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Dental Hygiene Prometric Exam: Questions and Answers, Exams of Nursing

A collection of questions and answers related to the dental hygiene prometric exam. It covers various topics including instrument sharpening, radiography, oral pathology, infection control, and patient management. Useful for students preparing for the exam, offering insights into common exam questions and their solutions.

Typology: Exams

2024/2025

Available from 12/06/2024

NurseSarahwa
NurseSarahwa 🇺🇸

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DENTAL HYGIENE PROMETRIC EXAM, DENTAL HYGIENE

PROMETRIC EXAM CDCA CSCE,

COMPUTER SIMULATED DENTAL HYGIENE EXAM, 2 DENTAL

HYGIENE PROMETRIC 2,

DENTAL HYGIENE COMPUTER SIMULATED CASE TEST

QUESTIONS AND SOLUTION/A GRADE

what side of instrument is placed on the stone for sharpening? a: back b: terminal shank c: junction of face and lateral surfaced d: junction of back and lateral surface - c: junction of face and lateral surface thyroid collar for pan radiograph? - no! if patient is not allergic to penicillin and has infectious endocarditis, what premed should be used a: penicillin 2 grams b: amoxicillin 2 grams c: clindamycin 500 mg - b after you dismiss your patient and are transferring and processing instruments, all would apply except which? a: carry instruments in a safe container to transport b: wear gloves c: wear mask and safety goggles d: use ultrasonic machine - c: wear mask and safety goggles when is pH level at its highest in regard to eating meals a: before a meal b: after a meal c: 4 hours after a meal d: pH is not changed with meals - b: after a meal digital film is a: faster than D speed film b: same as F or D speed film c: faster

than F speed film d: slightly slower than F speed film - c: faster than f speed film edentulous patient with big ulcer on palate is due to irritation or apthous ulcer? - irritation superimposition of a radiograph - same as double exposure. results when men 2 images appear superimposed onto each other bc it has been exposed twice oblique ridge on maxillary first molar - runs from DB cusp to ML cusp penumbra - blurred edge to an image how often to patients need to sign HIPPA form a: every year b: every 3 years c: every 5 years d: just once - d: just once but must be provided copies of it every 3 years what is not caused by tongue piercing? a: bacteremia b: fractured tooth c: trigeminal neuralgia d: recession - a: bacteremia best way to sharpen an instrument to preserve the blade? a: sharpen the whole lateral surface b: honing c: dry stone d: water with stone - d: water with stone what would you not use for heavy deposits? a: sickle b: graceys c: ultrasonic scaler d: piezo scaler - b: graceys. they are considered for fine scaling if you see a photo of something in the mouth that can't be wiped off, its most likely a: aspirin burn b: pipe tobacco c: chewing tobacco d: mouthwash astringent - a: aspirin burn

photo with inflammation around a crown, the inflammation is likely due to - poorly fitted restoration all of the following involve CAMBRA except which a: one to two incipient and or recurrent caries in the past year b: increased saliva flow c: topical fluoride choices d: low socioeconomic status - b: increased salivary flow picture of inflamed area on buccal mucosa directly across from maxillary molars, what is inflamed? - papilla of stensens duct picture of lingual of tooth #19. why does it have a 6mm pocket? a: rough restoration b: recurrent decay c: spacing between the adjacent teeth - a: rough restoration What is an oral side effect of Prozac? - xerostomia How do steroids effect wound healing? - causes delayed wound healing What should be done with a patient with a previous history of high blood pressure and comes in for their appointment with reading of 160/116? - refer the patient to their physician immediately a pt with infective endocarditis has no contraindications of premed, when would they need to be premedicated?

