Dental Hygiene Prometric Exam Questions and Answers, Exams of Dental Anatomy

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Dental Hygiene Prometric Exam with

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Also known as dens in dente "tooth within a tooth" is a condition found in teeth where the outer surface folds inwards - Correct answer Dens invaginatus Is a condition found in teeth where the outer surface appears to form an extra bump or cusp. Premolars are more likely to be affected than other teeth - Correct answer Dens evaginatus A supernumerary tooth present in the midline between the two central incisors; usually results in oral problems such as malocclusions, food impaction, poor aesthetics, and cysts formation - Correct answer Mesiodens A condition of teeth where the cementum overlying the roots of at least two teeth join together; the cause can sometimes be attributed to trauma or crowding of teeth - Correct answer Concrescence A condition found in the molar teeth whereby the body of the tooth and pulp chamber is enlarged vertically at the expense of the roots; mechanism is the failure or late investigation of Hertwig's epithelial root sheath - Correct answer Taurodontism A radiology error; may occur on any radiograph, however most commonly on the lower anteriors; same thing as double exposure - Correct answer Superimposition A blurred edge to an image, a halo effect, in an x-ray film caused usually by an overlarge focal spot exacerbated by a long object-to-film distance - Correct answer Penumbra If you take a periapical radiograph of the upper right molars and you see a ghost image of the anterior teeth in the x-ray, what happened? - Correct answer Film was double exposed

Digital film is: - Correct answer faster than F speed film What can a panoramic radiograph best detect? - Correct answer Third molars or cysts/tumors If #8, and #9 are present, so are the permanent first molars, then the patient is at least...... - Correct answer 6 years old If the lower permanent canines are erupted then the patient is most likely? This also means the patient should not have 2nd molars yet and that they are still forming - Correct answer Aged 9 to 10 If you see permanent premolars erupting into the mouth and the primary molars have exfoliated or are near exfoliation, then the approx age is..... - Correct answer 10-12 years old The first permanent molar typically starts erupting at age..... - Correct answer 6 Makes up the protective outer surface of the crown of the tooth - Correct answer Enamel Makes up the majority of the inner surface of the tooth. It cannot normally be seen except on x-rays - Correct answer Dentin This is the area inside the tooth that holds the nerves and blood vessels of the tooth. It is the center of the tooth and is in both the crown and the root of the tooth. - Correct answer Pulp The pulp is composed of..... - Correct answer fibroblasts, blood vessels, lymphatic channels, nerves, and CT Makes up the outer surface of the root of the tooth. It is much softer than enamel. - Correct answer Cementum Which of the following parts of the tooth is the first to form? - Correct answer Enamel Mesenchyme gives rise to all of the following except one. Which of the following is the exception? - Correct answer Enamel

___ forms the outer layer of all bones and most of the structure of long bones - Correct answer Compact Bone The small spaces between the lamellae in which contain the bone cells; linked together by minute channels called canaliculi - Correct answer Lacunae Provide routes by which nutrients can reach the osteocytes & waste products can leave them - Correct answer Canaliculi Having less than 6 congenitally missing teeth - Correct answer Hypodontia Having 6 or more congenitally missing teeth - Correct answer Oligodontia Is a circumscribed nodule that lies lingual to the mandibular cuspid on the gingival tissue; observed more frequently in young children and seems to regress or disappear with age - Correct answer Retrocuspid Papilla Enamel pearls aka _________ - Correct answer Enamelomas Usually associated with hypodontia and occurs most time when a tooth fails to exfoliate; most common include 2nd primary molar, and 2nd permanent premolar is the one that fails to develop - Correct answer Ankylosis An unusual condition where the dentin and pulpal walls begin to resorb centrally within the root canal; appearance of a pink-hued area on the crown of the tooth - Correct answer Internal Resorption Also known as the parotid gland; connects the parotid gland and the buccal mucosa; this duct facilitates mastication and swallowing and begins the digestion of starches; blockage of this will cause pain - Correct answer Stensen's duct Also known as submandibular duct; one of the salivary excretory ducts; drains saliva from each bilateral submandibular gland and sublingual gland to the sublingual caruncle at the base of the tongue - Correct answer Wharton's Duct

