CTR Exam (Latest Update 2023 – 2024) Questions With All Correct Verified Answers, Exams of Nursing

Download CTR Exam (Latest Update 2023 – 2024) Questions With All Correct Verified Answers and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! CTR Exam (Latest Update 2023 – 2024) Questions With All Correct Verified Answers Which of the following is a permissible disclosure of confidential patient information from the cancer registry? a. to a facility not involved with the patient's care b. to the pt c. to another registry for f/u purposes d. to the pt's attorney - To another registry for f/u purposes What is a source of ca incidence & survival data from pop-based ca registries covering ~28% of US pop? a. ACoS CoC b. CDC NPCR c. NAACCR d. NCI SEER program - NCI SEER program Medical data that are combined w/o pt identifiers are: a. Aggregate data b. Confidential data c. Pop-based data d. Unusable data - Aggregate data Which of the following information must healthcare organizations protect? a. employee information b. information about the organization c. individually identifiable pt health information d. all the above - All the above Terrie Tumor Registrar ompletes a productivity sheet at the end of each day listing tasks completed that day. This is a form of: a. budget b. time motion study c. step assessment d. work flow chart - Time motion study The use of password to verify that a person is who they purport to be before they are granted access to confidential data is: a. audit trail b. encryption c. firewall d. user authentication - User authetication All of the state ca registries in the US are required to submit their data to: a. the CDC National Program of Cancer Registries (NPCR) b. the NCI SEER Program c. Either CDC/NPCR or NCI/SEER d. None o fthe above - Eiither CDC/NPCR or NCI/SEER Caitlin Cancer Registrar is the cancer registry manager. She received a budget for the registry from the office of the facility's chief financial officer This type of budget is: a. bottom-up b. capital c. operating d. top-down - top-down The organization that formulates & publishes systems to classify ca to be used for selecting effective tx, determining prognosis, and evaluating ca control measures in the: a. AJCC b. NAACCR c. CoC d. SEER PROGRAM - AJCC Danielle Data Manager is preparing to submit data from the hospital cancer registry to the state CR. What is used to facilitate the data exchange? a. Firewall b. NAACCR data exchange record layout c. Record linkage d. SEER program - NAACCR data exchange record layout The CP of the medical center on XYZ Air Force Base submits their cases to the Automated Central Tumor Registry (ACTUR) & to the NCDB. The CP has a: a. Hospital/institution-based ca registry b. Network ca registry c. non-pop based cancer registry d. pop-based central cancer registry - Hospital/institution-based ca registry The ability for a cancer registry to incorporate electronic data from an external source into the registry and the ability for external recipients to incorporate registry data for their use is: a. interoperability b. not permitted c. semantic d. syntactic - interoperability What type of CR is designated to determine cancer patterns among various pop, monitor ca trends over time, and evaluate ca control efforts? a. familial b. hospital-based lumpectomy and SLN bx on 8/29/16 at JKL Hosp w/ residual DCIS and no mets in LN. What is the pt's date of dx? a. 4/1/2016 b. 4/8/2016 c. 4/29/2016 d. 8/29/2016 - 4/1/2016 In the scenario above, what is the code for diagnostic confirmation? a. 1 pos histology b. 4 pos, method not specified c. 6 Visualization d. 7 Radiography - 1 pos histology Pt was dx w/ & tx for breast ca @ Facility AA in 2010. The pt was admitted in June 2016 to Facility ZZ to be treated for liver mets from breast ca. Facility ZZ has a CoC accredited ca program. What type of case is this for Facility ZZ? a. accession b. analytic c. non-analytic d. suspense - non-analytic Linkage of the ca registry database to files from the state department of motor vechicles was performed. This type of f/u is most likely done by the: a. Hospital-based ca registry b. NCDB c. NPCR d. State central ca registry - State central ca registry Final path dx: Adenoca of the endometrium, FIGO GR I, w/ central stromal invasion, FIGO stage II. What is the code for the GR data item? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 9 - 1 Primary tumors of the brain & CNS are reportable when the tumor behavior is: a. benign b. borderline c. malig d. all of the above - All of the above Ca registry staff @ Hosp DD create an abstract for a ca pt within 1 wk of hosp discharge & add information from later visits or other sources as it becomes available. The process is? a. casefinding b. concurrent abstracting c. f/u d. suspense system - Concurrent abstracting The process of living w/, through, and beyond ca is: a. a care plan b. outcomes c. survivorship d. treatment - Survivorship Liver bx: mets poorly diff adenoca, most likely lung origin. What is the code for the GR data item? a. 1 b. 3 c. 4 d. 9 - 3 Which of the following are paired sites? a. Skin of the external ear b. ovary c. tonsil d. kidney e. colon f. ureter - a, b, c, d, f TRUE OR FALSE. Adrenal gland is a paired site - True Cancer in humans was first seen: a. in 1842 by an Italian physician b. in 2500 B.C. c. around 460 to 370 B.C. d. in 1629 in England - in 2500 B.C. The word ca was 1st used by: a. the Greek physician Hippocrates b. ancient Egyptians c. the Edwin Smith & George Ebers papyri - the Greek physician Hippocrates The term surveillance as applied to public health means: a. monitoring death certificate case of death information b. monitoring of the occurrence of selected health conditions in the pop c. studying the cause of ca d. recording information on a dz - monitoring of the occurrence of selected health conditions in the pop The oldest ex of a modem ca registry is: a. Dr.Ernest Codman's Registry of Bone Sarcoma b. the Connecticut Tumor Registry c. the Hamburg Ca Registry in Germany d. the SEER Program - the Hamburg Ca Registry in Germany Which of the following are types of ca registries? 