CWB 2 All Module Exams 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS 2024/2025 CORRECT STUDY SET, Exams of Nursing

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CWB 2 All Module Exams

100% VERIFIED ANSWERS

2024/2025 CORRECT STUDY

SET

A Plasma is: A) A gas made up of positive ions and free electrons B) A liquid used to reduce adherence of spatter C) The main component in an inverter power source D) Always present in an electrical circuit A) A gas made up of positive ions and free electrons To increase melting rate (burn-off rate) in the shielded metal arc welding (SMAW) process, which polarity should be used? A) DCEP B) ACEP C) DCEN D) ACEP C) DCEN Which type of welding power source is used for the SMAW process? A) Constant Current B) Constant Voltage C) Pulsed Current D) Pulsed Voltage A) Constant Current

The purpose of a drooping welding power source is to produce: A) Constant voltage regardless of the current demand B) Constant arc length regardless of current C) Nearly constant current regardless of voltage fluctuations B) Low open circuit voltage C) Nearly constant current regardless of voltage fluctuations A self-regulating welding arc is produced by a: A) Constant current power source with a constant speed wire feed system B) Constant voltage power source with a voltage sensing wire feed system C) Constant current power source D) Constant voltage power source with a constant speed wire feed system D) Constant voltage power source with a constant speed wire feed system Short circuit current is determined by the: A) Voltage in the circuit B) Static characteristic of the power source C) Position of welding D) Skill of the welder B) Static characteristic of the power source A Transformer is a device that: A) Transforms AC to DC B) Works only to change a DC voltage C) Changes the value of an AC voltage but does not change the frequency D) Is made from a semiconductor C) Changes the value of an AC voltage but does not change the frequency A Rectifier is a device that converts:

A) DC current to AC current B) AC Current to a high value DC current C) DC current to a high value DC current D) AC current to DC current D) AC current to DC current Microprocessor controls are used in the more modern welding power sources to: A) Provide more sophisticated levels of control for the welding system B) Allow welding variables to be stored for use later C) Provide feedback control D) All of the above D) All of the above Inverter welding power sources provide increased control over the welding arc because they: A) Utilize feedback control B) Can respond very quickly to correct any changed in the welding circuits C) Can utilize advanced pulsed waveforms to allow out of position welding using spray transfer D) All of the above D) All of the above It would be correct to say: A) Expansion and contraction are proportional to the dimensions of the heated area B) When a bar is heated under restraint, its stress relieves itself as it cools C) Slow cooling of a heated area will provide the greatest amount of shrinkage D) When metal is heated it expands, but it does not shrink back to its original size when it cools A) Expansion and contraction are proportional to the dimensions of the heated area To reduce the amount of angular distortion you should: A) Increase the travel speed B) Reduce the angle of preparation

C) Pre-heat the metal D) All of the above E) None of the above D) All of the above When a structural member has been bent sharply, it can be straightened by heating: A) A vee shaped section of the web underneath the bent area of the flange B) The inside corner of an angle, channel, i-beam, or T bar C) A vee shaped area at the point of the greatest bend, with the top of the vee at the point of greatest bend D) All along the edge of the section E) All along the edge opposite of the one which is bent C) A vee shaped area at the point of the greatest bend, with the top of the vee at the point of greatest bend Of the many mechanical means of controlling distortion, the following will have the least residual stress: A) Rigid clamping B) Subassembly of the sections C) Heavy strongbacks, welded on both sides of the joint D) Similar weldments clamped back to back E) Pre-set the plates to allow recovery of angular distortion E) Pre-set the plates to allow recovery of angular distortion Decreasing the number of weld beads in a specific weld will: A) Result in annealing the weld area B) Give a finer grain structure C) Reduce the transverse shrinkage D) Increase the transverse shrinkage E) Possibly crack the root pass

C) Reduce the transverse shrinkage The neutral axis is the: A) Line on which there will be neither tension nor compression when the piece is flexed or bent B) Centreline of a weld bead halfway between the root pass and the face pass C) Outside centreline of the web of a channel D) Inside corner line of an unequal leg steel angle E) Dimensional halfway point of a welded assembly A) Line on which there will be neither tension nor compression when the piece is flexed or bent When expansion and contraction are prevented, heating and cooling may cause: A) No residual stresses B) Failure due to lamellar tearing C) No permanent deformation or failure D) Failure when the metal is highly ductile E) Failure when metal is not sufficiently ductile E) Failure when metal is not sufficiently ductile When heated, unrestrained metal will expand: A) Transversely (across the weld) B) Volumetrically (in all directions) C) Until it upsets D) Longitudinally (lengthwise) E) Mostly across the width of the weld B) Volumetrically (in all directions) It would be INCORRECT to say that peening: A) Should not be used on the last pass B) Puts surface of the weld in compression C) Should not be used on root passes