Where can you find the oblique ridge on the maxillary first molar? - Correct answer It runs from the DB to the ML cusp Palatine Fovea - Correct answer Two orifices on each side of the midline, distal to the vibrating line. They act as collecting ducts for a group of minor palatine salivary glands; this line is a landmark used to make dentures What is the reason for ankylosis? - Correct answer Delayed eruption of permanent teeth Delayed shedding of primary teeth Submental node - Correct answer under the chin Submandibular nodes - Correct answer When the TMJ pops, clicks or grinds that noise is called - Correct answer crepitus Temporomandibular joint - Correct answer having the patient open and close while fingers are in the face Sternocleidomastoid Muscle - Correct answer palpating for anterior superficial and deep nodes; often palpable in HIV + patients; might also say "anterior and posterior deep cervical nodes" Supraclavicular nodes - Correct answer above the clavicles Post auricular nodes - Correct answer behind the ear; In front of the ear would be preauricular Diastema - Correct answer it is hereditary Enlarged circumvallate papilla - Correct answer Enlarged lingual tonsil - Correct answer Gray arrow Prominent foliate papilla - Correct answer Green arrow What papillae is most numerous on the tongue? - Correct answer filiform

Hairy tongue is caused by the elongation of what papillae? - Correct answer Filiform What is the cause of the erythema in this intra oral picture? - Correct answer Ortho retainer Melanin pigmentation - Correct answer Normal, no treatment Lingual Varicosities - Correct answer Common findings in geriatric patients, and no treatment is needed Fordyce granules - Correct answer NO TREATMENT; its a sebaceous gland Frenum Attachment - Correct answer can be the cause of recession If a patient has a tongue piercing which of the follow can happen due to the piercing? - Correct answer Chipped tooth, trigeminal neuralgia, infective endocarditis Class I - Correct answer occlusal areas and buccal or lingual pits Class II - Correct answer posterior interproximal Class III - Correct answer Anterior interproximal Class IV - Correct answer anterior interproximal including the incisal edge Class V - Correct answer gingival at facial or lingual Class VI - Correct answer cusp tip Crossbite - Correct answer Deep bite - Correct answer front teeth hide the lower teeth Overjet - Correct answer also known as class II Underbite - Correct answer also known as class III

The MB cusp of the maxillary first molar is aligned with the buccal groove of the mandibular first molar - Correct answer Class I, Normal Occlusion A term used to describe the distance between the labial surfaces of the mandibular incisors and the incisal edge of the maxillary incisors - Correct answer Overjet A malrelation between the maxillary and mandibular teeth when they occlude with the antagonistic tooth in the opposite relation to normal - Correct answer Anterior crossbite Present when posterior teeth occlude in an abnormal BL relation with the antagonistic teeth; can be result of malposition of a tooth; can be unilateral or bilateral - Correct answer Posterior crossbite The amount of overlap of the mandibular anterior teeth by the maxillary anterior teeth measured perpendicular to the occlusal plane - Correct answer Overbite Present when there is no vertical overlap of the maxillary and mandibular anterior teeth or there is no contact between the maxillary and mandibular posterior teeth - Correct answer Open bite The area from the free gingival groove to the top of the gingiva - Correct answer free gingiva The interface between the sulcular epithelium and the epithelium of the oral cavity - Correct answer free gingival margin Keratinized areas of the oral mucosa - Correct answer Masticatory Mucosa: Gingiva and Hard Palate Vermillion Border of lip Oral or outer epithelium Non-Keratinized areas of oral mucosa - Correct answer Junctional epithelium Sulcular epithelium Lining mucosa: lip, cheek, vestibular furnix,alveolar mucosa, floor of mouth, soft palate Specialized mucosa: Dorsum of tongue, taste buds

Refers to the estimated position of the structures that support the tooth as measured with a periodontal probe; provides an estimate of a tooth's stability and the loss of bone support - Correct answer CAL When the gingival margin is at the CEJ, no calculations are needed because the probing depth and the clinical attachment level are the same?