1. Pop-based registries 2. State ca registries 3. Specialty ca registries 4. Hospital-based ca registries a. 1,2, and 3 b. 2,3, and 4 c. 1,3, and 4 d. all of the above - 1,3, and 4 TRUE OR FALSE. Each state in the US has a pop-based state-wide central ca registry. - True Death certificate information from the vital statistics registration system. Hosp-based ca registry, Pop-based ca registry, or Specialty ca registry may be more than one - Pop-based ca registries Pts dx in independent path labs Hosp-based ca registry, Pop-based ca registry, or Specialty ca registry may be more than one - Pop-based ca registry Active f/u information on registered pts Hosp-based ca registry, Pop-based ca registry, or Specialty ca registry may be more than one - Hosp-based ca registry Pts dx &/or treated for ca @ a particular facility or facilities Hosp-based ca registry, Pop-based ca registry, or Specialty ca registry may be more than one - Hosp-based ca registry, pop-based registry Pts who voluntarily self-enroll Hosp-based ca registry, Pop-based ca registry, or Specialty ca registry may be more than one - Specialty ca registry Only pts w/ certain familial cancers Hosp-based ca registry, Pop-based ca registry, or Specialty ca registry may be more than one - Specialty ca registry Pts tx in independent ca centers Hosp-based ca registry, Pop-based ca registry, or Specialty ca registry may be more than one - pop-based ca registry Hosp-based ca registry, Pop-based ca registry, or Specialty ca registry may be more than one - hosp-based ca registry, specialty ca registry Exploration of trends in ca care Hosp-based ca registry, Pop-based ca registry, or Specialty ca registry may be more than one - pop-based ca registry Creation of regional & state benchmarks for hospitals Hosp-based ca registry, Pop-based ca registry, or Specialty ca registry may be more than one - pop-based ca registry Gathering & disseminating epidemiologic data on a specific type of ca Hosp-based ca registry, Pop-based ca registry, or Specialty ca registry may be more than one - Specialty ca registry Determination of ca patterns among various pop or sub-pops Hosp-based ca registry, Pop-based ca registry, or Specialty ca registry may be more than one - pop-based ca registries Monitoring ca trends over time Hosp-based ca registry, Pop-based ca registry, or Specialty ca registry may be more than one - pop-based ca registries Guiding planning & evaluation of ca control efforts to help prioritize health resource allocations Hosp-based ca registry, Pop-based ca registry, or Specialty ca registry may be more than one - pop-based ca registries Improving pt care programs Hosp-based ca registry, Pop-based ca registry, or Specialty ca registry may be more than one - Hosp-based ca registry, pop-based ca registry Research into the cause of ca Hosp-based ca registry, Pop-based ca registry, or Specialty ca registry may be more than one - pop-based ca registry, specialty ca regristry Final pathologic diagnosis: Mucinous cystadenocarcinoma in the upper lobe, right lung. Primary site code is: a. C34.1 b. C56.9 c. C76.1 d. C80.9 - C34.1 Final pathologic diagnosis: Sarcoma of the leg. Primary site code is: a. C44.7 b. C49.2 c. C76.5 d. C80.9 - C49.2 Final pathologic diagnosis: Well differentiated infiltrating duct adenocarcinoma of the left breast (3 o'clock). Primary site code is: a. C50.2 b. C50.4 c. C50.8 d. C50.9 - C50.8 Final pathologic diagnosis: Cholangiocarcinoma of the bile duct. Primary site code is: a. C22.1 b. C24.0 c. C24.9 d. C80.9 - C24.0 Patient diagnosed with 3 tumors of the right breast simultaneously determined to be a single primary; 1 in the lower outer quadrant and 2 in the upper outer quadrant. Primary site code is: a. C50.4 b. C50.5 c. C50.8 d. C50.9 - C50.9 Final diagnosis: Hepatocellular carcinoma. Primary site code is: a. C22.0 b. C76.2 c. C76.3 d. C80.9 - C22.0 Final pathologic diagnosis: Brenner tumor of the ovary, in situ. Morphology code is: a. 9000/0 b. 9000/1 c. 9000/2 d. 9000/3 - 9000/2 An elderly patient transferred to hospital from nursing home with myriad of chronic health problems. Chest x-ray shows suspicious lung mass. No further work-up done because of comorbid conditions. One of discharge diagnoses is probable lung cancer. Morphology code is: a. 8000/1 b. 8000/3 c. 8010/0 d. 8010/3 - 8000/3 72 year old white female presents with a nodular thyroid. This was biopsied in her primary care physician's office and found to be malignant. She is here for a complete thyroidectomy. Final pathology from total thyroidectomy performed on 7/15/16: Right lobe single papillary thyroid carcinoma, 1.8 cm. Left lobe is positive for multifocal follicular carcinoma. The largest foci measures 0.8 cm. Two lymph nodes submitted are negative for malignancy. How many primaries are present in case 1? a. One b. Two c. Three d. Four - One 72 year old white female presents with a nodular thyroid. This was biopsied in her primary care physician's office and found to be malignant. She is here for a complete thyroidectomy. Final pathology from total thyroidectomy performed on 7/15/16: Right lobe single papillary thyroid carcinoma, 1.8 cm. Left lobe is positive for multifocal follicular carcinoma. The largest foci measures 0.8 cm. Two lymph nodes submitted are negative for malignancy What is the histology code? a. 8260/3 b. 8330/3 c. 8340/3 d. Primary 1 8260/3; primary 2 8330/3 - 8340/3 10/4/16 Surgical Pathology Report Final Diagnosis: Lung, right upper lobectomy - two tumor nodules of carcinoma consistent with pulmonary primary identified. One nodule is most likely clear cell carcinoma while the other nodule is consistent with squamous cell carcinoma. How many primaries were present in case 2? a. One b. Two c. Three d. Four - 2 10/4/16 Surgical Pathology Report Final Diagnosis: Lung, right upper lobectomy - two tumor nodules of carcinoma consistent with pulmonary primary identified. One nodule is most likely clear cell carcinoma while the other nodule is consistent with squamous cell carcinoma. What is the histology code? a. 