free gingiva is area from to - free gingival groove, top of

a: probing b: suture removal c: dental impressions d: sealants - a: probing Which treatment is necessary for fordyce granules - no treatment a child drinking fluoridated water and taking supplements is at greater risk for a: caries b: hypocalcification c: decalcification d: juvenile periodontitis - b: hypocalcification after being called to the reception area and seeing an unresponsive patient, what do you do next? a: activate EMS b: start chest compressions c: check for broken bones d: check airway for obstruction - a: activate EMS unresponsive means call EMS Which hepatitis shot is given to the dental hygienist employee? - Hep B which method of fluoride application gets immediately absorbed into the enamel? a: foam fluoride b: varnish c: home fluoride d: fluoride gel - b: varnish has highest PPM what do you do if elderly patients BP is 153/120? - Recheck B.P. in 5 minutes, consult M.D. immediately, do not perform dental tx until elevated pressure decreases. gingiva (free gingival margin)

neurofibroma - benign nerve sheath tumor derived from myelin sheath of peripheral nerves neuroma - tumor of neural tissue what % of alcohol in hand disinfection solution to use in dental office? - 60% median rhomboid glossitis is - chronic fungal (candidiasis) infection treatment for median rhomboid glossitis - none difference between pyogenic granulomas and peripheral giant cell granulomas - peripheral: more blue in comparison, usually less than 2 cm pyogenic: small, reddish bumps that bleed easily peripheral gian cell granuloma location - exclusivey on gingiva due to irritation or trauma mucocele - mucous cyst. painless. thin sac, fluid filled mucocele location - inner surface of lips ranula - swelling of connective tissue. caused by local trauma to salivary gland duct ranula location - floor of mouth how do you know if its amelogenisis imperfecta on a radiograph - snow capped white teeth how do you know if its dentinogenesis imperfecta on a radiograph - bulbous crowns with short slender roots and absent pulp chambers and root canal. dentiogenesis imperfecta color clinically - grey to yellowish brown amelogenisis imperfecta color clinically - yellow or brown. pitting of enamel CAMBRA - Caries Management by Risk Assessment

what is CAMBRA - methodology of identifying cause of disease through assessment of risk factors if a patient has a tongue piercing, all of the following can happen: a: chipped tooth b: trigeminal neuralgia c: infective endocarditis - all if a patient has gingivitis, the reason for the edema (bleeding) is due to a: inorganic irritant b: organic irritant c: toxins produced from biofilm d: acids produced by biofilm - c, toxins inorganic components of plaque are - think IN which elements are IN the periodic table phosphorus, calcium, magnesium and fluoride organic components of plaque are - lipids, proteins and carbohydrates. people who want to eat organic foods are concerned about carbs, fats and proteins. what plaque component causes caries - acids produced by biofilm washing your hands between patients should be done for a: 10 seconds b: 15 seconds c: 30 seconds d: 45 seconds - b: 15 - 20 seconds what causes angular cheilitis - candida albicans (involved in the sores) riboflavin (b2) deficiency iron deficiency anemia which disease should you be on the lookout for when angular cheilitis is present - celiac disease, anorexia nerves and/or bulimia nervosa Leukoplakia, snuff cratosis and aspirin burn can or cannot be wiped off? - cannot pseudomembranous candidiasis is distinguished clinically by - white curds that can be wiped off lightly with gauze

MRSA - methicillin resistant staphylococcus aureus what antibiotic is used to treat MRSA - vancomycin +bactrim and Septra periodontal cyst most common location - between 2 mandibular premolars or on the medial side of the mandibular first premolar prevalence of peripheral giant cell granulomas is highest around age and occurs more frequently in - 50 - 60, females peripheral giant cell granuloma - retrocuspid papilla - circumscribed nodule that lies lingual to mandibular cuspid on gingival tissue retrocuspid papilla appears more frequently in - - young children and seems to regress or disappear with age taurodontism - body of tooth and pulp chamber is enlarged vertically Premedication regimine - 2g Amoxicillin 600 mg Clindamycin Patient comes in for appointment who needs premed, and they took 300 mg 1 hour prior to their appointment. What would you do? - administer another 300 mg and wait 1 hr prior to treatment (because their clindamycin premed is 600mg 1hr prior to treatment) What is a PAN used for? - - look at location of 3rd molars

- impactions

- pathology

- NOT FOR BONE LOSS

Items containing fluoride? - - tea

- pork

- fish

What type of water does not contain fluoride? - well water Know the papilla of the tongue - - filiform (most numerous, very small)

- fungiform (mushroom shape, contain taste buds)

- circumvallate (larger mushroom shaped, contain taste buds, on anterior side of

sulcus terminalis)

- foliate (leaf shaped, lateral border of tongue)

