Decisive Action Tasks and Military Operations, Exams of Nursing

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CCC Common Core Combined Set Exam Questions and Complete Solutions Graded A+ Denning [Date] [Course title]

TLPs - Answer: R- Receive the mission I- Issue Warno M- Make a tentative plan I- Initiate movement C- Conduct recon C- Complete the plan I- Issue the order S- Supervise/Refine Foundations of Unified Land Operations - Answer: 1. I- Initiative

2. D- Decisive action
3. C- Army core competencies
4. M- Mission command Initiative - Answer: Operational initiative is setting or dictating the terms of action throughout an operation. Individual initiative is the willingness to act in the absence of orders, when existing orders no longer fit the situation, or when unforeseen opportunities or threats arise. Decisive action - Answer: a. Decisive action—the continuous, simultaneous combinations of offensive, defensive, and stability or defense support of civil authorities tasks. Decisive action tasks - Answer: i. An offensive task is a task conducted to defeat and destroy enemy forces and seize terrain, resources, and population centers. ii. A defensive task is a task conducted to defeat an enemy attack, gain time, economize forces, and develop conditions favorable for offensive or stability tasks. iii. Stability is an overarching term encompassing various military missions, tasks, and activities conducted outside the United States in coordination with other instruments of national power to maintain or reestablish a safe and secure environment, provide essential governmental services, emergency infrastructure reconstruction, and humanitarian relief. iv. Defense support of civil authorities is support provided by U.S. Federal military forces, Department of Defense civilians, Department of Defense contract personnel, Department of Defense component assets, and National Guard forces.

Army core competencies - Answer: a. Combined arms maneuver is the application of the elements of combat power in unified action to defeat enemy ground forces; to seize, occupy, and defend land areas; and to achieve physical, temporal, and psychological advantages over the enemy to seize and exploit the initiative. b. Wide area security is the application of the elements of combat power in unified action to protect populations, forces, infrastructure, and activities; to deny the enemy positions of advantage; and to consolidate gains in order to retain the initiative Mission command - Answer: Mission command is the exercise of authority and direction by the commander using mission orders to enable disciplined initiative within the commander's intent to empower agile and adaptive leaders in the conduct of unified land operations. Six fundamental principles of Mission command - Answer: B- Build cohesive teams through mutual trust C- Create shared understanding P- Provide a clear commander's intent E- Exercise disciplined initiative U- Use mission orders A- Accept prudent risk Tenants of Unified Land Operations - Answer: F- Flexibility I- Integration L- Lethality A- Adaptability D- Depth S- Synchronization Principles of joint operations - Answer: O- Objective O- Offensive M- Mass M- Maneuver

E- Economy of force U- Unity of command S- Security S- Surprise S- Simplicity R- Restraint P- Perseverance L- Legitimacy IPB - Answer: Intelligence Preparation of the Battlefield (IPB) is the systematic process of analyzing the mission variables of enemy, terrain, weather, and civil considerations in an area of interest to determine their effect on operations. Steps of IPB - Answer: D- Define the operational environment a. Defining the operational environment results in the identification of significant characteristics of the operational environment that can affect friendly and enemy operations. This step also results in the identification of gaps in current intelligence holdings. D- Describe environmental effects on operations a. Describes how characteristics related to enemy, terrain, weather, and civil considerations affect friendly ops E- Evaluate the threat a. Understand how a threat/adversary can affect friendly operations. D- Determine threat a. Identifies and develops possible threat/adversary COAs that can affect accomplishing the friendly mission. The mission statement - Answer: The mission is the task, together with the purpose, that clearly indicates the action to be taken and the reason therefore. Decisive point - Answer: A geographic place, specific key event, critical factor, or function that, when acted upon, allows commanders to gain a marked advantage over an adversary or contribute materially to achieving success.

