Medical Terminology and Concepts, Exams of Anatomy

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DAANCE STUDY QUESTIONS, Entire

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with Complete Solutions

Nose/nasal passages, sinuses, pharynx - ANSWER-What consists of the upper airway? Larynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, pulmonary alveoli - ANSWER-What consists of the lower airway? Immediate hypersensitivity response that involves antigen-antibody reactions (IgE) - ANSWER-What is the most severe type of allergic reaction? Liver - ANSWER-What is the largest gland in the body? Pediatric patients - ANSWER-What age group of patients will hypoxia occur much more rapidly in? Bradycardia is a sign relating to hypoxia Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) - ANSWER-What does HIPAA stand for? Ischemia - ANSWER-A decrease in blood flow in the coronary arteries? Can temporarily or permanently damage the heart muscle by decreasing O2 available to the muscle cells? 1 year- Plavix & Aspirin - ANSWER-If a cardiac patient just had stent placement, how long are they required to be on antiplatelet drugs? What are the 2 drugs they usually do together? Subacute Bacterial Endocarditis (SBE) aka infectious endocarditis - ANSWER-Type of infection that can further damage heart valves or cause systemic infections? Requires antibiotic prophylaxis P wave - ANSWER-Atrial depolarization (contraction) QRS complex - ANSWER-Ventricular depolarization T wave - ANSWER-Ventricular repolarization (relaxation)

Cushing's disease - ANSWER-Type of disease due to excessive secretion of corticosteroid due to a presence of a tumor or from administration of high doses of corticosteriod drugs (ex: Prednisone) Myxedema - ANSWER-Chronic long-term hypothyroidism, most commonly seen in older adults (elderly women) who have had a stroke or stopped taking their thyroid medication Thyroid crisis - ANSWER-Most severe complication of hyperthyroidism from an OMS perspective Hyperthyroidism - ANSWER-Untreated __________ are at an increased risk for outpatient anesthesia and tend to be sensitive to epinephrine in a local anesthetic Diabetes Type 1 - ANSWER-Insulin-dependent Diabetes Type 2 - ANSWER-Non-insulin dependent Elevated LFTs (Liver function tests) - ANSWER-Elevated level of several liver enzymes and bilirubin is often termed? Women - ANSWER-What gender is Propofol more rapidly redistributed in and require 10-15% larger dose? Children - ANSWER-What age group would Propofol redistribute very rapidly, and require at least 50% increase in drug dose? Diffusion hypoxia - ANSWER-What is a complication of N2O rapidly moving from blood to alveoli of lungs, and displaces other gases, including O General anesthesia - ANSWER-Patient is not aroused, even during painful stimulation. Required airway intervention & cardiovascular function is impaired Deep sedation/analgesia - ANSWER-Can't be easily aroused, purposeful response to pain, and requires airway assistance Moderate sedation (conscious sedation) - ANSWER-Response to verbal or light tactile touch with no compromise of airway Minimal sedation (anxiolysis) - ANSWER-Normal response to verbal stimulation with airway reflexes, ventiliation & cardiovascular functions are unaffected Valium or Versed - ANSWER-What drugs are given for minimal sedation (anxiolysis)

Balanced anesthesia - ANSWER-Anesthesia that relies on the use of several agents together to benefit from each other. Using each drug at a smaller dose than required if it were being used alone 0.2 mg - ANSWER-Maximum does of Epi for a healthy patient? 100% O2, Dantrolene (2.5 mg/kg) and IV cold saline (NOT Ringer's) - ANSWER-What is the treatment for Malignant Hyperthermia? Hypertension - ANSWER-What emergency would a beta blocker be given? 0.04 mg - ANSWER-What is the maximum dose of Epi for a patient with cardiovascular disease? Asystole - ANSWER-Cardiac arrest- has no rhythm or contraction of EKG Ventricular fibrillation (V-fib) - ANSWER-No discernable P, QRS or T waves noted. No pumping of blood at all and no depolarization of the ventricles V-Fib or Asytole - ANSWER-What are 2 emergencies would Epi be given in? Lidocaine - ANSWER-What are PVCs treated with? Versed, valium or propofol - ANSWER-What medications can be given for a severe case of hyperventilation? Ventricular tachycardia (V-tach) - ANSWER-Dysrhythmia with a rapid firing of an ectopic focus with a rate of 140-200 BPM but no P wave Amiodarone - ANSWER-What medication would be given for V-tach? Adenosine, Inderal or Esmolol - ANSWER-What are 3 different medications that could be given for SVT? Atropine - ANSWER-What medication would be given for symptomatic bradycardia? Airway obstruction - ANSWER-What emergency would a cricothyrotomy typically be performed? ETT, LMA or ETA (endotracheal tube, laryngeal mask airway, esophageal tracheal airway) - ANSWER-What type of intubation is preferred with emesis and aspiration? Medical information that helps oral surgeons identify poor-risk patients, guide treatment, and written evidence the patient was given to evaluate the treatment plan - ANSWER- What are the 3 basic requirements to follow when gathering medical information?