• Correct answer True The thin radiopaque line that lines the tooth root; thicker when the tooth is erupting and thinning when periodontal disease - Correct answer Lamina Dura In periodontal disease, the lamina dura is: - Correct answer thinner If a patient has gingivitis, the reason for the edema is due to: - Correct answer toxins produced from the biofilm If the end of a probe is perpendicular to the long axis of a tooth, what might it be measuring? - Correct answer Furcation involvement Which of the following is the BEST proof of the destruction of tissues? - Correct answer Attachment loss Teeth with a periodontal abscess are vital whereas teeth with a periapical abscess are non vital. - Correct answer Both true Which of the following is a type of keratinized tissue? - Correct answer Hard palate A calcium channel blocker for HBP. It causes gingival enlargement/overgrowth - Correct answer Procardia (Nifedipine) Drug induced gingival hyperplasia - Correct answer anticonvulsants (phenytoin, phenobarbital, lamotrigine, valproate, vigabatrin, ethosuximide, topiramate and primidone) Calcium channel blockers, such as nifedipine, amlodipine, and verapamil. Cyclosporine, an immunosuppresant.

This medication causes bleeding, often taken as an antithrombotic; affects hemostasis - Correct answer Aspirin The physiologic process whereby bleeding is halted, thus protecting the integrity of the vascular system after tissue injury; it is responsible for minimizing blood loss - Correct answer Hemostasis What is the purpose of sodium sulfite in local anesthetics? A.) Vasoconstrictor B.) Reducing agent C.) Preservative D.) Anesthetic base - Correct answer Preservative Which of the following is NOT a side effect of the recreational use of nitrous oxide? - Correct answer Unsteady gait Which group of hypertensive drugs is known for causing gingival hyperplasia? - Correct answer Calcium channel blockers All of the following drugs may cause an increased risk of bleeding EXCEPT? A.) Aspirin B.) Warfarin C.) Ibuprofen D.) Dilantin - Correct answer Dilantin What is a common side effect of Prozac? A.) Xerostomia B.) Prolonged bleeding C.) Gingival overgrowth D.) Delayed wound healthing - Correct answer Xerostomia What is the most common side effect of Prednisone? A.) Prolonged bleeding B.) Gingival overgrowth C.) Impaired wound healing D.) Sloughing of the gingival tissues - Correct answer Impaired wound healing

What is an immunosuppressant drug that causes gingival enlargement? A.) Prozac B.) Aspirin C.) Prednisone D.) Cyclosporine - Correct answer Cyclosporine What is the most likely side effect of Claritin? A.) Xerostomia B.) Prolonged bleeding C.) Gingival hyperplasia D.) Sloughing of the gingival tissues - Correct answer Xerostomia What is a side effect of steroid use? A.) Orthostatic hypotension B.) Excessive bleeding C.) Delayed wound healing D.) Gingival enlargement - Correct answer Delayed wound healing Which class of medications DO NOT cause xerostomia? A.) Antihypertensives B.) Antihistamines C.) Antitussives D.) Anticholinergic - Correct answer Antitussives What is the most common side effect of Heparin? A.) Polyuria B.) Hemorrhage C.) Drowsiness D.) Xerostomia - Correct answer Hemorrhage Dilaceration - Correct answer Caused by the fungus Candida albicans; initial onset includes nutritional deficiencies, Vitamin B, iron deficiency anemia, which in turn may evidence of poor diets or malnutrition; can also be a sign of anorexia nervosa or bulimia nervosa due to malnutrition - Correct answer Angular Cheilitis A term used to describe benign or pre-malignant changes on the lip due to chronic sun exposure; affects the vermillion, NOT THE CORNERS; also can be called actinic cheilitis - Correct answer Solar Cheilitis

Common features of solar cheilitis vs uncommon - Correct answer Common: dry lips, thinned skin of the lips, scaly patches Uncommon: swelling of the lip, redness & soreness, ulceration & crusting, prominent folds & lip lines, white thickened patches, discolored skin with pale and yellow areas By far the most common of the oral fibrous tumorlike growths; may occur at any oral site, but it is seen most often on the buccal mucosa along the plane of occlusion of the maxillary and mandibular teeth - Correct answer Irritation Fibroma A benign nerve sheath tumor derived from the myelin sheath of periapical nerves in the peripheral nervous system; it is an autosomal dominant genetically-inherited disease, which can result in a range of symptoms from physical disfiguration and pain to cognitive disability - Correct answer Neurofibroma A growth or tumor of nerve tissue; tumors of any part of a nerve; sometimes the term is used more broadly to refer to any tumor of neural tissue - Correct answer Neuroma A slow-growing, rare, noncancerous (benign) tumor that develops most often in the jaw near the molars; it is derived from dental lamina or enamel organ composed of epithelial cells and has a soap-bubble appearance; most common type of odontogenic lesion - Correct answer Ameloblastoma A white lesion of the mucous membrane that cannot be wiped off; biopsy is required for accurate diagnosis; most common in men & favors older age groups - Correct answer Leukoplakia Biopsy of oral leukoplakia will most often show ______, a purely reactive and harmless lesion - Correct answer hyperkeratosis About 20% however will show ________, a premalignant lesion or cancer. - Correct answer Dysplasia

