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DENTAL HYGIENE NBDHE REVIEW QUESTIONS 2024, Exams of Dentistry

DENTAL HYGIENE NBDHE REVIEW QUESTIONS 2024

Typology: Exams

2023/2024

Available from 07/05/2024

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DENTAL HYGIENE NBDHE REVIEW

QUESTIONS 2023

What is the smooth area between the eyebrows called? A. Philtrum B. Frontal region C. Frontal eminence D. Glabella E. Tragus - D. Glabella A. Philtrum - the groove between the upper lip and the nose B. Frontal region - includes the forehead and the area superior to the eyes C. Frontal eminence - prominence of the forehead E. Tragus - smaller flap of tissue of the auricle anterior ro the external acoustic meatus Research misconduct involves all of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Plagarism B. Falsifying data C. Eliminating conflicts of interest D. Misrepresenting data E. Patent infringement - C. Eliminating conflicts of interest Research misconduct includes plagarism, copyright or patent infringement, falsifying or fabricating data, misrepresenting data, and conflict of interest During your periodontal charting, which of the following gingival features should be included in your description? A. Color B. Contour C. Consistency D. Distribution E. All of the above - E. All of the above Describe in the progress note:

  • Color (coral pink, erythematous, cyanotic)
  • Contour (knife-edge, rolled margin, bulbous, clefting)
  • Consistency (firm, edematous, fibrotic)
  • Texture (stippled, smooth/glossy)
  • Distribution (generalized, localized) As a group, ester-type local anesthetics area more likely than amide-type local anesthetics to cause which of the following drug effects?

A. Allergy B. Overdose C. Vasovagal syncope D. Nausea and vomiting E. Hypertension - A. Allergy Which of the following does most of the drug metabolism in the body? A. Liver B. Kidney C. Thyroid D. Parathyroid E. Adrenal gland - A. Liver Drug metabolism is carried out in the body by the liver, kidneys and intestines, but the bulk of the work is done by the liver Which of the following analgesics might your dentist tell a patient to avoid following removal of third molars due to an increased risk of bleeding? A. Tylenol B. Percocet C. Vicodin D. Motrin E. Lorcet - D. Motrin Ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID). It may cause stomach or intestinal bleeding, which can be fatal. What is a progressice disease in which the bone marrow produces and increased number of immature or abnormal white cells? A. Myeloma B. Lymphoma C. Leukemia D. Rheumatoid arthritis E. Hemophilia - C. Leukemia Leukemia, is a group of cancers that usually begin in the bone marrow and result in high numbers of abnormal white blood cells. How does the maxilary central incisor compare to the maxillary central incisor in root form? A. Maxillary central incisor is longer B. Maxillary lateral incisor is longer C. Maxillary central incisor is shorter, but wider D. Maxillary lateral incisor is shorter, but wider E. They are both approximately the same length - E. They are both approximately the same length

The maxillary lateral incisor is smaller than the maxillary central incisor in all dimensions except root length You get a call from a frantic mom who claims her son has fallen off his bike and "knocked: his front tooth out. She has the tooth and wants to come in so her son can be seen. You tell her to hurry in with the tooth and tell her to transport the tooth in which of the following? A. Whole milk B. Hanks balanced salt solution C. Her sons cheek D. Physiologic saline E. All of the above - E. All of the above The most often recommended are: salica, physiologic saline, milk and pH balanced cell preserving fluids. Water and ice have been shown to damage tooth root cells. Teeth should never be stored in them. Which of the following is true concerning the well controlled diabetic? A. Fasting blood sugar < 125 mg/dl B. Post priandial < 140 mg/dl C. HbA1C < 7% D. Use maximum of 2 carpules Lidocaine with 1:100,000 epinephrine E. All of the above - E. All of the above Blood tests for diabetes:

  • Fasting blood sugar (FBS): <125 mg/dL
  • Current stringent FBS guideline: <100 mg/dL
  • Post priandial (PP) or post meal: 140 mg/dL
  • HbA1C (4-6%): <7% in controlled patients
  • HbA1C >8%: Uncontrolled diabetes in the past 2-3 months Which of the following is not a mechanism of action of fluoride? a. Reduced acid soluubility b. Enzyme inhibition c. Decreased morphology D. Polysaccharide synthesis E. Lower free surface energy - c. Decresed morphology Possible mechanisms of action of Fluoride:
  • reduced acid solubility - improved morphology
  • enzyme inhibition
  • polysaccharide synthesis
  • lower free surface energy
  • promotion of reminieralization

For most young children, a toothbrush prophylaxis is efficient for removing plaque, because it is non-threatening to young children and serves to demonstrate the proper technique of brushing to the caregiver. a. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related b. Both the statement and the reason are correct but NOT related c. The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT d. The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct e. NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct - *b. Both the statement and the reason are correct but NOT related A pea-sized amount of toothpaste is recommended for children between the ages of 2 and 6, while a "smear" is appropriate for children under the age of 2 All of the following are types of necrosis EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? a. Coagulative b. Granular c. Caseous d. Fat e. Fibroid - b. Granular There are 6 types of necrosis:

  • Coagulative necrosis
  • Liquefactive necrosis
  • Caseous necrosis
    • Fat necrosis
    • Fibroid necrosis
    • Gangrenous necrosis What structure propagates the action potential (AP) in the atria from right to left? a. Internodal fiber b. Bundle of His c. SA node d. Bachmann's bundle e. Purkinje fibers - d. Bachmann's bundle Bachmann's bundle (BB), also known as the interatrial bundle, is well recognized as a muscular bundle comprising of parallel aligned myocardial strands connecting the right and left atrial walls and is considered to be the main pathway of interatrial conduction All of the following are indications for the use of topical fluoride therapy except one. Which one is the exception? a. Active caries b. White spots c. To reduce tooth sensitivity d. Increased salivary flow e. Orthodontic treatment - d. Increased salivary flow

Reasons for fluoride therapy include:

  • White spots
  • Moderate to high risk patients for developing decay
  • Active decay
  • Orthodontic treatment
  • Additional protection if neccesary for children in areas without fluoridated drinking water
  • To reduce tooth sensitivity
  • Protect root surface
  • Decreased salivary flow
  • Institutionalized patients Which of the following signifies the start of ventricular repolarization? A) P wave B) T wave C) Q complex D) R complex E) S complex - B) T wave Which of the following are the multiple bluish-gray macules set on an erythematous background that occur on the buccal and labial mucosa in stage 1 rubeola (measles)? A) Kaposi sarcoma B) Koplik spots C) Molluscum contagiosum D) Verruca vulgaris E) Heck's disease - B) Koplik spots They are characterized as clustered, white lesions on the buccal mucosa (opposite the upper 1st & 2nd molars) and are pathognomonic for measles. What is the neurotransmitter involved in the olfactory process? A) Glutamate B) Serotonin C) Acetylcholine (ACh) D) Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) E) Norepinephrine (NE) - A) Glutamate The systemic involvement of fluoride in protection of the enamel does not stop once the tooth has erupted, because consumed fluoride is excreted through the saliva and can aid in tooth protection throughout the lifetime. A) Both the statement and the reason are correct and related B) Both the statement and the reason are correct but NOT related. C) The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT. D) The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct. E) NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct - A) Both the statement and the reason are correct and related

The systemic involvement of fluoride in protection of the enamel does not stop once the tooth has erupted; consumed fluoride is excreted through the saliva and can aid in tooth protection throughout the lifetime. All of the following affect how well an enzyme works EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A) Temperature B) Protein synthesis C) pH D) Substrate concentration E) Enzyme concentration - B) Protein synthesis What is the most common potential medical emergency in the dental office? A) Angina B) Heart attack C) Syncope D) Hypoglycemia E) Asthma attack - C) Syncope You are performing your head and neck examination and note a raised mole on your patients neck. During palpation you notice a firm node on the opposite side. Which of the following terms describes the opposite side? A) Ipsilateral B) Contralateral C) Superficial D) Medial E) Distal - B) Contralateral Contralateral Pertaining to, situated on, or coordinated with the opposite side. Ipsilateral Pertaining to, situated on, or affecting the same side of the body. The cusp of Carabelli is found on which permanent tooth? A) Maxillary 1st molar B) Maxillary 2nd molar C) Maxillary 2nd premolar D) Mandibular 1st molar E) Mandibular 2nd molar - A) Maxillary 1st molar