8010/3 b. 8070/3 c. 8310/3 Splenic flexure, colon: Moderately-differentiated invasive adenocarcinoma involving the entire thickness of the colonic wall. Clear margins of resection. Twenty regional lymph nodes without evidence of metastatic adenocarcinoma. What is the histology code? a. 8140/3 b. 8210/3 c. 8262/3 d. Primary 1 8210/3; Primary 2 8140/3 - Primary 1 8210/3; primary 8140/3 1. Peripheral blood smear diagnosed leukemia. Diagnostic confirmation code is: a. 1 Positive histology b. 2 Positive cytology c. 5 Positive laboratory test/marker study d. 8 Clinical diagnosis only - pos histology Patient with leukemia has splenomegaly. Primary site is: a. Blood b. Bone marrow c. Lymph nodes d. Spleen - Bone marrow When it is suspected that multiple lymph nodes, lymph node regions, and/or organs are involved with lymphoma, what is biopsied? a. All lymph nodes b. Extra-lymphatic site c. Most accessible lymph node d. Primary site - Most accessible LN Phlebotomy is coded as treatment for: a. Leukemia b. Lymphoma c. Polycythemia vera d. All of the above - polycythemia vera What usually originates in lymph nodes and includes the microscopic presence of Reed Sternberg cells? a. Carcinoma b. Hodgkin lymphoma c. Leukemia d. Non-Hodgkin lymphoma - Hodgkin lymphoma leuko - white cyte - cell hemo - blood lysis - destruction, breakdown carcino - crab, ca oma - tumor neo - new osteo - bone genic - forming, producing bronchi - lrg passageway of lung ectasis - expansion, dilation plasm means - growth metro - uterus rrhea - flow, discharge The gastrointestinal tract, kidneys, and adrenal glands are located in the: a. Abdominal cavity b. Cranial cavity c. Pelvic cavity d. Thoracic cavity - abd cavity Which of the following skin malignancies has the worse prognosis? a. Basal cell carcinoma b. Malignant melanoma c. Merkel cell carcinoma d. Squamous cell carcinoma - Merkel cell ca Ductal carcinoma is a common histology in: a. Breast b. Pancreas c. Both a and b d. Neither a or b - both beast and pancreas What type of lung cancer is more likely to be metastatic at the time of diagnosis? a. Adenocarcinoma b. Non-small cell carcinoma c. Small cell carcinoma d. Squamous cell carcinoma - small cell ca Histology is urothelial carcinoma. Primary site is most likely: a. Kidney b. Prostate c. Renal pelvis d. Testis - Renal pelvis Patient was treated with Mohs surgery. Primary site is most likely: a. Breast b. Colon c. Prostate d. Skin - Skin Which of the following is extralymphatic? a. Axillary lymph node b. Spleen c. Stomach d. Both b and c - stomach Cystoscopy would most likely be part of the work-up for cancer of which site? a. Bladder b. Kidney c. Prostate d. Ureter - Bladder The site of origin of a leiomyosarcoma is most likely the: a. Cervix b. Endometrium c. Myometrium d. Ovary - Myometrium Cancer of what site had both the 3rd highest expected incidence and 3rd highest expected mortality rates in 2016 for both males and females in the United States? a. Bladder b. Colon/rectum c. Lung d. Pancreas - Colon/rectum Surgery Use Appendix B from FORDS 2016 to complete Surgical Procedure of Primary Site questions. Only code the most definitive surgical procedure. 8/12/2016 Operative Report: Right lumpectomy with needle localization and sentinel lymph node (1) biopsy 8/12/2016 Pathology: b. 32 c. 46 d. 47 - 47 8/8/2016 Operative Report: Excisional biopsy of skin of right upper arm. 8/8/2016 Pathology: 3.0 cm nodule, skin of arm; malignant melanoma, nodular type; Breslow measurement 11.80 mm; Clark level 4; extensive ulceration; no regression; mitotic index 10/mm2; no LVI; no satellite lesions; positive margin (deep margin); unknown vertical growth phase. 10/21/2016 Operative Report: Wide local excision of right upper arm lesion with 2.5 cm margins, excision of subcutaneous lesion on the right chest wall, and right axillary sentinel lymph node biopsy. 10/21/2016 Pathology: Wide excision right upper arm - residual deep dermal subcutaneous mass of malignant melanoma measuring 3.4 mm; 2.5 cm margin of healthy tissue is present. Right chest wall excision - 5 cm lesion subcutaneous lesion, metastatic malignant melanoma with positive deep margin. Sentinel node biopsy - axillary soft tissue metastasis widely free from peripheral/deep margins; 0/8 lymph nodes, negative IHC. What is the code for Scope of Regional Lymph Node Surgery? a. 2 b. 3 c. 5 d. 7 - 2 5/27/2016 Operative Report: Robotic assisted laparoscopic prostatectomy and bilateral pelvic lymphadenectomy. 5/27/2016 Pathology: Adenocarcinoma, right and left prostate lobes, involvement of 60% of left lobe and 30% of right lobe; Gleason score 3+4+7; extra-prostatic tumor extension not identified; no LVI; no evidence of malignancy in right and left seminal vesicles. Right pelvic nodes - 0/6 positive; left pelvic nodes - 0/10 nodes positive. What is the code for Surgical Procedure of Primary Site? a. 23 b. 30 c. 50 d. 70 - 50 5/27/2016 Operative Report: Robotic assisted laparoscopic prostatectomy and bilateral pelvic lymphadenectomy. 5/27/2016 Pathology: Adenocarcinoma, right and left prostate lobes, involvement of 60% of left lobe and 30% of right lobe; Gleason score 3+4+7; extra-prostatic tumor extension not identified; no LVI; no evidence of malignancy in right and left seminal vesicles. Right pelvic nodes - 0/6 positive; left pelvic nodes - 0/10 nodes positive. What is the code for Scope of Regional Lymph Node Surgery? a. 2 b. 3 c. 5 d. 6 - 5 1/22/2016 Operative Report: Total mesorectal resection with resection of mesenteric lymph nodes. 1/22/2016 Pathology: Low grade adenocarcinoma of the rectum, 1.2 x 0.8 x 0.5 cm tumor confined to the submucosa; proximal, distal, and circumferential margins uninvolved. Grade 2 treatment effect is present. LVI and perineural invasion not identified. No tumor deposits. 1/36 mesenteric lymph nodes positive for metastasis. What is the code for Surgical Procedure of Primary Site? a. 27 b. 22 c. 30 d. 60 - 30 1/22/2016 Operative Report: Total mesorectal resection with resection of mesenteric lymph nodes. 