DASLE MN EXAM 2024 | 319 QUESTIONS LATEST UPDATE 2024/2025 WITH 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS, Exams of Health sciences

Download DASLE MN EXAM 2024 | 319 QUESTIONS LATEST UPDATE 2024/2025 WITH 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS and more Exams Health sciences in PDF only on Docsity! DASLE MN EXAM 2024 | 319 QUESTIONS LATEST UPDATE 2024/2025 WITH 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS What system has a tightening wrench to tighten and loosen the band? Automatrix What is the purpose of a wedge? How many do you need for an MOD restoration? To contour and hold the band securely, 2 wedges auto matrix is unique in that it has a wrench that does what? has no retainer to hold the band in place. the tightening wrench is inserted into the coil and is turned clockwise to tighten the band What occurs if the wedge is not place properly? Overhang or cupping Class III & IV composites use what type of matrix system? Celluloid strip "Mylar" wedges function is to? insert into the lingual embrasure to hold the band firmly against the gingival margin of the prep. for posterior restoration, where is the wedge inserted? inserted on the lingual side what is used to insert the wedge? 110 howe pliers The universal band when placed should extend _____ mm above the ________ surface? 1 ½ to 2 mm above the occlusal surface what is T-band made from? stainless steel or copper what is the universal retainer (tofflemire retainer) a mechanical device that holds the matrix band snugly in position. it's designed for class II amalgam restoration and intermediate. It's positioned from the buccal surface of the tooth being restored Explain the rule for posterior teeth isolation. Isolate 1 to 2 teeth distal to the tooth being treated (working tooth), and isolate 3 to 4 teeth mesial or 6 to 8 teeth for better stability Explain the rule for anterior teeth isolation. What is the exception to the rule? Isolate canine to canine, clamp may not be needed, ligate between canine and 1st premolar Anterior/cervical clamp may be used for Class V, endo tooth or premolar clamps may be used The bow of the dental dam clamp is placed towards the _____ and the four points of the clamp are resting _______________? The distal and below the height of contour Which side of the tooth is the clamp placed on first? Lingual, this allows for a fulcrum to place the clamp List items that can be used to invert dental dam. Air, Plastic instrument (blunt instrument), black spoon or beavertail burnisher, Waxed floss the bow of the dental dam clam is placed towards the _____ and the four points of the clamp are resting _______? towards the distal and the four points of the clamp are resting below the height of contour Which side of the tooth is the clamp placed on first? Dull Frosted Chalky List contra-indicators for sealant placement. Occlusal surface is smooth and easy to clean Decay on occlusal surface Decay on interproximal surface Restoration already in place List the indications for sealant placement. Occlusal surfaces with pits & fissures Bu pit of mandibular molars Li groove by cusp of Carabelli Cingulum pits Patient with high incidence of caries How is liquid etch applied? What can happen if done incorrectly? Dabbed continuously No rubbing/burnishing Damages the etched enamel rods How is gel-etch applied? Put in place and wait 30 seconds (15-60 seconds) Does not need to be continuously applied How far should the light tip be placed away from the sealant during curing? 1-2 mm without touching the sealant What is another name for etch? conditioner Is sealant retention better on maxillary or mandibular teeth? Mandibular teeth because of easier placement What is the chemical composition of the sealant material? Bis-GMA Dimethacrylate (acrylate resins can be a known allergen for some patients) If contamination occurs during the sealant procedure, how long does the tooth need to be re-etched? for 15 seconds - If there is a bubble in the sealant after curing and before isolation has been removed you can just add sealant and cure What happens to areas of enamel that are etched but not covered with sealant resin? Remineralization begins within 24 hours of exposure to calcium phosphate salts in saliva What is the primary cause for sealant failure? Moisture contamination during placement What is the shelf life for most sealant material stored at room temperature? 18-36 months What product should not be stored next to sealant material? eugenol What material should not be used when cleaning the tooth prior to sealant placement? Oil or material containing fluoride How long can a properly placed sealant last? 5-10 years Most sealant failures occur within what timeframe? 3-6 months When checking articulation (the bite) after placement, what should be done if the sealant is high? Reduce the high spot with the appropriate bur (LDA can do this) Which of the following materials used for sealants contains fluoride and does not require the use of an etching or bonding agent? glass ionomers The initial polymerization of self-curing pit and fissure sealants occurs within what amount of time from the start of the mixing process? How about the final set? 1 minute at initial and 2 minutes at final Why would unfilled resin be preferred for use over filled resin sealant material? They do not have to require occlusal adjustment after placement (will wear down on their own) Which teeth most frequently lose their sealants? 