The cusp of Carabelli is a small additional cusp at the mesiopalatal line angle of maxillary first molars. All of the following are fat soluble vitamins EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A) Vitamin A B) Vitamin B C) Vitamin D D) Vitamin E E) Vitamin K - B) Vitamin B The fat soluble vitamins are vitamin A, vitamin D, vitamin E, and vitamin K. They may also go by the name lipid soluble vitamins. These vitamins are stored in your body and are dissolved in the stored fat in your body. In turn, they are released when fat is broken down to access the vitamins or for other nutritional or energy needs. There are a number of different water soluble vitamins, and these are all eight B vitamins and the sunshine vitamin, vitamin C. These vitamins are not stored in your body, and because of this you must eat these vitamins every single day to ensure your body has all the nutrients required for proper maintenance and function All of the following are stages in the formation of dental plaque biofilm EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A) Acquired pellicle formation B) Attachment C) Young subgingival plaque formation D) Mature plaque formation E) Subgingival plaque formation - C) Young subgingival plaque formation Five stages of the formation of dental plaque biofilm

  1. Acquired Pellicle Formation
  2. Attachment
  3. Young Supragingival Plaque Formation
  4. Mature Plaque Formation
  5. Subgingival Plaque Formation The surgical procedure which only involves removal of bony ledges or nonsupporting bone is called A) Osteoplasty B) Ostectomy C) Osteotomy D) Apicoectomy E) None of the above - A) Osteoplasty

Ostectomy: surgical procedure where the bone is removed also contains supporting periodontal ligament fibers. Apicoectomy: surgery that removes the apex of the tooth for access to the root canal for endodontic treatment. Osteotomy: an osteotomy is a surgical operation whereby a bone is cut to shorten or lengthen it or to change its alignment. It is sometimes performed to correct a hallux valgus, or to straighten a bone that has healed crookedly following a fracture. It is also used to correct a coxa vara, genu valgum, and genu varum Which of the following is a measure for assessing population health management? A) Life expectancy B) Patient safety C) Well being D) Access to care E) All of the above - E) All of the above

  1. Life Expectancy
  2. Well-being
  3. Overweight & obesity
  4. Addictive Behavior
  5. Unintended pregnancy
  6. Healthy Communities
  7. Preventive Services
  8. Access to Care
  9. Patient Safety
  10. Evidence-based Care
  11. Care that matches patient goals
  12. Personal spending burden
  13. Population spending burden
  14. Individual engagement
  15. Community engagement Which of the following is not considered a requirement for an ideal desensitizing agent? A) Slow acting B) Long term effects C) Non-irritating to the pulp D) Painless E) Easy to apply - A) Slow acting Which of the following is not part of the health belief model? A) Disease has no serious consequences

B) Behavior change is good C) Change is important D) Able to demonstrate self-efficacy E) Patients are vulnerable - A) Disease has no serious consequences Health Belief Model

  1. they are susceptible vulnerable
  2. disease has serious consequences
  3. behavior change is good
  4. change is important
  5. ready to act
  6. able to demonstrate self- efficacy Which part of the mandible is most often fractured? A) Coronoid process B) Condyle C) Ramus D) Angle of the mandible E) Body of the mandible - B) Condyle Condyle 30% of fractures Angle 25% Body 25% What is the ideal angulation for scaling and root planing? A) 0-20 degrees B) 20-40 degrees C) 40-60 degrees D) 60-80 degrees E) 80-100 degrees - D) 60-80 degrees A disease that originates from outside of the person's body caused by either pathogenic organisms that invade the body,radiation, chemical agents, trauma, electric shock, or temp extremes? A) Endogenous B) Exogenous C) Nosocomial D) Iatrogenic E) Opportunistic - B) Exogenous Endogenous: disease that originates w/in the person's body and are not transmitted from another infected individual.