What is hairy tongue caused by? - elongation of the filiform papillae Delayed eruption may be caused by - delayed exfoliation Identify mandibular canal radiographically - radiolucent, long dark area outlined with dense cortical bone, located above or parallel to the inferior border of the mandible What is thickened lamina dura caused by? is this appearance normal? - - caused by trauma

- not normal

Know film errors - - elongation: too little vertical angulation

- foreshortening: too much vertical angulation

- cone cut: PID not aligned with censor

- overlap: incorrect horizontal angulation

Identify median rhomboid glossitis - rhombus shaped, central denuded area of the tongue with red appearance What is the treatment for black hair tongue? - brush it What is a vitality test used for? - testing to see if the pulp is vital or not (applying cold air on cotton swap and pushing it against the tooth; if the pulp is vital it hurts, if its necrotic you would not feel anything) What are Hutchinson's incisors caused by? - Syphillis, NOT biting on bobby pins Identify lingual varicosities.. are they normal? - yes they're normal

How long should ultrasonic units be flushed? - 20 seconds What provides proof of sterilization? Spore test or autoclave tape? - Spore test What does autoclave tape tell you? - that it has reached proper temperature Hep B vaccination also protects you from? - Hep D What can chlorhexidine cause? - staining, increased calculus deposits What instrument should you use to work on mandibular anterior gingiva? - - 1/2 gracey

- columbia

- sickle ultrasonic

What drug causes bleeding? - Aspirin What does the 2nd premolar replace? - the 2nd deciduous molar What would you do for fordyce granules? - leave alone; normal is a bifurcated maxillary canine normal? - yes What would you do for lingual erosion? - rinse with sodium bicarbonate Stannous fluoride is not found in which of the following? tea, pork, well water, or fish? - well water Which is the only root that would be incomplete at age 15? - the second molar Presents with a firm lesion on the ventral surface of the tongue? ranula, benign, or malignant? -? what is the panorex best used for? - position of 3rd molars

What is wrong with the PANO picture? - patient should not have on a thyroid collar when taking a PAN What can prednisone cause? - delayed wound healing How old is a patient with 2nd premolar, 1st molar, and 2nd molars are unerupted? - 11 years old Does ankylosis of the tongue result in nutrition issues? - no What would recession to the apex of #24- 25 be a result of? - AIDS Exaggerated gingival enlargement could be the result of what? - uncontrolled diabetes What degree should the shank of the instrument be when scaling subgingivally? - 70 degrees What should be done with safety glasses after each patient? - washed Does lingual candidiasis of lateral tongue wipe off? - yes What does leukoedema look like? - white spot of buccal mucosa disappears when the cheek is stretched What type of drug is Procardia? - calcium channel blocker What is procardia used for? - for high blood pressure What does procardia cause intraorally? - gingival enlargement What would mandibular anterior, facial, bright pink and enlarged gingiva indicate? - pregnancy gingivitis Are bifurcated mandibular premolars normal? - yes What drink can cause facial erosion? - fruit juice What does median rhomboid glossitis look like? - red lump in center of posterior portion of tongue

What is the treatment for median rhomboid glossitis? - antifungals Know what cross bite looks like - ... Know classes of occlusion - Class I: mesiobuccal cusp of maxillary first molar occludes with buccal groove of mandibular first molar Class II: buccal groove of mandibular first molar is distal to the mesiobuccal cusp of maxillary fits molar Class III: buccal groove of mandibular first molar is mesial to the mesiobuccal cusp of maxillary first molar Why would there be a white triangle covering all the mandibular anteriors and chin on a PAN? - If the mouth looks smiley then the chin was too low, if the mouth looked frowning then the chin was too high FDA regulates - fluoride content in bottled water medications that cause increased bleeding? - anticoagulants (warfarin, heparin), antiplatelets (aspirin, plavix), blood modifiers (xarelto, eliquis, pradaxa) medications that cause gingival hyperplasia? - - anti-seizure: Dilantin

- calcium channel blockers: Norvask, Procardia (used to control BP)

- Cyclosporine (used an immunosuppressant)