2nd molars What is the curing time per surface for a light cured sealant resin? light cure for 20 secs How long should the etch be in contact with the tooth during sealant placement? book: 20-30 secs 15-60 secs what type of polishing agent is recommended for use to polish hybrid composite and resin restorations? aluminum oxide paste what type of polishing agent is recommended for use to polish porcelain restoration? sapphire / diamond polishing paste what is the maximum amount of time that a tooth should be polished to reduce tooth abrasion? 3-5 seconds will mechanical polish increase the benefits of a fluoride treatment? no 7-10 days what is a sickle scaler used for? used to remove large deposits of supragingival calculus (upper) what is the chisel scaler used for? used to remove supragingival calculus in contact area of anterior teeth what is hoe scaler used for? used to remove HEAVY supragingival calculus (effective on buccal and lingual surfaces of posterior teeth) what is a periodontal currrete used for? remove SUBLINGUAL (lower) calculus, smooth rough root surfaces (root planing), removing diseased soft tissue lining of the perio pocket (can remove supragingiva too) what are perio files used for? remove extremely HEAVY calculus gingivectomy surgical removal of diseased gingival tissue Where should the sutures be cut during removal? Close to the tissue (below the knot) List the objectives during suture removal (5). Grasp knot with pliers and cut near tissue Place topical for patient comfort Place sutures on gauze- Count and compare to amount placed Irrigate if bleeding and give homecare instructions Remove after 5-7 days What instrument is used to remove the sutures? Cotton pliers What is the first step in the suture removal process? Swab the site with an antiseptic the assistant may cut the suture for the dentist how long should the tails be? 2-3 mm what is the suture technique for a single tooth socket? interrupted/horizontal mattress (most common) what is the suture technique for 2 or more papillae together? mattress suture and future eight (continuous suture) The dental material most commonly selected for pulp capping is _______. Calcium hydroxide What portion of the pulp would the dentist remove in a pulpotomy? Coronal How are absorbent paper points sized for use? Fine to coarse, or sized like reamers and files what are endodontic paper points sterile, absorbent pieces of paper rolled into long, narrow points variety of sizes ranging from fine (thin) to coarse (thick) After you have selected the appropriate size for the absorbent point, how do you correctly dry a root canal? Insert and remove one at a time in the canal, repeating until the point comes out dry What instrument is commonly used to hold and position the endodontic absorbent points? Locking cotton pliers What is Chlorobutanol used for? Used to treat flamed pulp of near pulp exposure Define debridement. removal of necrotic (dead) tissue and cleaning out out the pulpal canal what is pulp capping? used when decay is near pulp chamber. goal is to remove as much decay as possible without exposing the pulp define obturation process of filling a root canal (filled with gutta percha) what irrigation solution is used to dry out the canal? sodium hypochlorite (household bleach) diluted from 0.5% - 5.25% with sterile water fir use as irrigation what is pulpectomy? complete removal of the dental pulp (root canal therapy) What is the purpose of the gingival retraction? To ensure obtaining an impression with clear margins to fabricate a crown or bridge Where should the ends of the cord be after placement? Buccal or facial for easy of removal what is the purpose of gingival displacement? To ensure obtaining an impression with clear margins to fabricate a crown or bridge Length: 1 to 1 ½ inches depending on tooth Depth: 1-3 mm in the sulcus 1 or 2 cords: depends on the depth and width of the sulcus Time: 10-15 minutes with plain cord = mechanical retraction (nonimpregnated) 5 minutes for impregnated cord = chemical retraction A gingival retraction takes place ____the preparation and _____ the final impression is taken. After; before While holding the ligature between the thumb and index finger, slide the wire between these fingers so only the section that wraps around the bracket is exposed. Make sure to work toward the midline. Slide the ligature around the bracket, using the ligature director to push the wire against the tie wing. Twist together the ends of the ligature. Place the hemostat about 3 to 5 mm from the bracket, and twist the wire snugly against the bracket. After all teeth have been ligated, use a ligature cutter to remove the excess wire, leaving a 4- to 5-mm pigtail. Use the ligature director to tuck the pigtails under the arch wire toward the gingiva at the interproximal space After a ligature is tied and cut, where is it tucked? cut with the ligature director leaving 4-5 mm pigtail and tuck the pigtails under the arch wire toward the gingiva at the interproximal space If the band is placed beyond the marginal ridge with finger pressure, it is too large what are seating lugs used for? for placement and removal of the ortho bands a metal piece that helps the band pushed push band in place