Appears as a filmy, opaque, white to slate gray discoloration of mucosa (mainly buccal mucosa); it is stated to be seen in 90% of African Americans; accentuated in smokers - Correct answer Leukoedema Fragile mucosa may be induced to blister or slough when pressure is applied; Is particularly useful in differentiating pemphigus vulgaris, which causes a positive sign, from bullous pemphigoid, in which the sign is usually absent - Correct answer Nikolsky's Sign Amelogenesis imperfecta - Correct answer incomplete or improper development of the enamel tissue Teeth may be gray to yellowish brown; Enamel is usually lost early due to loss of scalloping at the CEJ; teeth are not more susceptible to caries than normal ones - Correct answer Dentinogenesis Imperfecta A chronic fungal infection in this area of the tongue; asymptomatic, & elongated; and no treatment is needed; for those with symptoms such as burning an antifungal medication may be prescribed to kill the yeast & symptoms - Correct answer Median Rhomboid Glossitis A mucous cyst that is painless, thin sac on the inner surface of the lips; contains clear fluid; often go away without treatment; but removal may be needed - Correct answer Mucocele A type of mucocele found on the floor of the mouth; present as a swelling of CT consisting of collected mucin from a ruptured salivary gland duct which is usually caused by local trauma - Correct answer Ranula An oral ulcer of traumatic origin with unique histopathologic features; most often occur on the lateral border of the tongue or buccal mucosa; the ulcers are painful & range from 0.1 to 1 cm - Correct answer Traumatic ulcerative granuloma or TUGSE An oral pathologic condition that appears in the mouth as an overgrowth of tissue due to irritation or trauma; associated with two other conditions known as pyogenic granuloma & peripheral ossifying fibroma; considered by some researches to be a soft tissue equivalent - Correct answer Peripheral giant cell granuloma

An acute, highly communicable vital disease characterized by fever, conjunctivitis, coryza, cough, and Koplik spots; occurs primarily in children - Correct answer Measles Small, red, irregularly-shaped spots with blue-white centers found on the mucosal surface of the oral cavity (measles) - Correct answer Koplik spots A viral illness also called mouth blisters; it is the name of a painful mouth infection caused by coxsackieviruses; most causes occur in the summer affecting children; illness is characterized by ulcers & sores inside the mouth, a sore throat, and fever - Correct answer Herpangina A painful, blistering red skin rash due to the varicella-zoster virus; may develop in any age group especially if you are older than 60, had chickenpox before u were 1, and immune system weakened by medications or disease - Correct answer Herpes Zoster (shingles) Often contracted by health care workers that come in contact with the virus; most common with dental workers and medical workers exposed to oral secretions; these lesions were common before workers wore gloves and came in contact with the herpes virus - Correct answer Herpetic Whitlow (HSV-1) A virus that produces most cold sores & genital herpes; it usually affects the lips and mucous membranes in the mouth; can be spread through saliva or sharing drinks; symptoms include watery blisters in the skin or mucous membranes of the mouth, lips, or genitals - Correct answer Herpes Simplex Virus What are characteristics of congenital syphilis? - Correct answer Mulberry molars and Hutchinson's incisors An irritation fibroma is composed of: A.) Granulation tissue only B.) Misplaced sebaceous glands C.) Ranulation tissue & giant cells D.) Dense fibrous connective tissue only E.) Dense fibrous connective tissue and giant cells - Correct answer Dense fibrous connective tissue only

This is a tumor; it is a spontaneous new growth of tissue which forms an abnormal mass, swelling or enlargement - Correct answer Neoplasm The swelling under the tongue of a patient is slightly raised. What should you do? A.) Notify the doctor of a possible neoplasm B.) Nothing, it could just be a ulcer C.) Ask the patient if they have consumed any pizza recently D.) Record it in the patients chart and check again in 6 months - Correct answer Notify the doctor of a possible neoplasm The result of accumulation of bacteria, dead epithelial cells, and food debris; they are white plaques on the attached gingiva and the alveolar mucosa - Correct answer Materia Alba A common firm, pale, pink lesion of the buccal mucosa that often is caused by cheek biting is: A.) Irritation fibroma B.) Epulis Fissuratum C.) Pyogenic granuloma D.) Peripheral granuloma E.) Inflammatory papillary hyperplasia - Correct answer Irritation fibroma Epithelial remnants (builder's debris) can proliferate within an apical granuloma to a: A.) Apical or lateral radicular cysts B.) Macrodont C.) Pulp stone D.) Mucocele - Correct answer Apical or lateral radicular cysts This patient previously had chicken pox and is now affected by what condition on the right side of her body? A.) Herpangia B.) Herpes Simplex C.) Herpes Zoster D.) Measles - Correct answer Herpes Zoster A patient presents with a severe allergic reaction on her hands that is characterized by fluid-filled blisters. What is the most likely cause? A.) Urticaria

B.) Contact dermatitis C.) Shingles D.) Measles - Correct answer Contact dermatitis If a patient has a vesicle for approximately 2 weeks (lesion) that doesn't heal, what is it most likely to be? A.) Herpes Simplex Virus B.) Herpangina C.) Herpes Zoster D.) Measles - Correct answer Herpes Simplex Virus Which oral lesion CAN be wiped off? A.) Leukoplakia B.) Snuff Keratosis C.) Aspirin Burn D.) Pseudomembranous candidiasis - Correct answer Pseudomembranous candidiasis A class of water-soluble vitamins that play important roles in cell metabolism - Correct answer B vitamins This can cause permanent damage to nerves and other organs if it goes on for a long time without being treated; raises the risk for developing stomach cancer; loss of Vit B12 - Correct answer Pernicious Anemia Pernicious Anemia is the deficiency of which of the following vitamins? A.) Vitamin A B.) Vitamin B C.) Vitamin B D.) Vitamin B12 - Correct answer Vitamin B What is the negative effect or consequence of APF? A.) Erodes porcelain restorations B.) Causes staining C.) Does not help with root caries D.) Can not be used with patients with full dentures - Correct answer Erodes porcelain restorations Which method of fluoride application immediately gets absorbed into the enamel?

A.) Fluoride foam B.) Fluoride varnish C.) Home fluoride rinse D.) Fluoride gel - Correct answer Fluoride Varnish What is the minimum amount of time for a form or gel fluoride treatment to be the most effective? A.) 1 minute B.) 2 minutes C.) 3 minutes D.) 4 minutes - Correct answer 4 minutes A child drinking fluoridated water and taking supplements is at greater risk for A: caries B: hypocalcification C: decalcification D: juvenile periodontitis - Correct answer Hypocalcification Is a form of enamel hypocalcification which results from the ingestion of excessive fluoride during the period of enamel formation - Correct answer Dental fluorosis Which does NOT have natural occurring fluoride? A.) Fish B.) Tea C.) Well water D.) Pork - Correct answer Pork Does the EPA have jurisdiction over the quality of bottled water? - Correct answer No Who regulates safe drinking water in accordance with the safe drinking water act? - Correct answer EPA Who regulates bottled water as a consumer beverage under the food, drug, and cosmetic act? - Correct answer FDA When is the ph level at its highest in regards to eating meals? A.) Before eating a meal

B.) After eating a meal C.) 4 hours after a meal D.) Ph is not changed with meals - Correct answer After eating a meal The irreversible enlargement of the air sacs in the lungs making it hard to expel all oxygen during breathing; characterized by decreased elasticity of lung tissue & destruction of alveolar tissue, resulting in enlarged air spaces and increased total lung capacity - Correct answer Emphysema Patient with Emphysema protocol - Correct answer -Maintain patient comfort and an adequate oxygen level during dental treatment -procedures that create aerosols such as ultrasonic & polishing should be avoided -semi-supine position What are the two forms of COPD? - Correct answer emphysema and chronic bronchitis What are the most common risk factors associated with COPD? - Correct answer Smoking & inhaling secondhand smoke Most common type of odontogenic lesion? - Correct answer Ameloblastoma Low blood pressure; occurs when there is insufficient glucose in the bloodstream to meet the metabolic demands of cells; common in type I & type II diabetes; occurs when blood pressure drops below 80 mg; can be presented by making sure they have eaten before their appointment, morning appointments, & glucose sources available - Correct answer Hypoglycemia Signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia - Correct answer headache, confusion, restlessness, seizures, tachycardia Treatment: maintain airway, keep patient supine & turned on side, administer glucose beneath tongue, assess & record vital signs, call 911 Occurs when there is not enough insulin available to move glucose into cells; symptoms include warm, red, and dry skin; medical problem can lead to heart attack, infection, or stroke - Correct answer Diabetic ketoacidosis

Signs & Symptoms of Ketoacidosis - Correct answer Hyperventilation, acetone odor on breath, warm red dry skin, fainting -Treatment includes to maintain airway, keep patient supine and turned to the side, assess & record vital signs, call 911 Results from either the psychological response to fear, anxiety, stress, pain, or unpleasant situations from poor autonomic adjustments to changes in the patient's posture; #1 medical emergency in the dental chair - Correct answer Syncope (fainting) Signs & Symptoms of Syncope - Correct answer pale, light-headedness, dizziness, weakness, sudden collapse & unconsciousness -Treatment includes: lay patient supine, do not allow patient to get up right away, use of ammonia if necessary, and call 911 if symptoms do not resolve Signs & Symptoms of Asthmatic patient - Correct answer Wheezing, chest tightness, coughing, dyspnea, cyanosis -Treatment includes: position patient upright with arms forward, administer oxygen, one puff from inhaler, repeat in 5 minutes if needed, assess & record vital signs, call 911 if no improvement in 5 minutes A common condition where mild inflammation and redness of the oral mucosa membrane occurs beneath a denture - Correct answer Denture- related stomatitis Caused by a type of staph bacteria that's become resistant to many of the antibiotics used to treat ordinary staph infections; lives on 20-30% of the population but does not cause infection in all who are colonized with it; occur in people who have been in hospitals, or nursing homes - Correct answer Methicillin-resistant staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) Which antibiotics can treat MRSA? - Correct answer Vancomycin & Bactrim Which of the following should you do if you have a patient in your chair who has emphysema? A.) Place patient in a semi-supine position B.) Use machines that produce aerosols C.) Use nitrous oxide during appointment

D.) Schedule long appointments - Correct answer Place patient in semi- supine position After being called to the reception area and seeing an unresponsive patient what do you do next? A.) Activate EMS B.) Start chest compressions C.) Check for broken bones D.) Check airway for obstruction - Correct answer Activate EMS What disease can cause inflammation? A.) Epilepsy B.) Hypotension C.) Hypertension D.) Uncontrolled type II diabetes - Correct answer Uncontrolled type II diabetes Your patient's blood pressure is 161/111. What would you do first? A.) Clean their teeth B.) Take radiographs C.) Complete periodontal charting D.) Send patient to physician and delay treatment - Correct answer send patient to physician and delay treatment If your diabetic patient starts to feel uncomfortable, nervous, and feels faint what should you immediately do? A.) Sit the patient upright B.) Place patient in Trendelenburg position C.) Administer source of glucose D.) Check vital signs - Correct answer Sit the patient upright Your patient is taking aspirin, and you will be performing scaling and root planning on 2 quadrants with local anesthetic and placing 3 sites of Arestin. What could be a possible problem? A.) Syncope B.) Asthma attack C.) Hypoglycemia D.) Prolonged bleeding - Correct answer Prolonged bleeding

A patient on an anti-hypertensive is most likely to experience what problem in the dental chair? A.) Hypoglycemia B.) Hyperglycemia C.) Orthostatic hypotension D.) Xerostomia - Correct answer orthostatic hypotension ASA class II applies to which medical condition? A.) Well-controlled epilepsy B.) Unstable angina C.) Well-controlled type I diabetes D.) Uncontrolled type I diabetes - Correct answer well-controlled epilepsy Your patient feels faint in the dental chair. The BEST way to keep them from being unconscious is: A.) Lay them on their left side B.) Have them take deep breaths C.) Put them in the supine position with head below heart D.) Put them in a position where knees are bent - Correct answer Put them in the supine position with head below heart Your patient is suffering from hypoglycemia. Which of the following most likely describes their symptoms? A.) Slow pulse, dizziness B.) Fast pulse, dizziness C.) Slow pulse, confusion D.) Fast pulse, loss of appetite - Correct answer Fast pulse, dizziness What commonly precipitates a thrombosis? A.) Stasis B.) Edema C.) Bacterial infections D.) Lower oxygen in hemoglobin - Correct answer Stasis Your 10 am patient requires premedication. He is allergic to Penicillin and takes Clindamycin. He tells you that he took one 300 mg pill of Clindamycin about one hour ago. What should you do? A.) Administer 2g Amoxicillin and wait one hour B.) Begin dental treatment immediately C.) Administer another 300 mg of Clindamycin and wait one hour

