lithotomy to supine, the patient's legs should be lowered slowly to prevent which of the following? A. hypotension B. laryngospasm C. respiratory distress D. peroneal nerve damage - correct answers A. The legs should be lowered slowly because blood supply has been altered by the position. They should be lowered simultaneously to avoid lumbar torsion. A pad-like sac or cavity that prevents friction within a joint is known as a A. bursa. B. fossa. C. ganglion. D. ligament. - correct answers A. The bursa is a pad-like sac or cavity found in connective tissues, usually in the vicinity of joints. During an abdominoperineal resection, which of the following stapling devices should the surgical technologist have available to form an anal pouch from the ileum? A. TA B. GIA

C. EEA

D. LDS - correct answers B. The gastrointestinal anastomosis (GIA) stapler is used to form an anal pouch from the ileum. During a tympanoplasty, which of the following is the best choice for graft material? A. temporal bone B. temporalis fascia C. vestibular membrane D. a Teflon graft - correct answers B. A temporalis fascia graft most resembles the tissue of the tympanic membrane. A patient is complaining of nausea, fever, and severe back pain. The patient was previously diagnosed with hyperparathyroidism. This patient MOST likely suffers from A. kidney stones. B. glomerulonephritis. C. hydrocele. D. chordee. - correct answers A. Kidney stones may be seen in many different diseases including hyperparathyroidism. Symptoms include unbearable pain, nausea, and fever.

The MOST common method for decontaminating operating room floors at the end of each case is to A. damp mop or wet vacuum with a virucidal solution. B. wet vacuum with a virucidal solution. C. damp mop or wet vacuum with a detergent- disinfectant solution. D. dry vacuum, then damp mop with a detergent- disinfectant solution. - correct answers C. Depending upon hospital policy, damp mopping or wet vacuuming with a detergent-disinfectant solution is the most common method of decontamination. Which of the following parts of the body are prepped for an ORIF of the olecranon process? A. leg, foot to knee B. leg, foot to hip C. arm, fingers to shoulder D. arm, fingers to elbow - correct answers C. The olecranon process is located at the elbow. An arm prep, fingers to shoulder, on the affected arm provides adequate coverage. Surgery to repair a Colles' fracture is performed on which of the following types of bone? A. long

B. short C. flat D. irregular - correct answers A. Colles' fractures occur to the distal radial head. The radius is classified as a long bone. Which of the following is a preferred retractor for a groin incision? A. Weitlaner B. Finochietto C. O'Sullivan-O'Connor D. Balfour - correct answers A. A Weitlaner is the retractor of choice for a groin incision Which of the following is a monofilament suture? A. silk B. cotton C. Ethibond D. Prolene - correct answers D. Prolene (polypropylene) is a monofilament suture. During surgery, a patient becomes hypotensive. Which of the following medications should be given? A. cephalexin (Keflex)

B. propofol (Diprivan) C. epinephrine (Adrenalin) D. furosemide (Lasix) - correct answers C. Epinephrine is a vasoconstrictor that causes an elevation in blood pressure. Which of the following procedures repairs a ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm? A. endarterectomy B. debridement with irrigation C. excision with graft placement D. portacaval shunt - correct answers C. Excision and/or internal bypass of an attenuated widening of the aortic wall requires insertion of a prosthetic graft to repair an abdominal aneurysm. Which of the following procedures involves the injection of contrast media into the spinal subarachnoid space A. myelogram B. arteriogram C. lumbar puncture D. pneumography - correct answers A. A myelogram is the injection of contrast media into the spine subarachnoid space.

Which of the following types of connective tissue fastens muscle to bone? A. cartilage B. ligament C. synovium D. tendon - correct answers D. Tendon is a type of connective tissue that connects muscle to bone. When performing a Shirodkar procedure, on which of the following is attention being focused? A. cervix B. mouth C. stomach D. small intestine - correct answers A. During a Shirodkar procedure, a polyester (Mersilene) tape is drawn around the internal os of the cervix and tied. This is done to prevent early dilation of an incompetent cervix. Which of the following surgical procedures may be used to remove a carcinoma from the head of the pancreas? A. Heller B. Whipple C. Bankart