Hematuria - ANSWER-What is the term for blood in the urine? Pulmonary artery - ANSWER-What is the artery that carries oxygen-poor (venous) blood from the heart to the lungs? Right atrium, right ventricle, pulmonary artery, lungs, pulmonary veins, left atrium, left ventricle, aorta - ANSWER-What is the blood flow through the heart? 100% O2, turn patient to their right side with head down, tonsil suction, intubate - ANSWER-What is the treatment for emesis with aspiration? Laryngospasm - ANSWER-Crowing sounds, labored breathing, suprasternal retraction & rocking of the chest and abdomen (paradoxical) are signs of what? 100% O2, head tilt chin position, tonsil suction, bag/mask, succinylcholine - ANSWER- Treatment of a laryngospasm Tracheostomy - ANSWER-Surgical airway below level of larynx into the trachea is called what? Capnograph/capnometer - ANSWER-Device that monitors ventilation in real time by measuring the level of O2 the patient exhales Pulse oximeter - ANSWER-Device that monitors ventilation and circulation Bronchspasm - ANSWER-Difficulty with expiration not inspiration, wheezing and labored breathing are signs of what medical emergency? 100% O2, Albuterol inhaler, epi, ETT/LMA or Igel, and a steroid - ANSWER-Treatment of bronchospasm MP 1 - ANSWER-What MP classification is visualization of soft palate, fauces, uvula, anterior and posterior pillars? MP 2 - ANSWER-What MP classification is visualization of soft palate, fauces & uvula? MP 3 - ANSWER-What MP classification is visualization of soft palate and base of tongue? MP 4 - ANSWER-What MP classification would the soft palate not be visible at all? Morphine, oxygen, nitroglycerin, aspirin - ANSWER-What does MONA stand for? Oxygen, nitroglycerin, aspirin, and morphine (ONAM) - ANSWER-What is the actual order of MONA?

Systolic blood pressure - ANSWER-Ventricular contraction is which phase of BP? Dystolic blood pressure - ANSWER-Ventricular relaxation is what phase of BP? Repolarization of the ventricles - ANSWER-The T wave on a cardiac monitor tracing is evidence of what change in polarization? Epiglottis - ANSWER-What anatomical structure located at the top of the larynx closes the airway and prevents foreign bodies from entering the trachea? Tongue - ANSWER-What is most likely to cause obstruction of the airway when an anesthetized patient is lying in a supine position? Pulmonary artery - ANSWER-Blood is pumped to the lungs from the heart through what vessel? Alveoli - ANSWER-Small, sac-like structures located at the end of the respiratory tract in which O2 and CO2 are exchanged. Epiglottis - ANSWER-Soft tissue valve that covers the larynx and allows food to enter the esophagus is called the? Common carotid - ANSWER-Artery located in the neck that is readily palpated when looking for a patient's pulse. Brain and spinal cord - ANSWER-CNS consists of: Blood supply to the brain - ANSWER-Patient with a history of TIA has had a temporary lessening of? Ischemic heart disease - ANSWER-Decreased blood flow in the coronary arteries is caused by? Medical history - ANSWER-Main purpose of the review of systems is to obtain a careful evaluation of the patient's ______________? Drug excretion - ANSWER-Patient who has renal disease would be expected to have difficulty with what? Basic medical information, process of evaluating the patient & the patient's psychological status - ANSWER-Medical history is used to document? SOB, edema, ascites - ANSWER-CHF can result in all of the following: 95-100% - ANSWER-Normal blood O2 saturation in an ASA (class) I patient ranges from:

Subject to postoperative infections - ANSWER-Diabetic patients are at risk for oral surgery because they are: 6 months - ANSWER-Patient who has had a MI should wait how long before having elective surgery? Grave's disease - ANSWER-Hyperthyroidism is also considered? Hepatitis A - ANSWER-Hepatitis caused by contaminated food or water Hepatitis B - ANSWER-Hepatitis most frequently in patients who have been incarcerated or who have been treated for STDs Hepatitis C - ANSWER-Hepatitis caused by contaminated needles (IV drug use) Ascites - ANSWER-What is the term for large fluid filled abdomen? Hepatic coma - ANSWER-Prolonged CNS depression in a patient with liver disease can result in a condition called? Liver disease - ANSWER-Patients who have ______ disease don't have the ability to produce clotting factors INR (international normalized ratio) - ANSWER-Ratio of how long it takes a patient's blood to clot Cirrhosis - ANSWER-Liver disease with the formation of fibrous tissue and is most commonly caused by alcoholism is called what? Acute renal failure - ANSWER-Sudden onset, can't have NSAIDS, caused by heavy blood loss, dehydration, injury Chronic renal failure - ANSWER-the progressive loss of renal function over a period of months or years, usually on dialysis Hemodialysis - ANSWER-Patients go to a dialysis center several hours a day, usually 3 days/week. Are given Heparin during dialysis, and have a shunt or AV fistula Periotoneal dialysis - ANSWER-Natural membrane in patients abdomen is used for dialysis, less efficient and carried out for a longer period of time Anemic - ANSWER-Renal failure patients tend to become _____ because they can't produce adequate blood cells Seizures - ANSWER-Transient disturbance of cerebral functions