1/22/2016 Pathology: Low grade adenocarcinoma of the rectum, 1.2 x 0.8 x 0.5 cm tumor confined to the submucosa; proximal, distal, and circumferential margins uninvolved. Grade 2 treatment effect is present. LVI and perineural invasion not identified. No tumor deposits. 1/36 mesenteric lymph nodes positive for metastasis. What is the code for Scope of Regional Lymph Node Surgery? a. 2 b. 3 c. 5 d. 6 - 5 On 12/31/16 the cancer registry at Sacred Heart Hospital had 18,000 analytic cases with a registry reference date of 1/1/94. 8000 of those cases had been diagnosed within the last 5 years. How many of eligible analytic cases diagnosed need to have had follow-up within the last year? a. 0 b. 6,400 c. 7,200 d. 8,000 - 7200 Central Cancer Registry AA has a tumor record for John Smith with a lung primary. A second tumor record is submitted to Central Registry AA for John Smith with a colon primary. The records match, but a 1 year difference in date of birth is identified. This was identified by: a. Single field edit b. Inter-field edit c. Inter-record edit d. Inter-database edit - Inter-record edit In CoC accredited cancer programs, what data are used as benchmarks for patient care and quality improvement (QI)? a. Discharge data b. NCDB c. Registry data d. Surveillance data - NCDB What needs to be provided to data collectors as part of the registry quality control program to ensure that change is affected? a. Communication and feedback b. Edit sets c. Planned set of activities d. Uniform standards of quality - Communication & feedback Central Cancer Registry LNMOP annually performs casefinding audits at 20% of the reporting facilities in the state. The audits are performed to evaluate: a. Adherence to coding guidelines b. Case incidence completeness c. Data completeness d. Timeliness - Case incidence completeness All case abstractors in facilities that submitted cancer data to the state central registry were required to abstract the same 5 cancer cases as part of a reliability study. This is a way to evaluate what aspect of data quality? a. Accuracy b. Completeness c. Consistency d. Timeliness - Consistency A 10 percent sample of abstracts from Hospital A for a specified time period was selected and specified data items were coded by central registry quality control staff using the text provided on the abstract and compared to the codes on the submitted abstract. What type of quality control procedure is this? a. Casefinding study b. Reabstracting study c. Recoding audit d. Visual editing - Recording audit The central registry from state DD performed a study in hospital X. A sample of abstracts was selected. Central registry staff abstracted the cases using original source documents from the facility, and the abstracts completed by the central registry were compared to the original abstracts. This type of study is: a. Casefinding b. Reabstracting c. Recoding d. Reliability - Reabstracting B. Y Y Y N C. Y N Y Y D. Y Y Y Y - YYYY The three basic elements required for a disease to occur are: a. Agent, host, environment b. Observe, disease frequency, test c. Person, exposure, prevention d. Person, place, time - Agent host enironment A central registry is performing survival analysis of patients in the registry with colon cancer as a cause of death. This is referred to as: a. Relative survival b. Cause specific survival c. Observed all cause survival d. Net survival - Cause specific survival The thoracic surgeon at your facility requested a report of newly diagnosed lung cancer patients for a specific time period. The report included the following age categories: 39 and under, 40-49, 50-59, 60-69, 70-79, 80 and over. These age categories are: a. Hospital-specific b. Mutually exclusive c. Overlapping d. Wrong - Mutually exclusive The following are the ages of children diagnosed with leukemia at Hospital XYZ in 2016: 7, 2, 4, 3, 9. What is the median age of this group? a. 4 b. 5 c. 7 d. 25 - 4 What type of graphic would best display the percentage of specific types of lung cancer diagnosed at the facility in 2016? a. Bar graph b. Line graph c. Pie chart d. Summary table - Pie chart The rate of deaths due to cancer occurring in 2016 in Chicago, IL is a(n): a. Incidence rate b. Morbidity rate c. Mortality rate d. Prevalence rate - Mortality rate The chief financial officer comes to the cancer registry looking for data on breast cancer treatment at the facility. What is the first thing you must do before completing the data request? a. Choose the data items b. Define the purpose c. Identify the audience d. Select appropriate cases - Identify the audience A researcher used SEER data to calculate an estimate of the number of women with breast cancer in Iowa on a certain date. This estimate is: a. Age-adjusted rate b. Incidence c. Mortality d. Prevalence - Prevalence A censored patient... a. Only contributes to survival analysis until the point they are no longer followed. b. Is not included in any part of survival analysis c. Is not allowed to speak during the survival analysis d. None of the above - Only contributes to survival analysis until the point they are no longer followed Chi-square is used with categorical data to: a. Calculate the p-value b. Compare the means from two samples c. Refer to Student's t d. Show the difference between the observed frequency and the expected frequency - Show the difference between the observed frequency and the expected frequency Hospital A is planning to participate in a clinical trial of patients with advanced lung cancer. To protect the rights of patients involved in this clinical research, the study must be approved by the: a. Cancer Committee b. Cooperative Oncology Group c. Institutional Review Board (IRB) d. Intergroup - IRB What is the science concerned with the study of factors determining and influencing the frequency and distribution of disease in human populations? a. Entomology b. Epidemiology c. Etiology d. Ethics - Epidemiology You have been asked to create a report of stage of disease at diagnosis for breast cancer in 2015. What type of variable is stage of disease? a. Interval b. Nominal c. Ordinal d. Ratio - Ordinal In 2016 the