D) Can be used to form the surface contour of the weld to the inspectors satisfaction E) Should be stopped before the weld surface starts to flake D) Can be used to form the surface contour of the weld to the inspectors satisfaction To avoid longitudinal bending of a plate when it is being cut to width, you would: A) Cool the outer edge with an air blast B) Cut both edges at the same time C) Dog the plate down away from the cut D) Pre-bend the plate away from the cut E) Slow down the cutting speed B) Cut both edges at the same time The rate of energy consumption at which an electric lamp converts electrical energy into heat and light is given by: A) Volts x Watts B) Volts x Amperage C) Watts x Joules D) Amperage x Watts B) Volts x Amperage High-heat-input welds will typically have: A) Large beads and large heat affected zones B) Large beads and narrow heat affected zones C) Small beads and large heat affected zones D) Small beads and small heat affected zones A) Large beads and large heat affected zones Which of the following will have the greatest effect of the metallurgical changes that occur within the HAZ? A) The peak temperature reached

B) The welding amperage C) The welding voltage D) The contact tip-to-work distance A) The peak temperature reached The final microstructure in the HAZ will depend on the A) Heat input B) Inter-pass temperature C) Preheat D) All of the above D) All of the above Which of the following will reduce the available hydrogen when welding operations are planned? A) Preheat B) A coat of paint on the base material to be welded C) Moisture on the electrode to be used D) Grease on the plate surface to be welded A) Preheat An example of a low restraint weld is a: A) Corner joint B) Set on nozzle C) Tee joint D) Fillet weld D) Fillet weld The controlled thermal severity test (CTS) uses which type of weld? A) Corner weld B) Lap weld C) Fillet weld D) Groove weld

C) Fillet weld Which of the following precautions can be used to minimize the risk of lamellar tearing? A) Not allowing partially completed welds to cool B) A block weld sequence C) Buttering D) All of the above D) All of the above What does the term "basic" refer to with regards to welding flux? A) The easily transfer oxygen into the solidifying weld B) They do not easily transfer oxygen into the solidifying weld C) They do not contain any alloying elements D) They only contain carbon as an alloying element B) They do not easily transfer oxygen into the solidifying weld Stress relief temperatures for thick sections occur: A) Above the material transformation temperature B) The same as the material transformation temperature C) Below the material transformation temperature D) At 723°C for all steel C) Below the material transformation temperature The frequency of the ultrasonic wave: A) Is set by a knob on the equipment B) Depends on the transducer selected C) Is calibrated using an IIW Block D) Changes as the wave enters the material E) Reduces as the wave travels through the material B) Depends on the transducer selected

To reduce the height of an indication on the screen by 50%, you would turn the gain control (or attenuator) through: A) 2dB B) 50 dB C) 60 dB D) 20 dB E) 6dB E) 6dB An ultrasonic beam changes angle (refracts) when it travels from a plastic probe into a steel specimen because: A) The wave velocity is different in steel than in plastic B) The frequency is different in steel than in plastic C) Only transverse waves can travel in steel D) The angle does not change E) The amplitude is reduced by attenuation A) The wave velocity is different in steel than in plastic If you are examining a groove weld in a plate from one surface with an angle probe, you would examine the upper portion of the weld by: A) Placing the probe on the weld reinforcement B) Moving the probe as close as possible to the weld C) Using a normal probe close to the edge of the weld D) Moving the probe away from the weld so the beam bounces off the lower surface to strike the upper portion of the weld E) None of the above. The upper portion cannot be examined D) Moving the probe away from the weld so the beam bounces off the lower surface to strike the upper portion of the weld The first item that should be checked or calibrated on an angle probe is:

A) Wavelength B) Angle C) Linearity D) Exit (index point) Not applicable. Calibration is not necessary D) Exit (index point) Sounds detectable by human ear are in the range of: A) 1 to 10 nHz B) 1,000 to 10,000 cycles per second C) 20 to 20,000 cycles per second D) 20 kHz to 2,000 kHz C) 20 to 20,000 cycles per second Ultrasonic testing frequencies are in the range of: A) 50 to 500MHz B) 2.25 to 10 MHz C) 500 kHz to 5,000 MHz D 500 kHz to 15 MHz C) 500 kHz to 5,000 MHz Characteristics of a wave propagating through material are: A) Wavelength, velocity and frequency B) Density, colour, and weight C) Melleability, hardness, and toughness D) Frequency, Velocity, and surface finish A) Wavelength, velocity and frequency Non-uniform stress in a rod is given by: A) The load multiplied by the cross section area of the rod

B) The cross-sectional area of the rod divided by the load C) The load divided by the cross-sectional area of the rod D) Cannot be simply calculated D) Cannot be simply calculated Strain in a body is the: A) Extension divided by the original length B) Extension multiplied by the original length C) Original length multiplied by the extension D) Original length divided by the extension A) Extension divided by the original length The elastic limit during tensile testing will be reached: A) Before yield B) After Yeild C) After UTS D) At the point where the specimen fractures B) After Yeild The UTS (ultimate tensile strength) on a stress-strain curve shows where the: A) Maximum stress was recorded B) Sample fractured C) Sample changed from plastic or elastic behavior D) Maximum yield point occurred A) Maximum stress was recorded The yield stength (YS) is given by: A) 80% of maximum load divided by the cross-sectional area B) The load at the breaking point divided by the cross-sectional area

C) The yield point load divided by the cross-sectional area D) The maximum load divided by the cross-sectional area C) The yield point load divided by the cross-sectional area The primary reason for performing a guided bend test is to determine the: A) Ability of a welder to produce sound welds B) Suitability of a welding procedure C) Suitability of a welding consumable D) All of the above D) All of the above Which of the following hardness testers will be used because it has a small indentation size that can easily locate regions in a weld? A) Brinell B) Knoop C) Vickers D) Rockshaw C) Vickers Brittle materials in a toughness test will: A) Absorb significant energy B) Absorb minimal energy C) Deform with considerable plasticity D) Exhibit a flat and dull surface B) Absorb minimal energy A proof test on a structure to measure the final quality of manufacture is a test that: A) Involves overloading beyond design of the structure B) Shows absolute proof of quality

C) Involves the rapid increase in pressure D) Does not require governing codes and specifications A) Involves overloading beyond design of the structure Fatigue cracks are one of several issues that threaten the life of welded structures. They begin as: A) Minute cracks and then grow under static loads B) Large cracks and then grow without the requirement for load C) Minute cracks and then grow under fluctuating stress D) Large cracks and then grow under static loads C) Minute cracks and then grow under fluctuating stress Radiographic inspection can be performed with the following types of radiation. A) Ultrasonic and magnetic particle B) Infrared and ultraviolet C) Photons and electrons D) Gamma and X-rays D) Gamma and X-rays What range of density should a radiograph have according to CSA W59? A) 7.3 to 8. B) It should be calculated from the source size, thickness and object to source distance C) 2T to 4T (T is the plate thickness) D) 1.5 to 3. E) 300 to 3000 cd/m D) 1.5 to 3. Electromagnetic radiation with wavelengths longer than visible light are: A) Infra red, ultrasonic and x-rays B) Gamma rays, microwave and radiowaves

C) Radio, microwaves, and infrared rays D) X-rays, gamma rays, and ultra violet C) Radio, microwaves, and infrared rays Increasing the voltage of the X-ray tube has which affect on the penetrating capabilities? A) Increases the penetration of the rays B) Decreases the penetration of the rays C) No effect on the penetrating capabilities D) Not applicable to operating parameters of X-ray tubes A) Increases the penetration of the rays Given a source size of 4mm, a weld thickness of 25.4mm and a plate to source distance of 900mm, what is the geometric unsharpness? A) 0.113mm B) 141.7mm C) 0.007mm D) 0.0044mm E) 0.0282mm A) 0.113mm Gamma rays are emitted by which of the following sources? A) Electromagnets B) Low voltage X-ray tubes C) Radioisotopes D) Gamma Machines C) Radioisotopes A Disadvantage of using X-ray tube is that is: A) Is very portable B) Requires an electrical source