Determine age of patient by teeth present - ... Determine which tooth is present in mixed dentition - ... distinguishing between between leukoplakia and candida? - candida wipes off but leukoplakia doesn't clinical pictures of fluorosis, abrasion, pyogenic granuloma, redness on palate, what are some likely causes? - ill-fitting denture, tobacco, stain, linea alba

a patient on an anti-hypertensive is most likely to experience what problem in the dental chair? - orthostatic hypotension what causes a diastema? - genetics x-ray pit falls - - patient moves

- cone moves

- film moves

aspirin burn - - chemical injury

- white plaque lesion

- can be wiped off

- leaving a bleeding raw base

- will heal once chemical is removed

amelogenesis imperfecta - - enamel is found to be defective

- discolorations, pitting, thinner enamel, "flakes off"

- etiology: genetics

- defect in the mineralization, deposition, and hardening of enamel layers

mucogingival junction - - sharply defined scalloped junction between pinker attached gingiva and redder alveolar mucosa enamel projection (enamel pearl) - - misplaced ameloblasts migrate to the root area

- produces enamel pearl on CEJ or furcation area

pyogenic granuloma - - benign

- tissue response to trauma, local irritation, hormonal changes

- appear in pregnancy due to increase in hormones

- puberty and pregnancy

- composed of hyper plastic granulation tissue

etiology of diastema? - genetic when do maxillary centrals erupt? - 7 - 8 when do mandibular centrals erupt? - 6 - 7 when do maxillary laterals erupt? - 8 - 9

when do mandibular laterals erupt? - 7 - 8 when do maxillary canines erupt? - 11 - 12 when do mandibular canines erupt? - 9 - 10 when do maxillary first premolars erupt? - 10 - 11 when do mandibular first premolars erupt? - 10 - 12 when do maxillary second premolars erupt? - 10 - 12 when do mandibular second premolars erupt? - 11 - 12 when do maxillary first molars erupt? - 6 - 7 when do mandibular first molars erupt? - 6 - 7 when do maxillary second molars erupt? - 12 - 13 when do mandibular second molars erupt? - 11 - 13 when do maxillary third molars erupt? - 17 - 21 when do mandibular third molars erupt? - 17 - 21 How much fluoride supplementation should be given to a 6 month old or younger? - none How much fluoride supplementation should be given to a 6 month old - 3 year old in a community with less than 0.3 ppm in their water? - .25mg/day How much fluoride supplementation should be given to a 6 month old - 3 year old in a community with 0.3-0.6 ppm in their water? - none How much fluoride supplementation should be given to a 6 month old - 3 year old in a community with more than 0.6 ppm in their water? - none

How much fluoride supplementation should be given to a 3 - 6 year old in a community with less than 0.3 ppm in their water? - 0.50 mg/day How much fluoride supplementation should be given to a 3 - 6 year old in a community with 0.3-.0.6 ppm in their water? - 0.25 mg/day How much fluoride supplementation should be given to a 3 - 6 year old in a community with more than 0.6 ppm in their water? - none How much fluoride supplementation should be given to a 6 - 16 year old in a community with less than 0.3 ppm in their water? - 1 mg/day How much fluoride supplementation should be given to a 6 - 16 year old in a community with 0.3-0.6 ppm in their water? - 0.25 mg/day How much fluoride supplementation should be given to a 6 - 16 year old in a community with more than 0.6 ppm in their water? - none complication with high blood pressure medications? - orthostatic hypotension dental caries and relation most with diet? - frequency advantage of digital x-rays? - reduce exposure What is the most effective method of sterilization? - steam vapor what kind of treatment is needed for a bulimic patient? - rinse with bicarbonate solution according to CDCA all need to be medical waste except - tissue treatment for angular cheilitis? - antifungal APF can cause - etching of porcelain crowns when should spore test biological monitoring be done? - 1 week which tooth will replace the primary second molar? - permanent second premolar

when the gingival margin is at the CEJ what calculation is needed to calculate the CAL?