Tonic-clonic (grand mal) seizure - ANSWER-Most common type of seizure Prodromal phase, ictal tonic clonic phase, post ictal phase - ANSWER-3 phases of grand mal seizures Grand mal status (status epilepticus) - ANSWER-Seizure lasting 5 minutes or longer Petit mal seizure - ANSWER-2nd type of seizure Dilantin hyperplasia - ANSWER-Drug given to seizure patients that cause swelling/inflammation of gingival tissues TIA stroke (transient ischemic attack) - ANSWER-Mini stroke- recovery within 24 hours Aspiration and respiratory obstruction - ANSWER-Patients who have had strokes in the past are more prone to _______ and ______ during anesthesia 2nd trimester - ANSWER-Best trimester to perform oral surgery in 1st trimester - ANSWER-What trimester has the greatest risk for oral surgery? Obesity - ANSWER-20% above ideal body weight Overwight - ANSWER-BMI 25-29 is considered Obese - ANSWER-BMI over 30 is considered Morbidly obese - ANSWER-BMI over 40 is considered Obstructive sleep apnea (OSA) - ANSWER-Cessation of air flow for more than 10 seconds 2-3 - ANSWER-Patients INR is often _____ when on Coumadin 3-4 days - ANSWER-How long should a patient hold their Coumadin prior to surgery? Heparin - ANSWER-Given IV only, immediate effect and wears off rapidly. Given to patients on Coudmadin Plavix, Aspirin, Ticlid - ANSWER-Medications that interfere with platelets developing "sticky" characteristics. Life cycle of these drugs are 7-10 days Propofol, ketamine, versed, fentanyl - ANSWER-4 most common drugs used together for balanced anesthesia

Analgesia - ANSWER-Inability to feel pain - Fentanyl, ketamine & local Amnesia - ANSWER-Loss of memory - Versed & valium Versed, propofol, brevital & ketamine - ANSWER-4 drugs that can be essential for a patient to be relaxed and immobile during procedure. Hypnosis - ANSWER-Loss of consciousness "put to sleep"- Propofol & brevital Anxiolytics - ANSWER-Centers for emotion- Valium & versed Dissociative anesthesia - ANSWER-Isolated from the environment "relay center"- Ketamine Opioid receptors - ANSWER-Calming/euphoric effects "pain free"- Demerol & Fentanyl Homeostasis/homeostatic state - ANSWER-Depress respiration and cause hypotension- minimal variation to respiration and expiration Pharmacokinetics - ANSWER-Effects the body has on the drugs Pharmacodynamics - ANSWER-Effects the drug has on the body Intravenous - ANSWER-Most common route of drug administration Rapid redistribution - ANSWER-Short-acting drugs wear off rapidly because they are only attached to receptor sites for a short amount of time before they move to other tissues like fat or muscle Propofol - ANSWER-Type of short-acting drug Valium - ANSWER-Type of long-acting drug Intramuscular (IM) - ANSWER-Unpredictable onset of drug effect upon injection Subcutaneous (SQ) - ANSWER-Beneath the skin- emergency use for Epinephrine By mouth (PO) - ANSWER-Delayed onset of drug absorption 1.7 mL / carpule - ANSWER-How much Epinephrine is in 1 carpule of Lidocaine for a 1% solution Minimal sedation - ANSWER-Normal response to verbal stimulation with airway reflexes, ventilation & cardiovascular function uneffected (Anxiolysis) - Oral preop meds

Moderate sedation - ANSWER-Response to verbal light tactile touch, no airway compromise ("conscious sedation") - N2O or EMLA Deep sedation - ANSWER-Cannot be easily aroused, purposeful response to painful stimulation, airway assistance may be required, ventilation may be inadequate, cardiovascular function is usually maintained (analgesia) Vitals, ambulation, N/V, pain, surgical bleeding - ANSWER-What are the 5 things you evaluate for modified post-anesthesia discharge score? Total score is 10 (Score of 9 or greater is considered fit for discharge) Local, local with N2O or IV sedation, IV balanced anesthesia or inhalation anesthesia - ANSWER-What are the 4 categories of anesthesia? 30% - ANSWER-What percentage of O2 is required when administering N2O? 3-4 minutes - ANSWER-How long should you administer O2 after turning off the N2O 15 minutes - ANSWER-How long should you keep a patient in the office after they have been on N2O 8 hours - ANSWER-How long is it required to be NPO for IV sedation? 15-20 mL/kg - ANSWER-What is the recommended fluid volume administration throughout an IV sedation? Versed - ANSWER-What drug is for relaxation & amnesia? Fentanyl - ANSWER-What drug is for analgesia? Inhalation anesthetics - ANSWER-_________ anesthetics are potential triggers for malignant hypothermia Propofol - ANSWER-What drug is used quite often due to its antiemetic effects, and does not predispose laryngospasms? 12 hours - ANSWER-After opening a vial of Propofol, how long do you have before it is no longer good to use? Children - ANSWER-What age group rapidly redistributes Propofol and requires a 50% increase in dosage? Older patients - ANSWER-What age group has an increased sensitivity to Propofol and requires the dosage to be reduced?