C) Has lower sensitivity D) None of the above B) Requires an electrical source Which of the following statement is correct? A) All codes require all backing bars to be machined off before radiography B) Backing bars need not be removed since they do not effect at all on the quality of the radiographic image C) CSA W59 does not require backing bars be removed but a badly fitted backing bar could interfere with interpretation of the radiograph D) Backing bars must always be removed to make room for IQI E) Backing bars must never be removed since they are an intregral part of the weld and must therefore be radiographed C) CSA W59 does not require backing bars be removed but a badly fitted backing bar could interfere with interpretation of the radiograph Source size, source to object distance , and object to film distance are factors that control: A) Contrast B) Sensitivity C) Film development time D) Definition D) Definition What device is now commonly used for measuring the personal radiation dose of radiographic workers? A) Radiation survey meter B) Thermo-luminescent dosimeter (TLD) C) There is no method for measuring personal dose D) Personal audible alarm E) A colimator

B) Thermo-luminescent dosimeter (TLD) The presence of nickel stabilizes which crystal structure? A) HCP B) BCT C) FCC D) BCC C) FCC Stainless steels derive their stainless property from the following alloying element: A) Nickel B) Carbon C) Iron D) Chromium D) Chromium The four main types of stainless steels used in welded fabrications are: A) High temperature, creep resistant, impact resistant and corrosion resistant B) Ferritic, austenitic, martensitic, and duplex C) High temperature, precipitation hardened, fracture resistant and ferritic D) Fracture resistant, austenitic, duplex, and super ferritic B) Ferritic, austenitic, martensitic, and duplex A stainless steel is said to be passivated when: A) An oxide layer is not present B) Carbides have precipitated on the grain boundaries C) A stable adherent oxide layer protects the surface D) A solution heat treatment was completed C) A stable adherent oxide layer protects the surface

Which of the following is most likely to cause sensitization when welding austenitic stainless steels? A) Using low carbon base and filler metal B) Using stabilized stainless steels C) Using higher carbon steel base and filler metal D) Completing a solution head treatment after welding C) Using higher carbon steel base and filler metal What is the primary reason to produce a small percentage of ferrite when welding austenitic stainless steel? A) To avoid weld metal solidification cracking B) To improve the low temperature properties C) To improve the high temperature properties A) To avoid weld metal solidification cracking To reduce te likelihood of sensitization, which type of stainless steel was specifically developed to resist stress corrosion cracking? A) Ferritic B) Martensitic C) Austenitic D) Duplex D) Duplex One of the major problems when welding ferritic stainless steels is: A) The formation of martensite B) The grain growth that occurs C) A sensitized structure D) Sigma phase formation B) The grain growth that occurs

Filler metal selection when welding a carbon steel to an austenitic stainless steel is based on the: A) Chemical compositions of the base metals B) Intended service conditions C) Structure produced in the weld deposit D) All of the above D) All of the above When welding duplex stainless steels, the filler metal typically matches the base metal composition except for which element? A) Carbon B) Iron C) Chromium D) Nickel D) Nickel The ability of a liquid to penetrate a narrow opening depends on the phenomenon of: A) Fluorescence B) Capillary action C) density D) Viscosity E) Lipophilic B) Capillary action When using a post-emulsifiable penetrant, the excess penetrant is removed A) Immediately after the dwell time by water washing B) Immediately after the dwell time by using a solvent C) After brushing on an emulsifier then water washing D) After dipping or spraying on an emulsifier then water washing E) After brushing on an emulsifier then using a solvent

D) After dipping or spraying on an emulsifier then water washing What is the normal operating temperature for a liquid penetrant according to ASTM E-165? A) 21°C to 24°C (70°F to 75°F) B) Any temperature C) 12°C to 52°C (60°F to 125°F) D) 60°C to 125°C (140°F to 257°F) E) - 18°C to 38°C (0°F to 100°F) C) 12°C to 52°C (60°F to 125°F) To remove excess penetrant when using a solvent-removable process in a portable kit for spot checking: A) Wipe away excess penetrant with a clean cloth, then wipe surface clean with a cloth lightly moistened with solvent remover B) Spray surface with solvent remover then wipe clean with a cloth C) Apply solvent remover by dipping or spraying and allowing to soak for a few minutes before wiping clean D) Apply solvent remover by brushing then wipe clean with a cloth D) Spray surface with solvent remover and allow drying by natural evaporation A) Wipe away excess penetrant with a clean cloth, then wipe surface clean with a cloth lightly moistened with solvent remover Which of the following best describes the basis of the magnetic particle inspection method? A) The increased resistance to the flow of electric current when a discontinuity is present B) The attraction of magnetic particles to a flux leakage field formed when a discontinuity lies parallel to an applied magnetic field C) The attraction of magnetic particles to a flux leakage field formed when a discontinuity lies at an angle to the induced magnetic field D) The attraction of magnetic particles to the strong field formed when a material is magnetically saturated E) The attraction of magnetic particles to s discontinuity that occurs when the coercive force is applied to remove the induced flux