D.) Administer another 300 mg of Clindamycin and begin treatment immediately - Correct answer Administer another 300 mg of Clindamycin & wait one hour Your patient has an artificial heart valve and is allergic to Penicillin. What should you give them as a premedication? A.) 2 g Penicillin B.) 2 g Ampicillin C.) 2g Amoxicillin D.) 600 mg of Clindamycin - Correct answer 600 mg Clindamycin If a patient is not allergic to Penicillin and has infective endocarditis, what premedication should be used prior to prophylaxis? A.) 2g Penicillin B.) 2g Amoxicillin C.) 500 mg Clindamycin D.) 500 mg Azithromycin - Correct answer 2g Amoxicillin If a patient with infective endocarditis has no contraindications of premedication, when would they need to be premedicated? A.) Periodontal probing B.) Suture removal C.) Dental impressions D.) Sealants - Correct answer periodontal probing Your patient had a hip replacement 4 months ago and is not allergic to anything. What do you do? A.) Give ADA recommended premed for Amoxicillin B.) Give ADA recommended premed for Clindamycin C.) No premed is necessary prior to treatment D.) Consult their physician - Correct answer Consult their physician Your patient is on antibiotic regimen for dental procedures. She takes 300 mg of Clindamycin an hour prior to her dental appointment. What should you do? A.) Proceed with treatment B.) Administer 1g Amoxicillin and begin treatment C.) Give patient an extra 300 mg of Clindamycin and wait an hour

D.) Give patient an extra 300mg of Clindamycin and begin treatment - Correct answer Give patient an extra 300 mg of Clindamycin and wait an hour A patient with a history of what condition would require premedication prior to dental treatment? A.) Infective endocarditis B.) Mitral valve prolapse C.) Calcified aortic stenosis D.) CABG (coronary artery bypass graft) - Correct answer Infective endocarditis Which of the following conditions require premedication prior to dental treatment? A.) Permanent kidney dialysis shunt B.) Mitral valve prolapse C.) Calcified aortic stenosis D.) COPD - Correct answer Permanent kidney dialysis shunt An evidence-based approach to preventing or treating dental caries at the earliest stages - Correct answer CAMBRA (caries management by risk) Low socioeconomic status, development problems, presence of cavities, white spots, and restorations placed in the past 3 years - Correct answer Caries disease indicators Type & quantity of Mutans streptococci (MS) and lactobacilli (LB), visible plaque, exposed roots, saliva reducing factors and inadequate saliva flow, frequent snacks, deep pits and fissures, and orthodontic appliances - Correct answer Caries risk factors Systemic and topical fluoride sources, adequate saliva flow, regular use of chlorohexidine, xylitol, and calcium and phosphate paste - Correct answer Caries protective factors Presence of white spots, decalcification, restorations, and plaque; and bacterial culture and saliva flow tests - Correct answer Clinical examination

An antiseptic and antimicrobial oral rinse that provides protection against wide ranges of bacteria; commonly prescribed orally for treating gingivitis, and used after scaling and root planning; side effects include staining of the teeth, supragingival calculus, altered sense of taste; Has high sustainability

• Correct answer 0.12% Chlorhexidine Gluconate Work by either occluding exposed dentinal tubules or by desensitizing the nerve endings in the dentinal tubules with potassium ions - Correct answer Desensitizing toothpaste Clinical studies show ______ progressively reduces the pain of sensitivity over a period of weeks - Correct answer Potassium Nitrate How does sensitivity of teeth reduce over time? A.) Use of desensitizing toothpaste B.) Hydrodynamic theory C.) Resorption of dentinal fibers D.) Sclerosis of the dentin - Correct answer Sclerosis of the dentin A periodontal gel composed of Lidocaine & Prilocaine that provides anesthesia after an application time of 30 seconds, with a duration of 20 minutes; up to 5 cartridges max - Correct answer Oraqix What type of mouthwash would you recommend to patients with erosion? - Correct answer Sodium bicarbonate rinse You run into an old friend at the store and she tells you that she is pregnant. When do you recommend the first dental visit? A.) Prenatal of the mom B.) When the baby is born C.) After eruption of baby's first tooth D.) 2 years old - Correct answer Prenatal of the mom All of the following involve CAMBRA except? A.) One to two incipient and or recurrent caries in the past year B.) Increased saliva flow C.) Topical fluoride choices D.) Low socioeconomic status - Correct answer increased saliva flow Which of the following is a contraindication for sealant placement?