Women - ANSWER-What gender rapidly redistributes Propofol and requires a 10-15% larger dose? Lean body mass - ANSWER-For obese patients, how should the dosage of Propofol be determined? Mild bradycardia - ANSWER-What is noticed in the first 10 minutes of administering Propofol? Hypotension - ANSWER-Large doses, rapid administration and advanced age can cause _________ when adminstering Propofol Propofol - ANSWER-What drug induces bronchodilation and can decrease the incidence of intraoperative wheezing in patients with asthma & COPD? Ketamine 10mg - ANSWER-What drug can you give 30 seconds before giving Propofol to reduce the incidence of pain during Propofol infiltration? Catatonic state - ANSWER-Ketamine causes a patient to be dissociated from sensory inputs in his environment which is called _________ state? Nystagmic - ANSWER-Distant/wandering gaze Ketamine - ANSWER-What drug is twice as rapidly eliminated in children then adults? Vivid dreaming and illusions - ANSWER-What can Ketamine cause a patient to do? Increases salivation - ANSWER-One disadvantage of Ketamine is? Liver - ANSWER-Where are barbiturates detoxified? Barbiturates - ANSWER-Produces amnesia and hypnotic effects along with sedative properties. Thought to make patients more sensitive to pain Hematomas - ANSWER-What is most frequently encountered during injection in posterior aspect of maxilla in the 3rd molar region? Esters - ANSWER-Metabolized in bloodstream by pseudocholinesterase Amides - ANSWER-Metabolized in the liver Cocaine & Procaine - ANSWER-2 types of Esters Lidocaine, mepivacaine, prilocaine, bupivacaine, articaine - ANSWER-5 types of Amides

Vasonconstrictors - ANSWER-Dilate blood vessels 10-11 carpules - ANSWER-Maximum amount of Lidocaine for an average patient 7-8 carpules - ANSWER-Maximum amount of Mepivacaine for an adult patient 6 carpules - ANSWER-Maximum amount of Prilocaine for a patient 10 carpules - ANSWER-Maximum amount of Bupivacaine for a patient 7 carpules - ANSWER-Maximum amount of Articaine for a patient Inadverent injection of Epinephrine - ANSWER-This type of injection in a vessel can lead to tachycardia, hypertension and sense of heart pounding in chest 20% O2 - ANSWER-What percentage of O2 is in room air? 1 hour - ANSWER-How long is the contact time for EMLA cream to be sufficient? Capnography - ANSWER-Level of CO2 expired in each breath- this is mandatory when an ETT is being used Fentanyl - ANSWER-_________ is 100X more potent than morphine 1 minute - ANSWER-Rapid onset of Remifentanil 50% - ANSWER-Patients over 65 should have remifentanil dosage decreased by

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Anticholingeric drugs - ANSWER-Counteract parasympathetic effects - ex: Atropine, Robinul or Scopolamine Benadryl - ANSWER-What can be used as a local anesthetic for patients allergic to multiple types of local? Rocuronium - ANSWER-Steroid based muscle relaxant that has an advantage of NOT triggering malignant hypothermia Succinylcholine - ANSWER-What drug can trigger Malignant Hypothermia? ETT - ANSWER-Inserted orally or nasally- protects against aspiration, but requires Succs or Rocuronium to be given first Right then left - ANSWER-If a tube is passed into the right mainstem bronchus - you can hear the _____ side but nothing on the _____ side

Esosphagus - ANSWER-If ETT is placed in the _______- gurgling sounds with distention of abdomen is seen and heard Methohexital (Brevital) - ANSWER-Rapid administration of anesthetic doses of __________ can result in hiccups, tachycardia and respiratory depression Not highly bound to fat - ANSWER-Why is Methohexital (Brevital) considered to be ultrashort acting compared to Thiopental? Naloxone (Narcan) - ANSWER-Primarily used as a narcotic antagonist Cardiac dysrhythmias - ANSWER-Local anesthetics containing epinephrine should be used cautiously in patients who have? Veins - ANSWER-Vessels leading to the heart Arteries - ANSWER-Vessels leading away from the heart Nervous system - ANSWER-Provides overall control of body function CNS, PNS, ANS - ANSWER-What are the 3 divisions of the Nervous system? Cerebral cortex, core of the brain, cerebellum, brainstem - ANSWER-4 parts of CNS: CNS - ANSWER-Overall control center of body and consists of the brain and spinal cord Neurons - ANSWER-Cells that conduct nerve impulses in the brain and different body parts PNS - ANSWER-Portion of the nervous system consisting of nerves and ganglia (groups of nerve cell bodies) outside the brain and spinal cord Cranial and spinal nerves - ANSWER-2 components of PNS: 12 - ANSWER-How many cranial nerves are there? Optic, olfactory & auditory - ANSWER-What are the 3 different sensory nerves? Optic nerve - ANSWER-2nd cranial nerve Olfactory nerve - ANSWER-1st cranial nerve Auditory nerve - ANSWER-8th cranial nerve Facial nerve - ANSWER-7th cranial nerve

Trigeminal nerve - ANSWER-5th cranial nerve Ophthalmic, maxillary & mandibular - ANSWER-What are the 3 divisions of the trigeminal nerve? ANS - ANSWER-Regulates internal organs (viscera) and other involuntarily functions sympathetic and parasympathetic - ANSWER-What are the 2 subdivisions of ANS: Sympathetic - ANSWER-Fight or flight Parasympathetic - ANSWER-Couch potato / rest or digest Sympathetic - ANSWER-Adrenergic, Alpha vasoconstriction and Beta big organs Stroke volume - ANSWER-Amount of blood pumped by left ventricle in each beat ( mL of blood) Cardiac output - ANSWER-Total amount of blood pumped out of left ventricle in one minute Stroke volume X heart rate - ANSWER-Formula for cardiac output Cardiac cycle - ANSWER-One contraction and relaxation of atria and ventricles followed by a short pause (60-100 BPM) Conduction system - ANSWER-Hearts normal rate and rhythm- impulse passes through fibers as a wave of depolarization and repolarization Brown - ANSWER-Color of helium: Black - ANSWER-Color of nitrogen: Yellow - ANSWER-Color of compressed air: Gray - ANSWER-Color of carbon dioxide: Blue - ANSWER-Color of nitrous oxide: Green - ANSWER-Color of oxygen: atriventricular (AV) node - ANSWER-Cells located between the atrium and ventricles- transmits electrical impulses through Bundle of His Sinoatrial (SA) node - ANSWER-Pacemaker of the heart where cardiac rhythm originates- located at junction between coronary sinus and right atrium