population of Hamilton County was 802,000, and there were 650 newly diagnosed cases of lung cancer. When calculating the incidence rate of lung cancer in Hamilton County in 2016, what is 650? a. Denominator b. Numerator c. Prevalence d. Rate - Numerator Cancer data from Chatham County were reviewed by the Georgia Cancer Registry to determine the incidence rate of ovarian cancer in 2014 in the county. Women residing in Chatham County are the: a. Numerator b. Population at risk c. Sample d. Statistics - Population at risk Physicians from multiple healthcare facilities designed and implemented an oncology clinical trial. This is an example of: a. Cooperative oncology group b. Intergroup c. Phase I clinical trial d. Protocol - cooperative onc group As a cancer registrar, you have been asked by the Chief of Oncology to produce a graph depicting the number of cancer cases in your registry. She would like this presented for the previous fiscal year based on the top 5 primary sites. Which of the following would best illustrate this? In order to receive a commendation, under the RQRS standard, a ca program must submit all new & updated ca cases at least.... - Once each calendar month The community outreach coordinator documents the activities and findings of community outreach in an activity summary that is presented to the Ca Committee... - Each calendar year A source for quality improvements may include: - Chg(s) to improve acceptable pt care Central registry monitoring of facility case completeness should be performed: - On an ongoing basis Who is responsible for implementing the quality control plan in the ca registry? - The cancer registry quality coordinator SEER central registries are required to provide complete counts of new cases for a calendar year within ____________ months of the end of that calendar year. - 22 The quality control plan does the following: - Specifies the quality control methods, sources and indiviuals involved The CoC requires that a _________________% f/u rate be maintained for all eligible analytic cases dx within the last 5 years from the ca registry reference date, whichever is shorter - 90% Each year CoC accredited ca programs must submit complete data for all requested analytic cases to the: - NCDB The ca committee monitors the program's Estimated Performance Rates (EPR) for all quality measures using... - CP3R According to the CoC, the ca registry quality control plan includes: - Specifying the quality control methods, sources, and individual s involved A formal procedure to check data accuracy against source documents is called: - Reabstracting study The use of standard data item definitions facilitates: a. training procedures for coders. b. common editing procedures. c. comparability of data. d. all of the above. - all of the above Reliability refers to: a. how available the information is to the registrar. b. how consistently different people will code the same circumstances the same way. c. how quickly the information is coded after a treatment event takes place. d. all of the above. - how consistently different ppl will code the same circumstances the same way In 2010, the way registries transmit dates was changed to improve: a. continuity of date information over time. b. intraoperability of date transmission. c. reliability of date information. d. all of the above. - intraoperability of date transmission When an old item is no longer relevant: a. one or more new response categories may be added to the older item. b. the old item may be dropped, and no longer coded. c. both a and b - both a and b New cancer registry data items may be added: a. as a result of medical advances. b. as a result of advances in computer communication technology. c. as a result of more widespread access to and use of registry data. d. all of the above - all of the above Registries should never create data items for their own use. a. True b. False - False A good data item measures information that is usually available to abstractors. a. True b. False - True New standard data items for cancer registries are implemented at the beginning of a diagnosis year. a. True b. False - True NAACCR has no role in managing the generation of new registry data items. a. True b. False - False If the occupation code sometimes represents the patient's dominant lifetime occupation, sometimes the current occupation, and sometimes the most recent occupation, reliability can be improved by changing the codes applied. a. True b. False - False Both real-time reporting and increased use of electronic medical records may affect standard cancer data sets in the future. a. True b. False - True NAACCR's initial Spanish/Hispanic identification item worked equally well in states with large Hispanic populations and those with small Hispanic populations. d. There is consistent staffing. e. All of the above f. None of the above - all of the above Which statement(s) regarding the advantages of outsourcing the cancer registry is (are) true? a. The number of staff can often be increased or decreased quickly. b. Short- or long-term commitments can be negotiated. c. On-site or remote staffing can be negotiated. d. Specific aspects/projects or the entire responsibility of the cancer registry can be nego- tiated. e. All of the above f. None of the above - all of the above How often should time-motion studies be performed? a. At predetermined intervals or when a new or change of responsibility occurs b. Several times a year when the assigned person gets around to it c. Once a year d. When an employee leaves - At predetermined intervals or when a new or chg of responsibility occurs How many time-motion studies need to be done? a. Several b. One for each registry process or grouping of processes as determined by the cancer registry c. None as long as everyone knows their jobs d. None of the above - One for each registry process of grouping of processes as determined by ca Step assessments are a necessary part of time-motion studies. a. True b. False - true Registry staff can include: a. epidemiologists. b. CTRs. c. abstractors. d. follow-up