Offensive tasks - Answer: M- Movement to contact A- Attack E- Exploitation P- Pursuit Movement to contact - Answer: An offensive task designed to develop the situation and to establish or regain contact. The goal is to make initial contact with a small element while retaining enough combat power to develop the situation and mitigate the associated risk. The commander conducts a movement to contact when the enemy situation is vague or not specific enough to conduct an attack. Attack - Answer: An offensive task that destroys or defeats enemy forces, seizes and secures terrain, or both. An attack differs from a movement to contact because, in an attack, the commander knows part of the enemy's disposition. This knowledge enables the commander to better synchronize and employ combat power more effectively in an attack than in a movement to contact. Exploitation - Answer: An offensive task that usually follows the conduct of a successful attack and is designed to disorganize the enemy in depth. Exploitations seek to disintegrate enemy forces to the point where they have no alternative but to surrender or take flight. Pursuit - Answer: An offensive task designed to catch or cut off a hostile force attempting to escape, with the aim of destroying it. A pursuit normally follows a successful exploitation. However, any offensive task can transition into a pursuit, if enemy resistance has broken down and the enemy is fleeing the battlefield.

Defensive tasks - Answer: A- Area defense M- Mobile defense R- Retrograde Area defense - Answer: The area defense is a defensive task that concentrates on denying enemy forces access to designated terrain for a specific time rather than destroying the enemy outright. The focus of the area defense is on retaining terrain where the bulk of the defending force positions itself in mutually supporting, prepared positions. Units maintain their positions and control the terrain between these positions. Mobile defense - Answer: The mobile defense is a defensive task that concentrates on the destruction or defeat of the enemy through a decisive attack by a striking force. The mobile defense focuses on defeating or destroying the enemy by allowing enemy forces to advance to a point where they are exposed to a decisive counterattack by the striking force. The striking force is a dedicated counterattack force in a mobile defense constituted with the bulk of available combat power. A fixing force supplements the striking force. The commander uses the fixing force to hold attacking enemy forces in position, to help channel attacking enemy forces into ambush areas, and to retain areas from which to launch the striking force. Retrograde - Answer: The retrograde is a defensive task that involves organized movement away from the enemy. The retrograde is a transitional operation; it is not conducted in isolation. It is part of a larger scheme of maneuver designed to regain the initiative and defeat the enemy. Three forms of the retrograde - Answer: D- Delay W- Withdrawal R- Retirement

Delay - Answer: A delaying operation is an operation in which a force under pressure trades space for time by slowing down the enemy's momentum and inflicting maximum damage on the enemy without, in principle, becoming decisively engaged. Withdrawal - Answer: A withdrawal operation is a planned retrograde operation in which a force in contact disengages from an enemy force and moves in a direction away from the enemy. Retirement - Answer: A retirement is a form of retrograde in which a force out of contact moves away from the enemy. Characteristics of the offense - Answer: A- Audacity C- Concentration S- Surprise T- Tempo Audacity - Answer: Audacity means boldly executing a simple plan of action. Concentration - Answer: Concentration is the massing of overwhelming effects of combat power to achieve a single purpose. Surprise - Answer: In the offense, commanders achieve surprise by attacking the enemy at a time or place the enemy does not expect or in a manner that the enemy is unprepared for. Tempo - Answer: Controlling or altering tempo is necessary to retain the initiative.

• At the operational level, a faster tempo allows attackers to disrupt enemy defensive plans by achieving results quicker than the enemy can respond.
• At the tactical level, a faster tempo allows attackers to quickly penetrate barriers and defenses and destroy enemy forces in depth before they can react. Characteristics of the defense - Answer: D- Disruption F- Flexibility M- Maneuver