Oxygen analyzer & monitor - ANSWER-Device placed on an inflow limb of an anesthetic circuit to measure the exact amount of O2 in the mixture being delivered to the patient. If level gets below 20%, alarm will go off and alert the anesthesia team Vaporizer - ANSWER-Facilitates the conversion of liquid anesthetic agents to gases suitable for delivery. Ventilator - ANSWER-Device that breathes for the patient and is used with a closed system Daily - ANSWER-Flow meters, reservoir bag & delivery tubes should be check how often? Scavenging system - ANSWER-Reduces levels of noxious agents to acceptably low levels by exhausting then outside operating room- should be checked daily Supraglottic airway - ANSWER-Placed above level of vocal cords- has 2 different types Laryngeal Mask Airway (LMA) - ANSWER-Plastic tube at each end in which a small air inflated balloon sits tightly over top of the larynx- can be placed blindly but does NOT protect airway from aspiration Downward toward the uvula - ANSWER-LMA's apex of mask has an open end that is pointing _________ toward the ______ I-gel airway - ANSWER-Balloon filled with gel instead of air- enables mask to adapt closely to tissues surrounding the larynx Endotracheal intubation - ANSWER-Tube is passed through the vocal cords then advanced to terminate halfway between vocal cords and bifurcation of trachea (carina) Cardiac monitor - ANSWER-Determines arterial pressure (systolic & diastolic) and electrical activity of the heart Defibrillator - ANSWER-Only practical definitive treatment for V-fib 85% - ANSWER-Most AEDs or biphasic (discharge/shock in 2 directions across chest) can eliminate _____% of V-fib in the 1st shock Supersternal notch - ANSWER-What is the ideal placement for a pretracheal stethoscope? Pulse oximeter - ANSWER-Monitoring device that gives information about both circulation and ventilation

Light anesthesia - ANSWER-Patient who swallows during anesthesia is experiencing? Partial respiratory obstruction - ANSWER-Gurgling, snoring, high-pitched crowing or wheezing noted while listening to a precordial stethoscope indicates when a patient has? Ventilation - ANSWER-_______ can be monitored continuously by auscultation in the precordial or pretracheal region and observation of the rebreathing abg Airway obstruction - ANSWER-Rocking or "see-sawing" rhythm of the chest and abdomen may indicate? Painful stimuli - ANSWER-Increased heart rate may be caused by? Children - ANSWER-Hypoxia is seen more rapidly in _________ Complete/partial airway obstruction - ANSWER-Most often due to posterior positioning of the tongue in the oropharynx NG tube or oral airway - ANSWER-If tongue continues to fall back causing airway obstruction, what type of intubation is best? LMA or ETT - ANSWER-What are the 2 types of intubation that are considered second choice during airway obstruction caused by the tongue Tracheostomy - ANSWER-Surgical airway below level of larynx into trachea Chest compressions - ANSWER-When the patient is in the supine position and their airway is obstructed by a foreign body, what is your 2nd step if there is no airflow during ventilation? Succinylcholine - ANSWER-What emergency drug is given if a patient is having a laryngospasm? Bradycardia - ANSWER-When multiple doses of Succs is administered in adult patients or when Succs is administered to pediatric patients, what can this drug lead to? Bronchospasm - ANSWER-Contraction of smooth muscles of small bronchi & bronchioles in the lungs- resulting in restriction of airflow to and from the lungs (patients have more difficulty with expiration than inspiration) Wheezing & labored breathing - ANSWER-What are 2 signs of bronchospasm? Albuterol & Epinephrine - ANSWER-Patient is experiencing a bronchospasm, you have administered 100% O2, what 2 drugs would you give next?

ETT, LMA or igel - ANSWER-What are the 3 different types of intubation you would use for bronchospasm? Right side - ANSWER-Turn patient to his/her _____ side with head down (Trenelenburg position) when emesis with aspiration is occuring. Hyperventilation - ANSWER-Occurs when a patient is exhaling too much CO Bag to breathe in or give IV versed, valium or propofol - ANSWER-What are the 2 things you give when a patient is hyperventilating? Benzodiazepines antagonist - ANSWER-Flumazenil (Romazicon) is what type of drug? Nitro sublingually, morphone , aspirin - ANSWER-What are the 3 drugs given for angina? Morphine, oxygen, nitroglycerin, aspirin - ANSWER-What does MONA stand for? Oxygen, nitroglycerin, aspirin, and morphine - ANSWER-What's the actual order MONA is administered in? V-fib - ANSWER-Multiple PVCs can lead to? Ventricular tachycardia (V-tach) - ANSWER-Rapid waveform with no P waves, the QRS and T waves cannot be discerned Epinephrine then Amiodarone - ANSWER-What 2 emergency drugs are given for V-fib? Asystole - ANSWER-No waveform of any type on a cardiac monitor- no P, QRS or T waves of any kind Pulseless Electrical Activity (PEA) - ANSWER-Cardiac standstill with no pulse, but a normal appearing rhythm such as sinus bradycardia is displayed on the cardiac monitor Asystole or PEA - ANSWER-What 2 medical emergencies are NOT successfully treated with defibrillation? CPR & epinephrine - ANSWER-What are the first 2 things you do when a patient is experiencing asystole or PEA? Labetalol, esmolol, atenolol - ANSWER-What are 3 drugs that could be used to treat hypertension? Vaso-vagal syncope - ANSWER-A sudden drop in HR and BP leading to fainting