  • none, the CAL is the same as the prime depth Tooth #24 has a 6mm pocket with 2 mm of recession, what is the CAL? - 8 mm what tooth will replace tooth K? - # Teeth with a periodontal abscess are vital whereas teeth with a periapical abscess are non-vital, T or F? - True An irritation fibroma is composed of - dense fibrous connective tissue and giant cells In periodontal disease, the lamina dura is - - thinner

- the thin radiopaque line that lines the tooth root

- the lamina dura is thicker when the tooth is erupting

- thinning or absence of it is a sign of periodontal disease

What medications do NOT cause xerostomia? - antitussives What does not matter regarding a mask? - HEPA filter How long should you flush your lines between patients? - 20 seconds Dens-invaginatus - occur mainly on mandibular premolars remember "invag" = "inside" the tooth Periodontal probe that is taking a measurement but is not perpendicular to the long axis of the tooth - checking a furcation- nabers probe What dose it mean if panoramic radiograph is darker on one side? - exposing it to light concrescence - condition where the cementum overlying the roots of at least two teeth join together cyclosporine causes - gingival enlargement

PAN radiograph of tooth #3 and you see a ghost image of anterior teeth - double exposed palatine fovea or fovea palatinii - Two orifices one each side of the midline, distal to the vibrating line. They act as collecting ducts for a group of minor palatine salivary glands hypodontia - having less than 6 congenitally missing teeth oligodontia - having 6 or more congenitally missing teeth Leukoedema - appears as a filmy, opaque, white to slate gray discoloration of mucosa, chiefly buccal mucosa,It is stated to be seen in 90% of Blacks Nikolsky's sign - Fragile mucosa may be induced to blister or slough when pressure is applied sign is particularly useful in differentiating pemphigus vulgaris, which causes a positive sign, from bullous pemphigoid, in which the sign is usually absent. Ankylosis - of primary molars has been reported to be associated with various anomalies in permanent dentition, is usually associated with hypodontia and occurs most time when a tooth fails to exfoliate. median rhomboid glossitis - fungal condition treated with an antifungal drug. It is a form of chronic atrophic candidiasis characterized by an asymptomatic, elongated, erythematous patch of atrophic mucosa of the posterior mid-dorsal surface of the tongue due to a chronic Candida infection Does the FDA regulate fluoride in bottled water? - Yes. The federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act provides FDA with broad regulatory authority over food, including bottled water, that is introduced or delivered for interstate commerce (produced and sold in more than one state). Bottled water that is in intrastate commerce (produced and sold only in one state) is under the jurisdiction of the state in which the bottled water is produced and sold. You need to contact the manufacturer to ask if their product is under FDA jurisdiction or state jurisdiction. Does the EPA have jurisdiction over the quality of bottled water? - The EPA does not have jurisdiction over the quality of bottled water. The U.S.

Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) and the FDA have a 1979 Memorandum of Agreement specifying that the EPA regulates safe drinking water in accordance with the Safe Drinking Water Act, and the FDA regulates bottled water as a consumer beverage under the Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (Federal Register, Volume 44, No. 141, July 20, 1979). The FDA has its own regulations on standards of quality, identity, and good manufacturing practices that bottled water must meet. Hemostasis - can refer to the physiologic process whereby bleeding is halted, thus protecting the integrity of the vascular system after tissue injury. It is responsible for minimizing blood loss. It is commonly referred to as stoppage of bleeding, however, coagulation is only one type of hemostatic process. Your patient is taking aspirin, and you will be performing scaling and root planing on 2 quadrants with local anesthetic and placing 3 sites of Arestin. What could be a possible problem? - prolonged bleeding Prozac causes - xerostomia Claritin causes - xerostomia Cyclosporine causes - gingival enlargement parasympathetic nerves (cholinergic action) - produces an increase in fluid volume (serous saliva). sympathetic nerves (sympathomimetic action) - produces less volume and viscous saliva drugs that have an anticholinergic action - reduce the volume of serous saliva, including antihypertensives, antihistamines, antidepressants, antipsychotics, antiemetics, antispasmotics, and anti-parkinsonian drugs. Oraqix® - (lidocaine and prilocaine periodontal gel) 2.5%/2.5% Periodontal Gel is supplied in dental cartridges that provide 1.7 g gel. duration of Oraqix® - provides anesthesia after an application time of 30 seconds, with a mean duration of action of about 17 to 20 min.