M- Mass and concentration O- Operations in depth P- Preparation S- Security Disruption - Answer: Defenders disrupt the attackers' tempo and synchronization with actions designed to prevent them from massing combat power. Disruption methods include misdirecting or destroying enemy reconnaissance forces, breaking up formations, isolating units, and attacking or disrupting systems. Use spoiling attacks before enemies can focus combat power and counterattack before the attackering enemy can consolidate any gains. Flexibility - Answer: The conduct of the defense requires flexible plans. Maneuver - Answer: Maneuver allows the defender to take full advantage of the area of operations and to mass and concentrate when desirable. Mass and concentration - Answer: Defenders seek to mass the effects of overwhelming combat power where they choose and shift it to support the decisive operation. Operations in depth - Answer: Simultaneous application of combat power throughout the area of operations improves the chances for success while minimizing friendly casualties. Quick, violent, and simultaneous action throughout the depth of the defender's area of operations can hurt, confuse, and even paralyze an enemy force just as that enemy force is most exposed and vulnerable. Preparation - Answer: The defender arrives in the area of operations before the attacker and uses the available time to prepare. Defenders study the ground and select positions that allow the massing of fires on likely approaches. They combine natural and manmade obstacles to canalize attacking forces into engagement areas. Defending forces coordinate and rehearse actions on the ground, gaining intimate familiarity with the terrain. They place security, intelligence, and reconnaissance forces throughout the area of operations. Security - Answer: Commanders secure their forces principally through protection, military deception, inform and influence activities, and cyber electromagnetic activities. Security operations prevent enemy

intelligence, surveillance, and reconnaissance assets from determining friendly locations, strengths, and weaknesses. Levels of war - Answer: Three levels of war— S- Strategic O-Operational T- Tactical —model the relationship between national objectives and tactical actions. Strategic level - Answer: Strategy develops an idea or set of ideas for employing the instruments of national power in a synchronized and integrated fashion to achieve theater, national, and/or multinational objectives. Operational level - Answer: The operational level links the tactical employment of forces to national and military strategic objectives. Tactical level - Answer: Tactics is the employment and ordered arrangement of forces in relation to each other. Joint doctrine focuses this term on planning and executing battles, engagements, and activities at the tactical level to achieve military objectives assigned to tactical units or task forces. Fundamentals of RECONN - Answer: G- Gain contact O- Orient on the OBJ R- Report timely and accurately R- Retain freedom to maneuver D- Develop the situation E- Ensure max recon forces forward E- Ensure cont recon Fundamentals of security - Answer: M- Maintain threat contact O- Orient on the force/area to be protected P- Provide cont recon

P- Provide early/accurate warning P- Provide reaction time/mnvr space Airborne assault planning - Answer: G- Ground tactical plan L- Landing plan A- Air movement plan M- Marshalling plan Ground Tactical Plan - Answer: The subordinate commander requires the ground tactical plan of his higher headquarters before he can begin planning. He needs to know the type, location, and size of objectives and the enemy situation at each one; the mission and intent of higher headquarters two levels up; and his task and purpose. The ground tactical plan is generated down the chain of command as a mutual effort. Landing Plan - Answer: The landing plan is the ABNAFC's plan that links the air movement plan to the ground tactical plan. It is published at brigade level and below. Before the ABNAFC can prepare an overall landing plan, he must know where the subordinate commander wants to place his assault force. The landing plan is generated up the chain of command as a mutual effort. Air Movement Plan - Answer: The air movement plan provides the information required to move the airborne force from the departure airfields to the objective area. This plan is the third step in the reverse planning process and covers the period from when units load to when they exit the aircraft. The airborne commander designates the subordinate unit's sequence of airflow and allocates aircraft. This allows the subordinate commanders to conduct air movement planning. The air movement plan is generated up the chain of command as a mutual effort. Marshalling Plan - Answer: This plan is developed last in the reverse planning sequence and is based on the requirements of the other plans. It provides the needed information for units of the assault force to prepare for combat, to move to departure airfields, and to load aircraft. The marshalling plan provides detailed instructions for facilities and services needed during marshalling. It is generated down the chain of command. Principles of direct fire control - Answer: M- Mass the effects of fire D- Destroy the greatest threat first