clerks. e. statistical analysts. f. all of the above. g. none of the above. - all of the above Why would a registry need someone on-site? a. To staff cancer conferences or committee meetings b. To process incoming mail c. To manage outside requests for follow-up d. To handle hard copy reports e. All of the above f. None of the above - all of the above Which option(s) is (are) an advantage of having remote staff? a. Less office space needed at the facility b. Connectivity can be an issue c. Flexible hours d. Remote staff can work from anywhere, which gives the registry a larger pool of staff to choose from e. a, b, & c f. a, c, & d g. All of the above h. None of the above - a,c, & d For the majority of registries, it is better to hire an outsourcing company than to hire perma- nent staff. a. True b. False - False Which statement(s) about the effect electronic medical records has on registry operations is (are) true? a. Allows for remote workers b. Allows for chart retrieval from computers c. Aggregates the patient information d. Provides information in real or near real time e. All of the above f. None of the above - All of the above Which sentence(s) is (are) true? a. Computer monitors should be placed with the top line at or below eye level. b. Monitors should be directly in front of or facing windows. e. All of the above f. None of the above - All of the above Why does a registry continually monitor registry work flow? a. To keep up with current requirements b. To keep appropriate staffing levels c. To keep staff honest d. a & b e. b & c f. All of the above g. None of the above - a & b Law that covers wrongful acts that result in harm to another person, such as invasion of privacy, is called a ______ and can result in compensation to the injured party. - Tort Usually, federal law preempts state law, except where state law is: a. less strict than the federal law. b. more strict than the federal law. c. less effective than federal law. d. is less confusing than federal law. - more strict than the federal law. A court order to provide certain documents, such as medical records, is called a - subpoena A patient's right to personal privacy and confidential handling of medical records is covered under what important federal law concerned with health insurance portability? - HIPPAA Which of the following is NOT a federal administrative agency that may affect cancer reg- istry operations? a. The Commission on Cancer b. The National Cancer Institute c. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention d. Both b and c are not - The CoC In addition to following federal and state legal requirements concerning patient confiden- tiality, the cancer registrar must also be aware of pertinent regulations formulated by their own institution. a. True b. False - True A. Keeping data secure B. Transmission of confidential data C. Appropriate release of data D. Computer failure ______ Automatic back up system ______ Data encryption ______ Passwords, audit control ______ Explicit administrative authorization - D Automatic back up system B Data encrption A Passwords, audit control C Explicit administrative authorization Under what circumstances can confidential cancer registry data be made available? a. For marketing products to cancer patients. b. To help health care institutions recruit new patients. c. To provide follow up information to an approved facility. d. To aid insurance companies or employers trying to determine a patient's medical status. - To provide follow up information to an approved facility. A serious breach of confidentiality can result in the cancer registrar being fired. a. True b. False - True A serious breach of confidentiality can result in the facility being fined thousands of dollars. a. True b. False - True It is appropriate to access the medical records of your sister if you are concerned about her cancer treatment. a. True b. False - False Cancer registrars need to be concerned with confidentiality regarding: a. patient information. b. identity of health care professional. c. identification of institution. d. all of the above. - All of the above The enactment of the Benign Brain Tumor Cancer Registries Amendment Act is an ex- ample of why registrars need to be aware not only of pertinent new legislation but also of amendments to existing legislation. a. True b. False - True Another area covered by HIPAA's provisions includes the accuracy of record keeping. confidentiality and privacy guidelines as when working in an employer's office. a. True b. False - True A. Producing complete, accurate, and timely information B. Truthfully and accurately representing Credentials, education and experience C. Revocation of the CTR credential D. Providing lists of patients for marketing purposes ______ Professionalism ______ Discharge of entrusted professional duties and responsibilities ______ Confidentiality and privacy ______ Breach of ethical conduct sanction - _B_ Professionalism _A__ Discharge of entrusted professional duties and responsibilities _D_ Confidentiality and privacy _C_ Breach of ethical conduct sanction Honorable discharge of the Association's responsibilities is one of the guidelines addressed in the NCRA Professional Practice Code of Ethics. a. True b. False - True The commitment to professional development and growth is a/an ____________________commitment. - individual Professional refers to those with a professional ____________________ or those with a high level of ____________________ in a particular activity. - degree competence Individual employee professional development results in ____________________ professional development. - organization The cornerstone of the registrar's professional development is ____________________ education. - continuing Registrars are expected to understand and apply all data standard ____________________. - Chg(s) The greater the responsibilities that are placed on the registrar, the greater the need for higher ____________________. - education An emphasis on cancer surveillance may include which of the following? a. Evaluation of efficacy of treatment