Hand washing - 25 Seconds Orquix last? - 14 - 21 minutes Parotid goes with which duct? - Stensen HPV 16 &18 viruses causes? - Verruca vulgaris What condition doesn't need a Pre med? - Pacemaker Alcohol percentage in hand sanitizer - 60% Class III occlusion - Prognthic Cold sterilization last? - 8 hours What causes prolonged bleeding(hemostasis) blood thinner? - Warfarin When patient is taking warfarin what do we need to find out? - (INR) international normalized ratio from physican IV antibiotic used to treat MRSA - Vancomycin What is wrong with this image - Fractured tooth Inflammation around gingival margin of #8? - Restoration irritation Gingival irritation around two weeks? - Re-scale and re-evaluate Recession is apical to the CEJ - 3 Acetaminophen (Tylenol)- causes? - Xerostomia Diastema is? - Genetic What is on the baby's hand? - Urtucaria What is the position do you put a patient going into syncope? - Trendelenburg

Bitewing for child is? - 12 years old What do you not recommend for a child with braces? - Stimudent What is wrong with the guy standing by the pano machine? - Thyroid collar is on Tooth has pus coming out around tooth, tooth passes vitality test is what? - Perio abscess Patient took 300 mg of Clindamycin, what do you do? - Administer 300mg more and then wait 1 hour Someone with an artificial Joint needs? - Medical consult Anti-depressant drug - Prozac & fluoxetine Blood thinners (anti-coagulant) - Warfarin - Coumadin, Clopidogrel - Plavix Periodontal abcess (lateral periodontal cyst) - Radiolucency on the lateral side of the tooth Furcation reduces? - reduced chance if increased root trunk length What do you check furcation with? - Nabor's probe 11/12 13/14 - Mesial, distal Ultrasonic instruments are generally contraindicated with dental implants. Ultrasonic scalers may disrupt the titanium oxide surface. If needed, tips should be covered with plastic inserts. What should be the level? - Low setting Anterior open bite is caused from? - Thumbsucking Lamina dura that surrounds the root is what with disease? - Thinner Lamina dura around molar is? - Too thick Why does the tooth not have roots? - Not formed yet

A scaler with a short tip and contra-angled shank is best for? - Posterior deep pockets What is that cottage cheese looking stuff on the teeth? - Material alba Do not use APF for? - Composite, porcelain, and sealant materials as is causes pitting and roughening. Also, avoid on root surfaces. What treatment is needed for Pyogenic Granuloma? - No treatment Diastolic number that is to high to treat is? - 100 We will not treat a diabetic patient due to? - If patient has not eaten What is contraindicated for COPD - No trendelenburg positon Treatment for fordyce granules - No treatment Epstein-barr virus is the same as - Infectious mononucleosis Chickenpox and shingles comes from what virus? - Varicella-zoster virus Epstein-barr virus symptoms - Symptoms include sore throat, fever, extreme fatigue, lymphadenopathy, etc. can appear 4 - 6 weeks after the infection First thing to do in an medical emergency - Check pulse Blood pressure over 180/100 - Recheck blood pressure in 5 minutes. If still elevated, immediate medical attention is needed Emphysema patients may not be able to breathe easily in supine position need? - Supplemental oxygen What is parotid pipilla? - small elevation at the opening of the parotid salivary gland duct, opposite of maxillary second molars. Afterr you dismiss your patient and you are transferring and processing instruments, all are required but: - Wear mask and safety glasses

No regular exam gloves Which side of the instrument is placed on the stone for sharpening? - Junction of the face and lateral surface Chlorhexidine is? - 0.12% Probe at the facial of the molar is looking for? - Furcation A pateint who is going thtough hypoglycemia needs? - Glucose tablet Median rhomboid glottis is treated with? - Anti-fungal medication The teeth look longer than normal. What should the clinician do to prevent such errors next time? - Increase vertical angulation What needs a pre-med? - Artificial heart valve Which of the following medications does NOT cause xerostomia? - Anti- tussives- tranquilizers what heart conditions require premed? a: anything repaired b: artificial heart valves c: hx of infectious endocarditis d: heart transplant - all of above What do you use as premed and how much - Amoxicillin, 2000 mg how long before appointment should pre med be taken - 30 minutes- 1 hour when do you premed for joints? - less than 2 years, previous infection, multiple replacements what do you use as premed if you are allergic to amoxicillin - cephalexin, clindamycin photograph of a geriatric patient, one side of face appears to have bumps and redness by the eye would most likely be a: herpangina