A- Avoid target overkill E- Employ the best weapon for the target M- Minimize friendly exposure P- Plan and implement fratricide avoidance measures P- Plan for extreme limited visibility conditions D- Develop contingencies for diminished capabilities Forms of maneuver - Answer: E- Envelopment F- Flank A- Attack F- Frontal attack I- Infiltration P- Penetration T- Turning movement Envelopment - Answer: A form of maneuver in which an attacking force seeks to avoid the principal enemy defenses by seizing objectives behind those defenses that allow the targeted enemy force to be destroyed in their current positions. Attack - Answer: An offensive task that destroys or defeats enemy forces, seizes and secures terrain, or both. Frontal attack - Answer: A form of maneuver in which the attacking force seeks to destroy a weaker enemy force or fix a larger enemy force in place over a broad front. Infiltration - Answer: A form of maneuver in which an attacking force conducts undetected movement through or into an area occupied by enemy forces to occupy a position of advantage in the enemy rear while exposing only small elements to enemy defensive fires. Penetration - Answer: A form of maneuver in which an attacking force seeks to rupture enemy defenses on a narrow front to disrupt the defensive system.

Turning movement - Answer: A form of maneuver in which the attacking force seeks to avoid the enemy's principle defensive positions by seizing objectives behind the enemy's current positions thereby causing the enemy force to move out of their current positions or divert major forces to meet the threat. Breaching - Answer: Breaching operations are conducted when the company cannot bypass the obstacles with maneuver. Fundamentals/tenets of breaching - Answer: I- Intelligence F- Fundamentals O- Organization M- Mass S- Synchronization Intelligence (Breaching) - Answer: All information about the obstacles to create SA. Fundamentals (Breaching) - Answer: S- Suppress O- Obscure S- Secure R- Reduce A- Assault Suppress (Breaching) - Answer: An attack on enemy personnel, weapons, or equipment, conducted to prevent or degrade enemy fires and observation of friendly forces. The purpose of suppression during breaching operations is to protect forces while they reduce and maneuver through an obstacle. Obscure (Breaching) - Answer: Obscuration protects forces conducting obstacle reduction and the passage of assault forces. Obscuration hampers enemy observation and target acquisition, and it conceals friendly activities and movement.

Secure (Breaching) - Answer: Friendly forces secure the reduction area to prevent the enemy from interfering with obstacle reduction and the passage of the assault force through the lanes created during the reduction. Reduce (Breaching) - Answer: Reduction is the creation of lanes through or over an obstacle to allow an attacking force to pass. Assault (Breaching) - Answer: A breaching operation is not complete until—

1. Friendly forces have assaulted to destroy the enemy on the far side of the obstacle that can place or observe direct and indirect fires on the reduction area.
2. Battle handover with follow-on forces has occurred, unless no battle handover is planned. Mass (Breaching) - Answer: Breaching is conducted by rapidly concentrate efforts at one point to reduce the obstacle and penetrate the defense. Massed combat power is directed against the enemy's weakness. Synchronization (Breaching) - Answer: Breaching operations require precise synchronization of the breaching fundamentals by support, breach, and assault forces. Elements of combat power - Answer: L- Leadership I- Information W- Warfighting functions War fighting functions Definition - Answer: A warfighting function as a group of tasks and systems (people, organizations, information, and processes) united by a common purpose that commanders use to accomplish missions and training objectives. War fighting functions - Answer: M- Mission command M- Movement and maneuver I- Intelligence F- Fires

S- Sustainment P- Protection Mission command - Answer: The mission command warfighting function is the related tasks and systems that develop and integrate those activities enabling a commander to balance the art of command and the science of control in order to integrate the other warfighting functions. Movement and maneuver - Answer: The movement and maneuver warfighting function is the related tasks and systems that move and employ forces to achieve a position of relative advantage over the enemy and other threats. Direct fire and close combat are inherent in maneuver. Intelligence - Answer: The intelligence warfighting function is the related tasks and systems that facilitate understanding the enemy, terrain, and civil considerations. Fires - Answer: The fires warfighting function is the related tasks and systems that provide collective and coordinated use of Army indirect fires, air and missile defense, and joint fires through the targeting process. Sustainment - Answer: The sustainment warfighting function is the related tasks and systems that provide support and services to ensure freedom of action, extend operational reach, and prolong endurance. Protection - Answer: The protection warfighting function is the related tasks and systems that preserve the force so the commander can apply maximum combat power to accomplish the mission. Engagement area development (Aviation) - Answer: I- IPB S- Select the ground I- Integrate the EA P- Plan the direct fire fight F- Fire control R- Review