What is another name for a seating lug? lingual cleat What instrument is used to remove elastic separators? book: ortho scaler, place between the bracket tie wings and pull tie at the occlusal position with a rolling motion Removing Elastomeric Ring Separators Slide an orthodontic scaler (Shure) into the doughnut-shaped separator. Use slight pressure to remove the ring from under the contact. Why is it important to remove excess cement around brackets after placement? Less decalcification Less gingival irritation Less plaque build-up What is the buccal tube? Located on the buccal of the band to place the arch wire through, top tube is for the arch wire and the bottom tube is for the headgear. Hooks for the elastics for crossbite correction What ortho appliance can be cemented into place by an LDA if it has been pre-fit and pre-adjusted? ortho band These are true statements about an ortho band Ortho bands are preformed stainless steel bands that are commonly placed on the 1st and 2nd molars Ortho bands are designed divided into mx and mn , right and left, in various sizes to compensate for individual tooth differences The gingival edge of the ortho band is straight and smooth slightly rolled or contoured whereas the occlusal edge is slightly rolled or contoured Buttons, tubes and cleats may be attached to the ortho bands for the arch wire, headgear bows and power products nickel titanium arch wire type useful for movement bc of its flexibility. used during the INITIAL stages of tooth movement for malaligned and/or crowded teeth stainless steel arch wire type stiffer and stronger than other types of arch wire and is used to apply GREATER FORCE and give better stability to control teeth. can withstand greater force (working arch wire) beta titantium (tma) arch wire type provides combo strength, flexibility, and memory. ortho dds may choose this type of arch wire when many bands must be placed optiflex arch wire type newer type of arch wire that's mad from a composite material with a top coating of optical glass fibers, making it esthetically pleasing. also used for LIGHT FORCE in the INITIAL stages of alignment Round arch wire shape used during INITIAL and intermediate stages of treatment. to correct crowded and crooked teeth and to level the arch square/rectangular arch wire shape used during the FINAL stages of treatment to position the crown and the root in correct maxillary and mandibular relationship. give tooth better stability and apply greater force bird beak pliers dds used to bend and form wires for fixed and removable appliances Contour the archwire, done by the dentist weingart pliers used for placement of arch wires hawley retainer most common appliance. a removable retainer worn to passively retain teeth in their new position after fixed appliances have been removed headgear used before braces/work together with braces to move and realign teeth 2 parts: face bow and traction device lingual retainer canine to canine What do the end cutting pliers do? Cut and remove the distal end of an archwire What does palliative treatment mean in ortho? To get a patient out of pain, in ortho that would be cut archwires When adapting an aluminum temporary crown, what procedure should be followed if there is a weak contact? Use a burnisher to extend the contact when do you take the impression for the temporary crown during the crown prep procedure? before prep and after forfinal what is intermediate restoration? temporary restoration that can be placed in any tooth/surface for a short time IRM (Intermediate Restorative Material) type of material most commonly used for procedure when tooth is replaced - reinforced zoe composition (eugenol has a sedative effect on the pulp) - irm is supplied in powder and liquid List the instruments used and the correct sequence when removing cement. U-15 scaler (spoon excavator), explorer, mirror & floss Which instrument is used to check the set of the cement prior to removal? explorer What instrument is used to remove the cement? explorer / Spoon excavator (bulk) What instrument can be used to go under the gumline to check for piece of cement? gumline Describe the technique for removing cement. Lateral / horizontal motion away from the gumline List the objectives of the area after the cement is removed. All surfaces smooth and clean No tissue damage No particles interproximally Normal occlusion No distortion in restoration An area on a tooth that does not yet show decay, but the surface has begun to decalcify, is defined as_______ Incipient caries Overt or Frank lesions are characterized by cavitation—the development of a cavity or a hole Smooth surface caries occurs on enamel surfaces, including mesial, distal, facial, and lingual surfaces. Root surface caries occurs on any surface of the exposed root Secondary caries, or recurrent caries, occurs on the tooth that surrounds a restoration. Caries on the interproximal surface of the anterior tooth that do not include the incisal edge are________? Class III When completing preliminary charting, excess restorative material found near the gingival tissue is an overhang of _____________. Amalgam Gold foil Filled sealant Unfilled sealant Overhang = Excess restorative material that extends beyond the cavity margin. Why and where is it necessary to add wax (wax trimming) to an alginate tray? (4) Protects