Ephedrine or phenylephrine (neosynephrine) - ANSWER-What 2 drugs could be used to treat hypotension? Trendelenburg - ANSWER-What position do you want a patient in with hypotension? Intra-arterial (IA) injection - ANSWER-Lidocaine without epinephrine is given to a patient who has? Mild hypoglycemia - ANSWER-A blood glucose level is below 60-65 mg/dL Moderate hypoglycemia - ANSWER-A blood glucose level below 50 mg/dL Severe hypoglycemia - ANSWER-A blood glucose level of 30 mg/dL Mild - ANSWER-Oral glucose or juice is given to patients with ______ hypoglycemia Severe - ANSWER-1 ampule of IV glucose & IV infusion of dextrose is given to patients with _______ hypoglycemia Acute adrenal insufficiency - ANSWER-Inadequate production of cortisol Synscope - ANSWER-CABs is given to patients who are experiencing a ________ episode Chest compressions, airway maintenance, breathing - ANSWER-CAB stands for: Cortisol - ANSWER-Hormone produced and released by adrenal glands Cerebrovascular accident (CVA) - ANSWER-Damage to a portion of the brain caused by a blood clot Stroke - ANSWER-Neurological impairment lasting 24 hours or more Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA) - ANSWER-Neurological impairing lasting less than 24 hours 180/120 - ANSWER-DON'T treat BP unless it is greater than __ /__ in a patient having a stroke, CVA or TIA 1-10 - ANSWER-How many people allergic to Penicillin are also allergic to cephalosporins? Rash - ANSWER-Urticaria Swollen lips - ANSWER-Angioedema

5-10 mins - ANSWER-Anaphylaxis will occur within the first ____ minutes after exposure to the offending agent Epinephrine IM, sublingual or SQ - ANSWER-What is the first drug of choice when treating anaphylaxis? Benadryl & decahedron - ANSWER-What are the 2nd and 3rd drugs given when treating anaphylaxis? Malignant hyperthermia - ANSWER-Genetically transmitted myopathy that is triggered by some inhalation agents and succinylcholine Malignant hyperthermia - ANSWER-Tachycardia, masseter muscle rigidity, elevated body temperature, CO2 retention, total body rigidity or lethal arrhythmias are all signs of

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Dantrolene, IV cold saline, ice packs - ANSWER-What 3 things are done for a patient with malignant hyperthermia? Hypovolemia - ANSWER-Inadequate blood volume is called? Hemorrhage - ANSWER-Patient who has uncontrolled ___________, may need to receive blood products (whole blood, plasma, packed RBCs in an inpatient hospital setting) Syncope - ANSWER-Decreased cerebral blood flow is the cause of? Heart disease - ANSWER-Angina pectoris is most likely to be caused by? V-fib - ANSWER-What is the most dangerous type of arrhythmia? Valium (diazepam) - ANSWER-The drug of choice for management of grand mal seizures is IV adminsitration of? Peripheral vasoconstriction - ANSWER-The use of epinephrine results in? Normal sinus rhythm (NSR) - ANSWER- Sinus Arrhythmia - ANSWER- Sinus bradycardia - ANSWER- Sinus tachycardia - ANSWER- Supraventricular Tachycardia (SVT) - ANSWER-

Paroxsymal Supraventricular Tach (PSVT) - ANSWER- Atrial Fibrillation (A-Fib) - ANSWER- Atrial Flutter - ANSWER- Inverted P wave - ANSWER- Junctional rhythm with no P wave - ANSWER- Premature Atrial Contraction (PAC) - ANSWER- premature ventricular contraction (PVC) - ANSWER- Multifocal PVCs - ANSWER- Couplet PVCs - ANSWER- Run PVCs - ANSWER- Ventricular tachycardia (V-tach) - ANSWER- Ventricular fibrillation (V-fib) - ANSWER- V-fib to Asystole - ANSWER- Beta cells - ANSWER-What cells produce insulin? 3 lobes - ANSWER-How many lobes does the right lung have? 2 lobes - ANSWER-How many lobes does the left lung have? 2.5 or less - ANSWER-What does a patients INR have to be to perform surgery? 2.0-3.5 - ANSWER-Therapeutic levels of INR Blue and right side - ANSWER-Deoxygenated blood is on the ______ side of the heart and is _______ in color Red and left side - ANSWER-Oxygenated blood is on the ______ side of the heart and is _______ in color 3 factors that control BP - ANSWER-Force & rate of the contraction of the heart, constriction or dilation of the blood vessels, and the volume of fluid in the system are all factors of what?