b. Analyzing referral patterns c. Compliance with treatment guidelines d. a, b, and c e. b and c - Evaluation of efficacy of treatment Analyzing referral patterns Compliance with treatment guidelines Some barriers to establishing a mentoring relationship for the cancer registry professional include which of the following? a. Time constraints b. Requirement for formal procedures c. Specialization of the field d. a and c e. None of the above - time constraints specialization of the field A complete listing of accredited college programs for registrars can be accessed at which of the following organization's Web sites? a. AHIMA b. SEER c. CTR d. NCRA e. All of the above - NCRA Benefits of mentoring for employers include which of the following? a. Fewer errors b. Shorter learning curve c. Happier employees d. All of the above e. None of the above - all of the above Which of the following best completes this statement, "Education to prepare registrars for informatics will _____________________"? a. not be necessary b. be limited to software applications c. play a pivotal role d. none of the above e. a and b - pllay a pivotal role Which of the following groups benefit from registrars working together and helping each other? a. Cancer surveillance community b. Researchers c. Cancer programs a. AHIMA b. SEER c. CTR d. NCRA e. All of the above - NCRA An emphasis on cancer surveillance may include which of the following? a. Evaluation of efficacy of treatment b. Analyzing referral patterns c. Compliance with treatment guidelines d. a, b, and c e. b and c - a, b, and c Which of the following best completes this statement, "Education to prepare registrars for informatics will _____________________"? a. not be necessary b. be limited to software applications c. play a pivotal role d. none of the above e. a and b - play a pivotal role Some barriers to establishing a mentoring relationship for the cancer registry professional include which of the following? a. Time constraints b. Requirement for formal procedures c. Specialization of the field d. a and c e. None of the above - a and c Benefits of mentoring for employers include which of the following? a. Fewer errors b. Shorter learning curve c. Happier employees d. All of the above e. None of the above - all of the above Which of the following groups benefit from registrars working together and helping each other? a. Cancer surveillance community b. Researchers c. Cancer programs d. Cancer patients e. All of the above - all of the above Registrars should not seek which of the following through volunteerism? a. Financial or material gains b. Leadership experience c. Identification of new opportunities d. Acquisition of new skills - Financial or material gains Future directions in cancer surveillance may require an advanced degree in addition tomaintaining certification requirements. a. True b. False - True Some of the characteristics of a professional include commitment to service, maintenance of competency level, and a code of ethics. a. True b. False - True The mentoring relationship is not based on trust and accountability but on a formal relationship that follows the required processes. a. True b. False - False The registrar's professional development is limited to attendance at national and state association meetings. a. True b. False - False Define the term confidential health information and provide examples of confidential health information that is processed by cancer registries. Cancer registry personnel routinely collect, evaluate and interpret, and disclose patient identification information and detailed medical histories referred to as confidential health information. You may have named any of the following examples: - Names Addresses Dates Telephone and fax numbers E-mail addresses ID numbers such as medical record numbers Health plan beneficiary information Account, certificate, license numbers Text fields database? a. C11 b. SQL c. JDBC d. Java e. XML - SQL Why is a relational database structure better for storing registry data than a NAACCR data exchange record? a. Registry data are logically grouped into records such as patient demographics and cases. b. The NAACCR record is designed for data exchange, not storage. c. Some NAACCR data exchange fields simply do not make sense to store in a registry database. d. The NAACCR data exchange record can accommodate only a fixed number of therapy records. e. All of the above - All of the above What are the major functions of central registry software systems? - You may have named any of the following: a. Data entry and import b. Record consolidation c. Record linkage d. Supporting quality assurance operations e. Reporting and analysis f. Data exchange and export g. Provide access security h. Task and record management What software function(s) are unique to hospital registries? Select all that apply. a. Data linkage with Social Security Administration files b. Conducting active patient follow-up c. Generating data for clinicians d. Submitting data to the American College of Surgeons' National Cancer Database e. Submitting data to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention - Conducting active pt f/u, Submitting data to the ACoS NCD Why should central registries be concerned with registry data management systems used by their reporting hospitals? a. The majority of central registry data is first collected by the hospital data management system. b. Edit checks and coding rules may or may not be consistently implemented by hospital registry vendors. c. It may be important when coordinating transitions to new coding standards. d. All of the above e. None of the above - All of the above Name at least three important types of software applications important to registry operations. - You may have named any of the following: a. Record linkage b. Statistical analysis c. Geospatial analysis d. Edit checking e. Electronic pathology transmissions f. Collaborative Stage Data Collection System Why should a probabilistic record linkage application be used to link records in a central registry? a. It makes it