b: herpes simplex c: herpes zoster d: measles - c, herpes zoster herpes zoster aka - shingles what causes herpes zoster - varicella-zoster virus you are more likely to develop shingles if - you are older than 60, you had chickenpox before age 1, your immune system is weakened by meds or disease what is measles - infection of the respiratory system measles aka - morbilli Kopliks Spots inside the mouth appear during which condition - measles characteristics of measles - flat, discolored areas and solid, red, raised areas that later join together measles is primarily in which age group - children herpangina - involves ulcers and sores inside the mouth. sore throat and fever herpangina most common in which age group - children #8 and #9 are present along with first molars, about how old is the person - 6 years old if lower permanent canines are in the the patient is most likely how old? - 9 - 10 years warfarin(coumadin, Eliquis), aspirin, Plavix, seizure meds, chemotherapy drugs, diuretics, antihistamines, immunosuppressant drugs can all cause - dry mouth and bleeding what to do if patient had an asthma attack in the chair - 1: inhaler, 2: epi, 3: oxygen. in that order

ultrasonics are and move in an pattern -

piezo instruments are and only the are

supererupted tooth that has caries on messiah surface, what would be the cause - overhanging restoration, and/or tooth not having an antagonist how do you treat MRSA if patient is allergic to penicillin - vacomycin + bactrim BWX, and see permanent premolars erupting and primary molars have exfoliated or are really close, then the approximate age is - 10 - 12 years old magnetostrictive, elliptical (all sides are active) active - linear, lateral sides how many hours for cold sterilization? - 8 - 10 hours if patient comes into office due to gum inflammation issues, what is first step - have dentist do complete evaluation before performing any treatment is heart rate fast or slow for hypoglycemia? - fast pulse, dizziness and fast heart rate hypoglycemia - abnormally low blood sugar usually resulting from excessive insulin or a poor diet where would you use a gray instrument with a short shank? - shallow pockets most important item for decay is - acid! not sugar mesenchyme gives rise to all but - enamel mesenchyme - lacunae are located where - compact bone drug of choice for people who are on coumadin (warfarin) - acetaminophen (no platelet effect)

#8- 9 and 1st molars eruption age - 6 - 8 years lower permanent canines eruption age - 9 - 10 years permanent maxillary canines erupt at what age - 11 - 12 premolars erupt at what age - 10 - 12 years 3rd molars at what age - 17 - 21 years vitamin C deals with - connective tissues. collagen formation. aids in iron absorption pernicious anemia is related to vitamin - b12 best proof of destruction of tissues - attachment loss columbia blade to terminal shank is what degree - 90 does chlorhexidine have high substantivity? - yes how does desensitizing agent work - sensitive toothpastes work by either occluding exposed dentinal tubules or by desensitizing the nerve endings in the tubules with potassium ions keratizined tissue in mouth is - gingiva and hard palate large pulp and pink appearance means - internal resorption how does sensitivity of teeth reduce over time - hardening/sclerosis whats in pulp? - fibro, blood vessels, lymphatic channels, nerves and connective tissue first to form? - pulp, cementum, enamel, dentin what is not a recreational nitrous use symptom? a: unsteady gout b: loss of feeling in extremities c: hearing loss

d: loss of motor functions - b: loss of feeling in extremities most common side effect of heparin (anticoagulant) - hemorrhage sodium sulfite in local anesthetic is - preservative gingival enlargement drugs - procardia, cyclosporine, cardizem, Dilantin, CCB's, immunosuppressants and anti convulsants what causes infectious mononucleosis - epstein-barr virus oral manifestations of infectious mononucleosis - palatal petechiae PSR code 0 - color coded mark visible in deepest pocket of sextant no calc or defective margins present healthy tissue, no BOP PSR code 1 - color code still visible no calc BOP present PSR code 2 - only difference is supra/sub calc and/or defective margins PSR code 3 - color code partially visible indicate probing depth between 3.5-5.5 mm PSR code 4 - color code not visible probing depth >5.5mm PSR code * added to number - involves furcations, mobility, mucogingival problems, recession into colored area of probe if code 0,1,2 in all sextants - no further documentation code 3 in one sextant - perio assessment of that sextant code 3 in 2 or more sextants - perio assessment of entire mouth code 4 in 1 or more sextants - perio assessment of entire mouth