tissue form injury and provides pt. comfort Extends the length of tray Add to palate (pt. with high palatal vault) Extends borders to aid in obtaining buccal muscle attachments What type of wax is used for wax trimming? utility wax What is the correct operator position when taking a maxillary impression? Stand at 11:00-12:00 (right-handed operator) and 12:00 (left-handed operator operator position when taking Mandibular impression? Stand at 7:30-8:00 (right-handed operator), 4:30-5:00(left-handed operator) How do you avoid excess material from going down a patient's throat when taking a maxillary impression? Load from back of tray but bring majority of impression material to the anterior portion and make sure to seat tray from posterior to anterior (will create a posterior dam) Why is the patient instructed to lift and extrude their tongue when taking a mandibular impression? Ensures the lingual aspect of the alveolar process (lingual flange) is defined How is the setting time of alginate lengthened? Shortened? By using colder water (never change the material ratios) By using warmer water What is the cause of? Drags- movement while material is setting or premature setting Folds- alginate that was painted on the teeth sets before tray was inserted Fine bubbles throughout the impression- patient gagged Buccal surface/aspects protruding on both sides of the tray- tray too narrow Mandibular retro molar pad not visible on impression- tray too short Why is mouthwash used in an alginate impression (4)? Removes food debris Helps prevent air bubbles Tidal volume A patient should be instructed to breathe 100% oxygen after treatment for how many minutes? Minimum of 5 minutes Under nitrous oxide, if the patient is returned directly to room air rather than 100% oxygen, the patient may experience what? Diffusion Hypoxia Headache Nausea Lethargic What is the average tidal volume for an adult? How about for a child? Adult- 5-7 lpm Children 3-4 lpm For about 70% of the patients, the ideal optimum N2O sedation dose is 30-40 % What are some of the safety features in place to reduce exposure to DHCW? Color coding Scavenger system Pin index system Nitrous will only start with 10-15% oxygen Emergency shut off Have patient breather through their nose Locks on doors Oxygen fail-safe Flush button 4 stages of nitrous oxygen sedation Stage 1: Analgesia-Light Sedation Stage Tingly Relaxed and fully conscious Normal breathing This is the desired stage Warm Stage 2: Not relaxed Abnormal breathing Undesired stage Excitement stage Stage 3: Patient is unconscious Oral Surgery it performed in this stage General Anesthesia Stage Stage 4: Death/Patient stops breathing Does Nitrous Oxide Sedation raise or lower a patient's pain threshold? raises What is the purpose of the flow meter? monitor the flow of gases What is a major source of trace nitrous oxide that contaminates the ambient air in a dental office? The patient talking Which of the following has the largest impact on adverse events of nitrous oxide sedation? Duration of the nitrous oxide exposure the oxygen level should be at what level when introducing nitrous oxide? 100% List topical anesthetics that may have a toxic reaction. Tetracaine Hydrochloride (Cetacaine) and Butacaine Sulfate (Butyn) Which topical is likely to cause a localized allergic reaction? Benzocaine What is the purpose of a topical anesthetic? provide numbing effect in a specific area where an injection is to take place Produce loss of sensation Prevent gagging Temp relief from cancer sores, ulcer Dental dam placement Replacement of perio packs Suture removal Define caustic. Corrosive or burning Irritating to the tissue Which topical medication should not be used if a patient has had prior sensitivity to Iodine? Betadine How is the topical anesthetic placed? Dry the area with gauze and place with a cotton tip applicator Left in place 60 seconds Takes effect in 3-5 minutes What is the most widely used topical anesthetic agent? Lidocaine different types of topical anesthetics (not brands). Ointment Liquid Apply slow to moderate pressure Turn handpiece to adapt cup interproximally What part of the dental cup does the polishing? Outer edge does the polishing- spreads the material over the tooth and should flare 1-2 mm into the sulcus One of the procedures to follow when polishing esthetic and porcelain restorations is to? Polish these restorations first What is the purpose of selective polishing? To polish only the teeth with stain, less unnecessary removal of tooth enamel Abrasives used in prophylaxis polishing pates are how many times stronger than tooth structure when they are applied? 10 times harder Which conditions of the tooth should be polished? Light brown stained teeth Explain therapeutic polishing. Polishing root surfaces that have been exposed during periodontal surgery How long does it take for biofilm to collect on the pellicle after a coronal polish? 