ANS and endocrine system - ANSWER-What are the 2 systems that regular the factors that control BP? Left side CHF - ANSWER-What is the most common type of CHF? Weight (lbs) / 150 x normal adult dose - ANSWER-How is medication dosages calculated for pediatric patients? (Clark's rule) Hypotension - ANSWER-__________ leads to bradycardia in pediatric patients Propofol - ANSWER-Use ______ with caution in patients with a history of seizures because there is no reversal drug Seizure patients - ANSWER-You should administer a benzodiazepine prior to infusion of Propofol for what type of patients? Facial Artery - ANSWER-artery that supplies blood to the face, tonsil, palate, and submandibular gland Fasciculation - ANSWER-sustained twitching of all of the muscles of the body Fine ventricular fibrillation - ANSWER-ventricular fibrillation in which there are very small deflections of the baseline First Degree AV Block - ANSWER-an atrioventricular block with a long PR interval, but no missed beats Flat Line - ANSWER-descriptive term for systole in which there are no deflections of the baseline Focus (plural foci) - ANSWER-a site in the atria or ventricles which is the center point for the generation of an impulse e.g. a pacemaker Glucocorticoid - ANSWER-a type of corticosteroid involved in many bodily activities Halogenated hydrocarbons - ANSWER-inhalation general anesthetic agents containing carbon, hydrogen and elements from the halogen series of atoms such as chlorine or bromine (e.g. fluothane, isoflurane, desflurane, seroflurane) Heart murmur - ANSWER-a sound heard with a stethoscope indicative of a back flow of blood into the atria or into the ventricles Hematocrit - ANSWER-the volume percentage of red blood cells (erythrocytes) in whole blood

Hematoma - ANSWER-localized collection of blood, usually clotted, in an organ, space, or tissue, due to a break in the wall of a blood vessel Hemoglobin - ANSWER-a component of red blood cells that carries oxygen from the lungs to the tissues and carbon dioxide from the tissues to the lungs Homeostasis - ANSWER-the maintenance of internal stability of a system with minimal variation from the normal state, e.g., maintenance of blood pressure or pulse and respiration within the normal range. Hypercarbia - ANSWER-an increased level of carbon dioxide Hyperpyrexia - ANSWER-an increased body temperature Hypertension - ANSWER-abnormally high blood pressure Hyperthyroidism - ANSWER-excessive functional activity of the thyroid gland, characterized by increased basal metabolism, goiter, and disturbances of the autonomic nervous system Hypnosis - ANSWER-unconsciousness induced by an anesthetic agent Hypotension - ANSWER-abnormally low blood pressure Hypothyroidism - ANSWER-deficiency of thyroid activity characterized in adults by decreased metabolic rate, tiredness, sensitivity to cold, and menstrual disturbances Hypoxia - ANSWER-low levels of oxygen in the body's tissues Induction - ANSWER-the initiation of a state of unconsciousness during anesthesia Inferior alveolar artery - ANSWER-artery that supplies blood to the mandible, teeth, lower lip, and chin Inferior vena cava - ANSWER-the venous trunk from the lower extremities and abdominal viscera that empties blood into the right atrium of the heart Internal jugular vein - ANSWER-vein that drains much of the blood from the head and neck Ion channels - ANSWER-microscopic channels within the membranes of neurons through which charged particles or ions pass during conduction of the nerve impulse Ischemia - ANSWER-deficiency of blood to a body part, due to functional constriction or obstruction of a blood vessel

Jaundice - ANSWER-a syndrome characterized by yellowish skin, mucous membrane, and sclera (white outer coat of the eyeball) Junctional rhythms - ANSWER-cardiac dysrhythmia in which the ectopic pacemaker is in the area of the AV junction Laryngopharynx - ANSWER-a part of the pharynx that lies directly behind the larynx (voice box) Lingual artery - ANSWER-artery that supplies blood to the tongue, tonsil, and floor of mouth Maxillary artery - ANSWER-artery that supplies blood to the maxilla, teeth, ear, meninges, nose, nasal sinus, and palate Medulla oblongata - ANSWER-an oblong-shaped structure in the upper oration of the brainstem, which, along with the Pons, contains vital centers that control such physiologic processes as maintenance of blood pressure and pulse, respiration, etc. Mental artery - ANSWER-artery that supplies blood to the chin Metabolism - ANSWER-the chemical alteration of drugs and other substances that usually takes place in the liver. In some cases the new substance formed by the chemical alteration has no chemical activity of its own, while in other cases there may be active metabolites Mitral valve - ANSWER-the valve between the left atrium and left ventricle of the heart that lets blood pass into the left ventricle Mitral valve prolapse - ANSWER-a valvular heart disorder in which one or both mitral valve flaps close incompletely Motor nerve - ANSWER-a nerve of the peripheral nervous system that stimulates muscle contraction Multifocal premature ventricular contractions (PVCs) - ANSWER-PVCs for which there are two or more ectopic foci that generate PVCs of different configurations Myocardial infarction - ANSWER-necrosis (death) of the tissue of the myocardium resulting from an interruption of the blood supply to the area, as in coronary thrombosis Myocardium - ANSWER-the middle and thickest layer of the heart wall, composed of cardiac muscle