R- Rehearse E- Execute Engagement area development (Infantry) - Answer: I- Identify enemy avenues of approach(aoa) D- Determine enemy scheme of maneuver D- Determine where to kill the enemy E- Emplace weapons systems P- Plan and integrate obstacles P- Plan and integrate indirect fires R- Rehearse Military aspects of terrain - Answer: O- Obstacles A- Aoa K- Key/decisive terrain O- Observation/fields of fire C- Cover/concealment Five paragraph operations order - Answer: S- Situation M- Mission E- Execution S- Service support C- Command and signal Commander's critical information requirements - Answer: Commander's critical information requirements comprise information requirements identified by the commander as being critical in facilitating timely information management and the decision-making process that affect successful mission accomplishment. The two key subcomponents are critical friendly force information and priority intelligence requirements.

Core competencies of army aviation - Answer: P- Provide accurate and timely information collection P- Provide reaction time and maneuver space D- DESTROY, DEFEAT, DISRUPT, DIVERT, OR DELAY ENEMY FORCES A- Air assault ground maneuver forces A- Air movement of personnel, equipment, and supplies E- Evacuate wounded or recover isolated personnel E- Enable mission command over extended ranges and complex terrain Ambush - Answer: An attack by fire or other destructive means from concealed positions on a moving or temporarily halted enemy. Disrupt - Answer: A tactical mission task in which a commander integrates direct and indirect fires, terrain, and obstacles to upset an enemy's formation or tempo, interrupt his timetable, or cause enemy forces to commit prematurely or attack in piecemeal fashion. An obstacle effect that focuses fire planning and obstacle effort to cause the enemy to break up his formation and tempo, interrupt his timetable, commit breaching assets prematurely, and attack in a piecemeal effort. Interdict - Answer: A tactical mission task where the commander prevents, disrupts, or delays the enemy's use of an area or route. Secure - Answer: A tactical mission task that involves preventing a unit, facility, or geographical location from being damaged or destroyed as a result of enemy action. Turn - Answer: A tactical mission task that involves forcing an enemy force from one avenue of approach or mobility corridor to another. A tactical obstacle effect that integrates fire planning and obstacle effort to divert an enemy formation from one avenue of approach to an adjacent avenue of approach or into an engagement area. Attack by fire - Answer: A tactical mission task in which a commander uses direct fires, supported by indirect fires, to engage an enemy force without closing with the enemy to destroy, suppress, fix, or deceive that enemy. Obstacle effects - Answer: Turn, Disrupt, Fix, Block

Clear - Answer: A tactical mission task that requires the commander to remove all enemy forces and eliminate organized resistance within an assigned area. To eliminate transmissions on a tactical radio net in order to allow a higher-precedence transmission to occur. The total elimination or neutralization of an obstacle that is usually performed by follow-on engineers and is not done under fire. Seize - Answer: A tactical mission task that involves taking possession of a designated area using overwhelming force. Block - Answer: A tactical mission task that denies the enemy access to an area or prevents his advance in a direction or along an avenue of approach. Block is also an obstacle effect that integrates fire planning and obstacle effort to stop an attacker along a specific avenue of approach or to prevent the attacking force from passing through an engagement area. Neutralize - Answer: A tactical mission task that results in rendering enemy personnel or materiel incapable of interfering with a particular operation. Retain - Answer: A tactical mission task in which the commander ensures that a terrain feature controlled by a friendly force remains free of enemy occupation or use. Support by fire - Answer: A tactical mission task in which a maneuver force moves to a position where it can engage the enemy by direct fire in support of another maneuvering force. Destroy - Answer: A tactical mission task that physically renders an enemy force combat-ineffective until it is reconstituted. Alternatively, to destroy a combat system is to damage it so badly that it cannot perform any function or be restored to a usable condition without being entirely rebuilt. Fix - Answer: A tactical mission task where a commander prevents the enemy from moving any part of his force from a specific location for a specific period. Fix is also an obstacle effect that focuses fire planning and obstacle effort to slow an attacker's movement within a specified area, normally an engagement area. Suppress - Answer: A tactical mission task that results in temporary degradation of the performance of a force or weapons system below the level needed to accomplish the mission.