1-2 hours If a line of stain or deposits appear along the gingival margin after polishing, what was the problem? The cup was not flexed or adapted to the tooth A mechanical polish removes what type of deposits and stains? Extrinsic stain and soft deposits such as plaque and food debris What are the objectives of a mechanical polish? Teeth should be smooth and glossy All soft deposits removed All extrinsic stains removed No tissue abrasion Contributions to patient motivation What is the reason for using a prophy brush during a mechanical/coronal polish? Polish in the grooves (but do not used on exposed cementum or dentin) List 3 true statements about the polishing procedure. The dental cup may be filled with prophy paste and used to spread the paste over several surfaces in the area to be polished One polishing cup should be used for each different polishing agent Approximately one capful of polishing agent is used to polish one or two teeth What handpiece speed is sufficient to remove stain in a mechanical polish? 20 psi What is the maximum amount of time that a tooth should be polished to reduce tooth abrasion? 3-5 seconds Will mechanical polish increase the benefits of a fluoride treatment? no Why do primary teeth heat up more easily during a polish? The enamel and dentin are thinner and the pulp is larger How do you explain a coronal polish to a child? By using the prophy cup on their fingernail & Tell-Show-Do why is dental floss used in a polish to polish the stain interproximally silex Used to remove tenacious stain on enamel pumice removes stain on enamel relatively coarse, but many different abrasion (fine to course) not to be used on gold, root surfaces or resin because it abrades easily zirconium silicate polishes enamel to high luster can be used on root surfaces and crowns whiting precipitated chalk/calcium carbonate polished dentures used in toothpaste produces rough tooth surface tin oxide Fine white powder mix with water or glycerine polishes gold and teeth used for final polish emery Not used directly on enamel polishes acrylics and composites rouge Iron Oxide polishes gold and precious metals in the lab recrystalized kaolinite Tray fluoride - Gel & Foam are instructed not to eat or drink for how long? 30 minutes Which fluoride is not recommended for patients with ceramic or composite restorations? APF (Acidulated Phosphoric Fluoride) it can etch those surfaces Which fluoride may cause gingival blanching on the tissue? stannous Which fluoride may cause brown stains? - Stannous Mouth rinses that contain fluoride may be recommended as an additional source of topical fluoride for high-risk patients. - Over-the-counter nonprescription rinses generally contain 0.05% sodium fluoride and are designed for daily use. - Prescription rinses generally contain 0.63% stannous fluoride or 0.2% sodium fluoride. Fluoride rinses are often used for their antiplaque properties. - Stannous fluoride is also effective in decreasing dental hypersensitivity (extreme sensitivity of the tooth, such as to hot and cold). What is the optimal amount of time for gel or foam fluoride to stay on the teeth during application? 4 minutes 1 minute for 80% effectiveness Which type of fluoride would not be used on a very young child? mouth rinse How does the patient get the excess gel or foam fluoride out of their mouth after a fluoride treatment? LDA will use the saliva ejector and HVE to remove the saliva and excess fluoride, we do not want the patient to rinse with water. Spit or saliva ejector or wipe tongue with gauze What is the primary source of topical fluoride? toothpaste During which stage of tooth formation is the greatest amount of fluoride absorbed? Pre-eruptive stage when surrounded by a fluid sac, the amount of fluoride in the sac is dependent on the mother's diet before birth and after birth but before eruption on the child's intake of fluoride What are the patient instructions after a fluoride varnish application? No brushing or flossing for 2-4 hours May eat or drink right away, but no hot liquids or rough foods No smoking No alcohol X-rays are made up of: photons The most dangerous time for a fetus to be exposed to ionizing radiation is: first trimester Which of the following cells is considered radioresistant? mature bone (kidney, liver, nerve, muscle, salivary gland, thyroid gland) How many feet must the radiographer stand from the tubehead during exposure? 6 feet at 90-135 degree What type of x-ray/PID is more collimating? rectangular The primary function of collimation is? Restrict size of the beam ALARA stands for as low as reasonbly achieveable The ALARA concept provides protection for whom? Both patient and operator The component of the x-ray machine that produces the x-ray is the? tube head Which of the following regulates the installation and manufacturing of dental x-ray equipment? federal government Which beam alignment device has 3 parts (ring, arm, biteblock)? rinn The extraoral radiograph that shows bony and soft tissue areas of the facial profile is the? cephalometoric On a radiograph, the structures that are less effective at blocking and absorbing x-rays appear? radiolucent Too much VA can result in images that appear? foreshortening When utilizing the bisecting technique? Central beam is perpendicular to the line bisecting angle formed by the long axis of the tooth receptor What is the main purpose for exposing bitewings? to see interproximal surfaces Storage phosphor imaging: Uses a reusable imaging plate Digital images are cleared from the storage phosphor imaging plates by: placing them into an electronic processor A method of reversing the gray-scale so that radiolucent images and radiopaque images appear opposite of what is normally expected when viewed on a monitor is termed: