DHL Interview ATPL Questions Exam With 100% Correct Answers 2024, Exams of Advanced Education

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DHL Interview ATPL Questions Exam With 100% Correct Answers 2024 What is the VOR change over distance? - Correct Answer- 60NM What is the minimum distance between parallel runways? - Correct Answer-915m what the key points of using Mode 2 for parallel runways? - Correct Answer-Only straight in approaches allowed interception angle of no more that 30 degrees must be straight and level 1NM for localiser must be straight and level 2NM for Glideslope Minimum separation of 3NM on same Loc Min separation of 2 NM on adjacent Loc Missed approach tracks diverge by at least 30 degree what is the minimum time a flight plan must be filed before departure - Correct Answer-60 minutes how does a pilot create a slip or a skid and how it is indicated on the turn co-ordinator? - Correct Answer-Slip - opposite rudder to direction of turn = ball will be at the same side of the turn Skid - too much rudder in the direction of the turn = ball will be on the opposite side to the turn what time must ATC clocks be within? - Correct Answer-30 seconds what are the Airspace separations rules for Class A - Correct Answer-IFR Only What are the Airspace separation rules for Class B - Correct Answer-IFR and VFR seperated What are the Airspace separation rules for Class C - Correct Answer-IFR separated from IFR IFR Separated from VFR VFR Info about VFR Speed limited below FL100 250kts what is the difference between IAS and CAS (calibrated Airspeed) - Correct Answer-corrected for instrument positional errors what is the difference between CAS and TAS (true Airspeed) - Correct Answer-Corrected for changes in air Density when is ground effect felt? - Correct Answer-half the wingspan from the ground what is interference drag? - Correct Answer-Drag caused by interaction of boundary layers at major aircraft components what are high aspect ratio wings - Correct Answer-long thin wings what are low aspect ratio wings - Correct Answer-short fat ones why are all jet liners wings swept - Correct Answer-they are better at close to mach where does the Pulmonary artery pump blood to? - Correct Answer-the lungs what is reduced when someone hyper ventilates - Correct Answer-CO2 how long such you void flying for after giving blood? - Correct Answer-24 hrs what percentages of accidents are caused by human error - Correct Answer-70% What is the tropopause? - Correct Answer-The boundary between the troposphere and the stratosphere. Where temp no longer increases with height what does the air need to be at the summit of a mountain to cause mountain waves? - Correct Answer-stable what does they wind need to be doing with increasing altitude to cause mountain waves? - Correct Answer-increasing why won't cirrus clouds cause icing - Correct Answer-they are already ice crystals what side of the polar jet stream in the most turbulence on? - Correct Answer-the cold side what is Grivation - Correct Answer-the combination of Grid convergence and magnetic variation what is ISA? - Correct Answer-Temp 15 Pressure 1013.35 Density 1225 - 2 c per 1000ft 27ft per 1 Hpa What is pressure Altitude? - Correct Answer-the vertical distance from ISO how many nautical miles is one degree of latitude? - Correct Answer-60NM 10NM - 90 either side at what range does the glide slope have its best accuracy? - Correct Answer-10nm - 8 degrees either side how does a DME work - Correct Answer-the aircraft sends out a pulse and the ground station sends it back. depending on the time to recieve it back depends on the distance - Slant range What does VOR mean? - Correct Answer-VHF Omnidirectional Range what range are VOR usable to? - Correct Answer-25 - 140 nm what is the range of frequency for a VOR - Correct Answer- 108- 117.9 Mhz are VOR aligned to True North or Magnetic North? - Correct Answer-Magnetic how does a VOR work - Correct Answer-it emits two signals one rotating at a certain speed and one turning on and off what is the difference between N0NA1A and N0NA2A for an NDA - Correct Answer-N0NA1A - requires an BFO(beat frequency oscillation) for manual tuning, identifying