Narcotic agonist-antagonists - ANSWER-pharmacologic agents that reverse the effects of narcotics while also providing pain relief and a degree of sedation (e.g. pentazocine, nalbuphine, butorphanol tantrate) Narcotics - ANSWER-drugs that produce insensibly and stupor (e.g. morphine, meperidine, fentanyl (Sublimaze) Nasopharynx - ANSWER-the part of the pharynx that lies above the back of the soft palate Neuron - ANSWER-nerve cell Neurotransmitter - ANSWER-a chemical substance that crosses the synaptic cleft and activates opening of ion channels in the postsynaptic nerve, and thereby enables the nerve impulse to pass from one nerve to the next Norepinephrine - ANSWER-a hormone secreted by the adrenal gland that is the principal neurotransmitter of the sympathetic nerve endings supplying the major organs and skin; increases blood pressure and rate and depth of breathing; raises level of blood sugar, and decreases the activity of the intestines Normal sinus rhythm - ANSWER-the normal rhythm of the heart containing P waves, QRS complexes and waves with a regular rate of 60-100 bpm. NPO - ANSWER-nothing by mouth (nil per os) Olfactory nerve - ANSWER-the first cranial nerve, which allows a person to smell Optic nerve - ANSWER-the second cranial nerve, which allows a person to see Oropharynx - ANSWER-the division of the pharynx lying between the soft palate and the upper edge of the epiglottis Oxygen capacity - ANSWER-the maximum amount of oxygen an individual's blood can carry; this capacity depends on the amount of hemoglobin available P wave - ANSWER-a wave appearing on an ECG tracing that reflects the electrical activity that produces the contraction of the atria Paradoxical effect - ANSWER-an effect that is the opposite of the intended effect Parasympathetic Nervous System - ANSWER-the part of the autonomic nervous system pertaining to skull and sacrum (bone just below the lumbar vertebrae) Paroxysmal tachycardia - ANSWER-a condition marked by sudden attacks of rapid heartbeats

Pulseless electrical activity (PEA) - ANSWER-a cardiac dysrhythmia in which a normal rhythm such as sinus bradycardia appears on the monitor screen although there is no contraction of the heart Peripheral nervous system - ANSWER-that portion of the nervous system consisting of the nerves and ganglia (groups of nerve cell bodies) outside the brain and spinal cord Pharmacodynamics - ANSWER-the effects that the drug has on various body systems, i.e., what the drug does to the body Pharmacokinetics - ANSWER-the effects that the body has on a drug, i.e., what the body does to the drug Pharynx - ANSWER-the muscular and membranous cavity leading from the mouth and lower nasal passages to the trachea Phlebitis - ANSWER-inflammation of a blood vessel (usually a vein) in response to an irritating intravenously administered substance Pneumonitis - ANSWER-inflammation of the lungs PO (per os) - ANSWER-through the mouth Pons - ANSWER-an almond-shaped structure that is the upper-most portion of the brainstem and serves as a "bridge" to the midbrain; the Pons and the medulla oblongata beneath it contain the vital centers that control such physiologic processes as maintenance of blood pressure and pulse, respiration, etc Potentiate - ANSWER-to make stronger or enhance the effect of a drug or anesthetic agent Premature atrial contraction (PAC) - ANSWER-a premature firing of an ectopic focus in the atria producing an early contraction of the atria Premature ventricular contraction (PVC) - ANSWER-premature contraction of the heart that is independent of the normal rhythm and arises in response to an impulse in the ventricle Prothrombin - ANSWER-a protein present in plasma that represents one of several coagulation factors (substances in the blood that are essential to the clotting process) Protease inhibitors - ANSWER-a class of pharmacologic agents used in the treatment of AIDS to help prevent replication of the HIV virus in the body

Pseudocholinesterase - ANSWER-type of enzyme found in the blood that is responsible for the metabolic breakdown of the muscle relaxant succinylcholine Pterygoid plexus - ANSWER-a network of veins corresponding to the second and third parts of the maxillary artery Pulmonary artery - ANSWER-one of two arteries (branches of the pulmonary trunk) that carry venous blood from the heart to the lungs Pulmonary veins - ANSWER-The veins that return oxygenated blood from the lungs to the left atrium of the heart. This is the only case on the body in which veins carry oxygenated blood Pulseless V. Tach - ANSWER-a cardiac dysrhythmia in which there is a monitor display of ventricular tachycardia, but there is no contraction Purkinje fiber system - ANSWER-specialized cardiac muscle fibers that rapidly transmit impulses in the heart and coordinate contraction of the heart; dense networks of these fibers form the sinoatrial and atrioventricular nodes. QRS Complex - ANSWER-an element appearing on an ECG tracing that reflects the activity that produces ventricular contraction Rales - ANSWER-abnormal breath sounds detected during auscultation of the lungs that are often described as crackling or bubbling Receptor sites - ANSWER-specialized sites on ion channels to which natural neurotransmitter substances or drugs attach, usually leading to the opening of the ion channel for passage of positively or negatively charged ions Redistribution - ANSWER-the release of a drug from its initial receptor site and its movement through the blood stream to other body structures such as fat stores, muscles, etc Relay center - ANSWER-an ovoid structure in the central portion of the brain that relays sensory input to the cerebral cortex Repolarization - ANSWER-reestablishment of the normal distribution of charge across a neuronal membrane Review of systems - ANSWER-an organized set of questions asked during history ta,king that address each of the major body systems Rheumatic heart disease - ANSWER-damage to the heart, primarily the heart valves, caused by a systemic bacterial infection