Nosocomial: Infection acquired from germs transmitted from hospital worker or environment. Iatrogenic: Infections caused from body's response to medical procedure. Opportunistic: when bod's immune system is compromised and incapable of resisting even minor infection (generally would not infect a healthy person with intact immune system) What is the term that means a complete absence of tissue? A) Hypoplasia B) Hypertrophy C) Atrophy D) Dystrophy E) Aplasia - E) Aplasia Aplasia is defined in general as "defective development or congenital complete absence of an organ or tissue." In the field of hematology, the term refers to "incomplete, retarded, or defective development, or cessation of the usual regenerative process Which of the following is not a possible effect of chronic fluoride toxicity on bones? A) Exostosis B) Sclerosis C) Osteoporosis D) Osteomalacia E) Spontaneous fractures - D) Osteomalacia 4 possible effects of chronic fluoride toxicity on bones

  • exostosis
  • sclerosis
  • osteoporosis
  • spontaneous fractures Which of the following lacks a cell wall? A) Borrelia B) Mycoplasma C) Mycobacterium D) Clostridium E) Nocardia - B) Mycoplasma Mycoplasma is a genus of bacteria that lack a cell wall around their cell membrane. Without a cell wall, they are unaffected by many common antibioticssuch as penicillin or other beta- lactamantibiotics that target cell wall synthesis. They can be parasitic or saprotrophic.

Into what vein does the pterygoid plexus of veins empty? A) External jugular vein B) Maxillary vein C) Superficial temporal vein D) Superior labial vein E) Inferior labial vein - B) Maxillary vein The pterygoid plexus of veins becomes the maxillary vein Which of the following is considered a stress hormone? A) Melatonin B) Adrenaline C) Glucagon D) Cortisol E) Thymosin - D) Cortisol Stress Hormones: When the body experiences acute or chronic stress, there are two major stress hormones that are released:

  • Cortisol
  • Norepinephrine Cortisol is the hormone that is responsible for increased blood pressure, blood sugar, and suppressing the immune system. Norepinephrine is the hormone that causes the heart rate to increase, stored glucose(simple sugar) to be released, and increased blood flow to the muscles Which of the following is not an intervention method of dental caries? A) Radiographs B) Fluoride C) Antibacterial rinses D) Decreased fermentable carbohydrates E) Increased saliva flow - A) Radiographs Radiographs are helpful in diagnosing dental caries but do nothing as an intervention to stop dental caries What is the large radiolucent cavity observed within the maxilla apical to the posterior teeth? A) Exostoses

B) Nasal fossa C) Zygomatic process D) Maxillary sinus E) Maxillary tuberosity - D) Maxillary sinus What type of gypsum product is commonly known as die stone? A) Type I B) Type II C) Type III D) Type IV E) Type V - D) Type IV Impression Plaster AKA Type I gypsum product; (for edentulous patients; usually mint flavored) Plaster defined AKA Type II gypsum product; beta-hemihydrate; model or lab plaster Stone AKA Type III gypsum product; alpha-hemihydrate; Trade names: Hydro cal, Capstone (also called Class I stone) Lab stone Die Stone AKA Type IV gypsum product; modified alpha-hemihydrate; improved stone; TM Density; Die keen (also called Class II stone) Die stone Borrelia is classified as a spirochete because it? A) Is aerobic B) Possesses and axial filament C) Is a rod D) Is a pathogen E) None of the above - B) Possesses and axial filament Spirochetes are distinguished from other bacterial phyla by the location of their flagella, sometimes called axial filaments, which run lengthwise between the bacterial inner membrane and outer membrane in periplasmic space. These cause a twisting motion which allows the spirochaete to move about Objectives may include improving information as well as achieving direct health outcomes and must be "SMART". All of the following are part of the "SMART" acronym EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