feasible and efficient to link data sets in a statistically justifiable manner. b. It increases the probability that two records can be matched. c. It allows weighted match probabilities to be ignored. d. It is faster than comparing two spreadsheets. e. It reduces the rate of typographical errors often found in registry data. - It makes it feasible and efficient to link data sets in a statistically justifiable manner. What are two advantages of increasing interoperability of registry data? a. It reduces the need for federal funding of central registries. b. It protects registry data from unauthorized use. c. It enhances the central registry's ability to automatically incorporate data from other sources. d. It ensures researchers learn complex registry data coding standards. e. It makes it easier for researchers and others to utilize registry data. - It enhances the central registry's ability to automatically incorporate data from other, it makes it easier for researchers and others to utilize registry data. Can two different data standards be syntactically interoperable but not semantically interoperable? a. Yes. b. No. b. Every 2 years c. Every 3 to 5 years d. Every 6 to 10 years e. Only when the IT department is willing to do it - 3 to 5 years What changes will technologic advances likely bring to cancer registries? Select all that apply. a. Registry data will be available closer to real time. b. Interoperability will no longer be necessary. c. The registry data set will become more simplified. d. Cancer registration will become completely automated, eliminating the need for can- cer registrars. e. Registry data will become even more clinically relevant and important. - Registry data will be available closer to real time, registry data will become even more clinically relevant and important. What was the main reason data edits were developed? - Standardization of data collection When were the first coding rules and guidelines established? - 1950s What group has members from all standard-setting organizations and whose goal is data standardization? - Uniform Data Standards Committee (UDSC) of the American Association of Central Cancer Registries (AACCR) Name the two organizations responsible for the development of Edits software? - The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) The National Program of Cancer Registries (NPCR) What were the two reasons given for the development of Edits software? - To improve the quality of data To standardize the way data items are checked for validity When were the first standard Edits made available? - 1996 Major changes to registry data changes by standard setters are instituted every ______year(s). - 3 Name three challenges to standardizing data edits. a. Differing computer language in registry systems b. Standard specifications may be programmed differently c. Incomplete editing of data during data entry - Differing computer language in registry systems Standard specifications may be programmed differently Incomplete editing of data during data entry Why are standard data edits created? - To test data against coding rules What is the "why, when, where and how" of edits? - Why: to identify incorrect data When: state or SEER submissions, NCDB Call for Data (Hospital Registries), NAACCR or NPCR Call for Data (Central Registries) Where: hospital or Central Registry How: Flag blank fields Indicate single-field edit errors Specify disagreement between multiple data fields Indicate potential errors that require manual review Name the three edit components. - Metafile Edit Set Individual Edits A metafile is: a. a big file. b. a set of instructions. c. a container. - a set of instructions What does the metafile contain? - Everything necessary to edit the data, except the data Name the five key components of a metafile. - Data Dictionary Record Layouts Edit Sets Standard Setting Agencies User Lookup Tables What is the purpose of an Edit Set? - To group individual edits Name the three types of edits. - a. Single-Field Edits b. Inter-field Edits c. Inter-record Edits Finish this sentence: Edits are the - quality-control gatekeepers. Which one of the following is the most important to consider when trying to resolve an edit using the Edit Report? a. The Edit Number b. The Edit Name c. The Error Message - The Error Message Why might the error summary on the edit report be important to the cancer registry manager? - Frequently encountered errors may mean that staff education is needed. What is the name of the Edits feature that allows a user to note that the data are unusual, but correct? - Edit Over-ride List five suggestions for help with Edits. - Learn as much as possible about GenEDITS and Metafiles. b. Look up the definitions of the fields in question. ______ Terminology database facilitates the exchange of clinical results, such as blood he- moglobin, serum potassium, or vital signs, for clinical care, outcomes management, and research ______ Produce standards/protocol for transmission of clinical and administrative data ______ Healthcare stakeholders within a defined geographic area that govern a health information exchange according to nationally recognized standards A. RHIO B. HIE C. HL7 D. ANSI E. LOINC F. CPRI - D F B E C A Interoperability essentially refers to operating on the Internet. a. True b. False - False Online abstracting from the EMR has proved so simple, that the role of the abstractor may be eliminated. a. True b. False - False Use of the EMR cannot be expected to influence follow-up. a. True b. False - False Changing medical records systems will markedly influence the future role of the cancer register, including abstracting. a. True b. False - True Synoptic pathology reporting may help facilitate online abstracting. a. True b. False - True The potential of cost savings predicted for the EHR environment are estimated to reduce budgets approximately 50% in the first year. a. True b. False - False In the future, the cancer registrar will not need computer skills because the bulk of such ef- fort will have been transferred to IT. a. True b. False - False