Screen - Answer: A security task that primarily provides early warning to the protected force. Guard - Answer: A guard operation protects the main body from enemy ground observation, direct fire, and surprise attack. A guard may be performed for a stationary or moving force, and to the front, flank, or rear of the main body. The guard force reconnoiters attacks, defends, and delays as necessary to destroy enemy reconnaissance elements and disrupt the deployment of enemy first echelon forces. The guard force normally operates within the range of main body indirect-fire weapons. - Answer: Infiltration - Answer: A form of maneuver in which an attacking force conducts undetected movement through or into an area occupied by enemy forces to occupy a position of advantage in the enemy rear while exposing only small elements to enemy defensive fires. Destroy - Answer: A tactical mission task that physically renders an enemy force combat-ineffective until it is reconstituted. Alternatively, to destroy a combat system is to damage it so badly that it cannot perform any function or be restored to a usable condition without being entirely rebuilt. Defeat - Answer: A tactical mission task that occurs when an enemy force has temporarily or permanently lost the physical means or the will to fight. The defeated force's commander is unwilling or unable to pursue his adopted course of action, thereby yielding to the friendly commander's will, and can no longer interfere to a significant degree with the actions of friendly forces. Defeat can result from the use of force or the threat of its use. Divert - Answer: Cause the enemy to modify his course or route of attack. Air movement - Answer: Operations involving the use of utility and cargo rotary-wing assets for other than air assaults. Movement to contact - Answer: An offensive task designed to develop the situation and establish or regain contact.

• Answer:

Troop Leading Procedures - Answer: i. Receive the mission ii. Issue Warning order iii. Make a tentative plan iv. Initiate movement v. Reconnoiter vi. Complete the plan vii. Issue OPORD Supervise Tenets and Foundations of Unified Land Operations - Answer: i. Tenets (FIL ADS)

1. Flexibility
2. Integration
3. Lethality
4. Adaptability
5. Depth
6. Synchronization ii. Foundations (I DAM)
7. Initiative
8. Decisive Action
9. Army Core Competencies
10. Mission Command Principles of Joint Operations - Answer: i. Objective ii. Offensive iii. Mass iv. Maneuver v. Economy of Force

vi. Unity of Command vii. Security viii. Surprise ix. Simplicity x. Perseverance xi. Legitimacy xii. Restraint Steps of IPB - Answer: i. Define the Operation Environment ii. Describe the Environmental Effects on the Operations iii. Evaluate the Threat iv. Determine Threat COAs The Mission Statement - Answer: i. The task and purpose that clearly indicate the action to be taken and the reason for the action.