A.) Deep pits and fissures B.) Interproximal caries C.) Newly-erupted first molars D.) Premolars with deep pits - Correct answer Interproximal caries The most well known sulcular brushing technique and the most widely used technique; toothbrush head rests at a 45-degree angle, bristles directed towards the sulcus with small circular motions performing the plaque removal; useful for all types of dental conditions, especially periodontal patients - Correct answer Modified bass technique Effective in cleaning the interproximal areas, used in case of fixed prosthodontic appliances & orthodontic patients; position the bristles towards the occlusal or crown of the tooth, 45 degrees to the long axis of the tooth - Correct answer Charter's Method This method is mostly indicated for children or others with poor manual dexterity; It is a simple technique but it has been shown to be less effective than other toothbrushing methods - Correct answer Fones method Cleaning in areas with progressing gingival recession and root exposure to prevent further tissue destruction; this method is also useful for patients with hypersensitive gingiva or slightly reduced interdental papilla - Correct answer Modified Stillman's method What toothbrushing method would you recommend for this patient undergoing orthodontic treatment? A.) Bass B.) Fones C.) Stillman D.) Charters - Correct answer Charters What toothbrush method would you recommend for a 5 year old child? A.) Bass B.) Fones C.) Stillman D.) Charters - Correct answer Fones What toothbrushing method would you recommend for this patient with gingival recession?

A.) Bass B.) Fones C.) Modified Stillman's D.) Charters - Correct answer Modified Stillman's Elliptical motion is used, all sides are active, 24-42 K vibrations per second, vibratory action fractures the hard deposit, constant flow of water - Correct answer Magnetostrictive Ultrasonic Linear motion is used, only lateral sides are active, 29-50k vibrations per second, less heat is produced, has quartz or metal alloy crystal transducer that converts electrical energy into vibrations - Correct answer Piezo ultrasonic Uses of the ultrasonic scaler - Correct answer Supra/subgingival calculus removal Plaque removal Stain removal Orthodontics Oral surgery Overhang removal Contraindications of Ultrasonic Instrumentation - Correct answer patients with communicable diseases, immunosuppressed patients, Respiratory compromised patients, Unshielded cardiac pacemaker, Young children, Patients with dysphagia or prone to gagging Oral conditions such as: demineralized areas, porcelain crowns, exposed cementum surfaces Advantages of ultrasonic instrumentation - Correct answer -Rapidly removes heavy calculus/stain -less clinician fatigue -minimal soft tissue trauma -removes or kills subgingival plaque -water lavage action -less patient discomfort during use and post-op

Disadvantages of Ultrasonic instrumentation - Correct answer -reduced visibility due to water spray -slightly messy to operate -decreased tactile sensitivity -excessive heat may be a problem -surface irregularities Ultrasonic use on dental implants - Correct answer can be used on dental implants provided they have a plastic tip added to the insert, single use tips must be used on LOW power; are not indicated for heavy calculus Which instrument would you avoid using for removing heavy calculus deposits? A.) Sickle B.) Gracey C.) Ultrasonic scaler D.) Piezo scaler - Correct answer Gracey Where would you use a gracey scaler with a short shank? A.) Shallow pockets B.) Deep pockets C.) Posterior teeth only D.) Anterior teeth only - Correct answer shallow pockets What is the best way to sharpen an instrument to preserve the blade? A.) Sharpen the whole lateral surface B.) Honing C.) Dry stone D.) Water with stone - Correct answer Water with stone What side of the instrument is placed on the stone for sharpening? A.) Back B.) Terminal shank C.) Junction of the face and lateral surface D.) Junction of the back and lateral surface - Correct answer Junction of the face and lateral surface The angle between the instrument face and the stone should be _______ degrees - Correct answer 110 degrees