A) Specific B) Measurable C) Accurate D) Relatable E) Timebound - D) Relatable Objectives must be "SMART" - specific, measurable, accurate, realistic and time-bound Which of the following diseases is often confused with erythema multiform and is triggered by a drug reaction rather than an infection? A) Lyell disease B) Lichenoid disease C) Bullous dermatosis D) Stevens-Johnson syndrome E) Paraneoplastic autoimmune multiorgan syndrome - D) Stevens-Johnson syndrome Which of the following would not be indicated for management of a patient with bronchial asthma? A) Limit anxiety B) Tell patient to bring their regular medication with them C) Allergy to penicillin may be more frequent D) Avoid certain antihistamines (promethazine and diphenhydramine) E) Acceptable to use of local anesthetic with vasoconstrictor - E) Acceptable to use of local anesthetic with vasoconstrictor Avoid the use of LA containing vasoconstrictor because some asthmatic patients may react to sulfites present as preservatives in it. Which of the following is not a member of the cytokine family? A) Chemokines B) TNF C) Interferons D) Leukokines E) Interleukins - D) Leukokines Which one of the following is not considered a dominant phyla in the human gut? A) Firmicutes B) Bacteroides C) Escherechia D) Actinobacteria E) Proteobacteria - C) Escherechia

The four dominant phyla in the human gut are Firmicutes, Bacteroidetes, Actinobacteria, and Proteobacteria Which of the following does not typically contribute to limited access to care for dependent patient with special needs? A) Low caregiver priority on oral health B) Inadequate funding for care C) inadequately trained dental professionals D) Low patient priority on oral health E) None of the above - D) Low patient priority on oral health Despite a patients oral health priority, their lack of dental acumen wouldn't prohibit them from care. How long does it take topical anesthetic to reach maximum soft tissue anesthesia? A) 15 seconds B) 45 seconds C) 1-2 minutes D) 3 minutes E) 4-5 minutes - C) 1-2 minutes Which of the following is a method used to determine the relative position of two objects in the oral cavity using projectional dental radiography. A) SLOB rule B) Bisecting angle C) Paralleling technique D) Clark's rule E) Cieszynski's rule - A) SLOB rule SLOB Rule (Same Lingual Opposite Buccal) What was the main reason for the decrease in dental caries in the second half of the 20th century in the US? A) Community water fluoridation B) Higher percentage of dentists C) Better trained dentists D) Dental insurance E) All of the above - A) Community water fluoridation All of the following are characteristics that all cytokines share EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

A) Apoptosis B) Pleiotropism C) Redundancy D) Antagonism E) Synergism - A) Apoptosis What characteristics do all cytokines share

  1. Pleiotropism
  2. Redundancy
  3. Antagonism
  4. Synergism All of the following are used to cover surfaces and protect them from contamination as part of the Barrier technique EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A) Rubber B) Plastic C) Foil D) Cloth E) Paper - D) Cloth The system of nerves that carries impulses or messages to and from the central nervous system is called the? A) Involuntary nervous system B) Voluntary nervous system C) Autonomic nervous system D) Peripheral nervous system E) Parasympathetic nervous system - D) Peripheral nervous system In the peripheral nervous system, bundles of nerve fibers or axons conduct information to and from the central nervous system. The autonomic nervous system is the part of the nervous system concerned with the innervation of involuntary structures, such as the heart, smooth muscle, and glands within the body. It is distributed throughout the central and peripheral nervous systems. During your oral evaluation you are examining the hard palate. Which one of these would not be found on the hard palate? A) Incisive papillae B) Torus palatinus C) Fovea palatinae D) Uvula E) Palatine rugae - D) Uvula

What automatically terminates the exposure when the finger ceases to press on the timer button? A) Master power switch B) Fail safe switch C) Dead man's switch D) Automated cut-off switch E) None of the above - C) Dead man's switch "Dead-man" switch Automatically terminates the exposure when the finger ceases to press on the timer button.