1. Higher Headquarters' (Two Levels Up) Mission, Intent, and Concept
2. Immediate higher headquarters' (One Level Up) Mission, Intent, and Concept
3. Unit's Purpose
4. Constraints
5. Specified, Implied and Essential Tasks Restated Mission Decisive Point - Answer: A geographic place, specific key event, critical factor, or function that, when acted upon, allows commanders to gain a marked advantage over an adversary or contribute materially to achieving success Offensive Tasks - Answer: i. Movement to Contact ii. Attack iii. Exploitation

iv. Pursuit Defensive Tasks - Answer: i. Area defense ii. Mobile defense iii. Retrograde Characteristics of the Offense - Answer: i. Audacity ii. Concentration iii. Surprise iv. Tempo Characteristics of the Defense - Answer: i. i. Disruption ii. Flexibility iii. Mass and Concentration iv. Preparation v. Security Levels of War - Answer: i. Strategic ii. Operational iii. Tactical Fundamentals of Reconnaissance - Answer: i. Orient on reconnaissance objectives ii. Do not keep reconnaissance assets in reserve iii. Ensure continuous reconnaissance iv. Retain freedom of maneuver v. Gain and maintain enemy contact vi. Develop the situation rapidly vii. Report all information rapidly and accurately

Fundamentals of Security - Answer: i. Provide early and accurate warning ii. Provide reaction time and maneuver space iii. Orient on the protected force, area, or facility iv. Perform continuous reconnaissance v. Maintain enemy contact Airborne Assault Planning - Answer: i. Ground Tactical Plan ii. Landing Plan iii. Air Movement Plan iv. Staging Plan v. Loading Plan Principles of Direct Fire Control - Answer: i. Mass the effects of fire ii. Destroy the greatest threat first iii. Avoid Target Overkill iv. Employ the best weapon for the target v. Minimize friendly exposure vi. Prevent fratricide vii. Plan for extreme limited visibility conditions viii. Develop contingencies for diminished capabilities Forms of Maneuver - Answer: i. Envelopment ii. Flank attack iii. Frontal attack iv. Infiltration v. Penetration vi. Turning movement Fundamentals/Tenets of Breaching - Answer: i. Fundamentals (SOSRA)

1. Suppress
2. Obscure
3. Secure
4. Reduce
5. Assault ii. Tenets (IFOMS)
6. Intelligence
7. Fundamentals
8. Organization
9. Mass
10. Synchronization Elements of Combat Power and the Warfighting Functions - Answer: i. Mission Command ii. Movement and Maneuver iii. Intelligence iv. Fires v. Sustainment vi. Protection Engagement Area Development - Answer: i. Identify all likely enemy avenues of approach ii. Determine likely enemy schemes of maneuver iii. Determine where to kill the enemy iv. Emplace weapons systems v. Plan and integrate obstacles vi. Plan and integrate indirect fires vii. Rehearse the execution of operations in the EA Military Aspects of Terrain/OAKOC - Answer: i. Obstacle

ii. Avenues of Approach iii. Key Terrain iv. Observation and Fields of Fire v. Cover and Concealment Five Paragraph Operations Order - Answer: i. Situation ii. Mission Statement iii. Execution iv. Sustainment v. Command and Signal Commander's Critical Information Requirements - Answer: i. Identify and filter information needed by leaders to support their vision and to make critical decisions, especially to determine or validate COAs. The Core Competencies of Army Aviation - Answer: i. Provide Accurate and Timely Information Collection ii. Provide Reaction Time and Maneuver Space iii. Destroy, Defeat, Disrupt, Divert, or Delay Enemy Forces iv. Air Assault Ground Maneuver Force v. Air Movement of Personnel, Equipment and Supplies vi. Evacuate Wounded or Recover Isolated Personnel vii. Enable Mission Command over Extended Ranges and Complex Terrain What are the steps in the Military Decision Making Process? - Answer: 7 (MADACAP) 1-Mission (receive the mission) 2-Analyze the mission 3-Development (COA development) 4-Analysis (COA Analysis) 5-Comparison (COA Comparison)

6-Approval (COA Approval) 7-Produce OPORD Step 1 Receive the Mission - Answer: Conduct initial assessment. Time is the factor that determines the detail of the plan. Issue commander guidance. Issue WARNO Operational Variable - Answer: PMESII-PT political military economic social information infrastructure physical terrain time Mission Variable - Answer: METT-TC mission enemy terrain troop available time civil consideration Subset of Civil Consideration - Answer: ASCOPE