C) The attraction of magnetic particles to a flux leakage field formed when a discontinuity lies at an angle to the induced magnetic field In which direction is the magnetic field at the centre of a short coil of 50 turns and 50mm diameter? A) The field is zero inside the coil B) In a radial direction C) Tangential, i.e., in the same direction as the current is flowing in the turns of the coil D) Parallel to the axis of the coil E) It depends on the current in the coil D) Parallel to the axis of the coil When using an AC yoke, two test are done with the angle of the yoke at 90° to each other. Why? A) To ensure good magnetic contact is maintained B) Because discontinuities lying parallel to the line between the poles of the yoke are not readily detected C) To remove residual magnetism from the first test D) Because discontinuities lying normal to the line between the poles of the yoke are not readily detected E) Two test are not necessary when using AC B) Because discontinuities lying parallel to the line between the poles of the yoke are not readily detected What is the depth capability for AC magnetic particle methods? A) 3mm B) 3mm for AC prods only C) 6mm in non-ferrous metals D) 6mm in steel E) No effective depth capability E) No effective depth capability

Which of the following statements is true? A) The eddy current method is based on detecting the flux leakage around the discontinuity using a Fall detector B) The eddy current method is based on detecting changes in the inductive reactance of a coil due to disturbance of the eddy current by a discontinuity and can be used on non-ferrous metals C) The eddy current method is based on detecting changes to the inductive reactance of a coil due to disturbance of the eddy current and can only be used on ferromagnetic metals D) The eddy current method is based on measuring the change in voltage across a discontinuity when an eddy current flows E) The eddy current method normally uses direct current to increase depth capability B) The eddy current method is based on detecting changes in the inductive reactance of a coil due to disturbance of the eddy current by a discontinuity and can be used on non-ferrous metals Which of the following defects cannot be detected with LPI? A) Fine tight surface cracks B) Shallow and broad cracks C) Incomplete fusion between weld and base metal open to surface D) Lamellar tearing at the root of a weld joint D) Lamellar tearing at the root of a weld joint In steels, a small grain size will: A) Change the atomic arrangement from FCC to BCC B) Decrease the strength and toughness C) Increase the strength and toughness D) Decrease the carbon content E) Affect the chemical analysis C) Increase the strength and toughness Which of the following processes produce the most of the worlds steel? A) Electric furnace

B) Blast furnace C) Open hearth furnace D) Basic oxygen furnace E) None of the above D) Basic oxygen furnace At what point does the carbon content indicate that the material is no longer steel but cast iron? A) Beyond 1.7% B) Beyond 17% C) Beyond 7.1% D) Beyond 0.71% E) Beyond 0.17% A) Beyond 1.7% One of the causes of hot shortness in steel is the presence of: A) High Cobalt B) High Chromium C) High Manganese D) High Sulphur E) High Silicon D) High Sulphur Rimmed Steels -- A) are alloy steels with greater than 5% chromium B) are vacuum degassed C) have a layer of pure iron on the surface D) are fully austenitic E) are fully deoxidized C) have a layer of pure iron on the surface

What is the typical stress relief temperature specified for welded steel fabrication? A) 510 B) 625°C C) 900°C D) 955°C E) 1066°C B) 625°C The elements in alloy tool steels can form small hard particles which provide wear resistance and limit tempering. What is the name of the particles? A) Eutectiods B) Carbides C) Sulphides D) Cementite E) Pearlite B) Carbides The plates for pressure vessels are usually formed with the direction: A) Around the circumference B) Parallel to vessel axis C) Diagonal to the axis D) Opposed to the direction of the hoop stress E) None of the above A) Around the circumference What is the usual charge in an electric furnace? A) Pig iron and limestone B) Pig iron and chromium C) Molten pig iron and scrap

D) Pig iron and manganese E) Completely scrap E) Completely scrap To what types of steel is sulphur deliberately added? A) Austenitic stainless steels B) Ferritic stainless steels C) Free machining steels D) Casting steels E) Pressure vessel carbon steels C) Free machining steels