and monitoring N0NA2A - doesn't require a BFO what errors are NDB/ADF erected by - Correct Answer-Static Interference Night effect Station Interference Costal Refraction Multi Path Propagation Quadrantal Effect how do NDB Waves propagate? - Correct Answer-Surface waves why are skywaves caused at night - Correct Answer-because at night the lower levels of the ionosphere disappears the ionosphere absorbs the radio waves in the day so it doesn't bounce back down to earth What effect causes a ADF needle to hunt? - Correct Answer- Night effect what is a QDM? - Correct Answer-magnetic bearing TO the station what is a QDR? - Correct Answer-Magnetic bearing FROM the station what is a QUJ? - Correct Answer-True bearing TO a station what is a QTE? - Correct Answer-True track FROM a station. what is the memory add for variation - Correct Answer- Variation west, magnetic best True + Variation = magnetic heading Variation east magnetic least True - variation = magnetic heading - RVR - 200 m or above Cat 3B - DH 0 - 50 ft - RVR - 75 - 200m Cat 3C - No limitations with a SSR - what is the interrogation frequency? and what is the reply frequency? - Correct Answer-interrogation - 1030 Reply - 1090 what is the benefit of a slot antenna over a parabolic reflector? - Correct Answer-it requires less power what is water vapour directly to Ice called? - Correct Answer- deposition or resublimation what does 1 minute of a meridian equal? - Correct Answer-1 NM what is the change in ice directly to water vapour - Correct Answer-sublimation what are the RFFS(rescue and fire fighting service) for A320, A321, A330? - Correct Answer-320 - Cat 6 A321 - Cat 7 A330 - Cat 8 what visibility would you expect from high pressure? - Correct Answer-poor, hazy what does yellow arrows on the pre- threshold mean? - Correct Answer-use for stop way only what are the four stages of a piston engine? - Correct Answer- induction compression combustion exhaust what is the difference between a Rhumb line and great circle - Correct Answer-a great circle is the shortest line between two points a rhumb line is a line between two points that cut the meridians at the same angle when is a air mass considered unstable - Correct Answer-when it constantly rises is wind in true or magnetic - Correct Answer-True are the stages of a CB - Correct Answer-Developing Mature Dissipating from how long on the runway are the yellow edge lights? - Correct Answer-600m or one third of the runway what colour are taxi lights - Correct Answer-green centre lights, blue edge lights what are the Aircraft approach Categories - Correct Answer-A - VAT = 91< Circling 100 B - VAT = 91-120 Circling 135 C - VAT = 121 - 140 Circling 180 D - VAT = 141 - 165 Circling 205 how much runway do you have left when you see red centre lights - Correct Answer-300m what is MEA? - Correct Answer-Minimum Enroute Altitude Guarantees 1000ft clearance (2000 mountainous) and radio signal reception along the route what is MSA? - Correct Answer-Minimum Safe Altitude which provides1,000 feet clearance above obstruction in that sector within 25 NM of the facility what is the MMEL? - Correct Answer-master minimum equipment list what does PUDSOD stand for - Correct Answer-Pitot blocked under read on descent Static blocked over read on descent what are the circling minima's for cat A,B,C,D? - Correct Answer-A Vis 1500 MDA 400 B Vis 1600 MDA 500 C Vis 2400 MDA 600 D Vis 2600 MDA 700 what is the difference between Evaporation and Advection Fog? - Correct Answer-Evaporation - cold air over a warm moist surface Advection - warm air over a cold surface what is screen height? - Correct Answer-the height and aircraft must reach for the takeoff part Class A - 35 ft Class B 50 ft wet runway - 15ft what is required for CAT 2 and 3 approaches? - Correct Answer-equipment needs to be certified, crew need to be qualified how many feet are you clear of obstacles fo net performance? - Correct Answer-35ft what colour lines are a taxiway? - Correct Answer-yellow green centre lights, blue edge lights what is the difference between MSA and MEA - Correct Answer-MEA - 1000ft above any obstacle within 5Nm of your route MSA - 1000 ft above any obstacle within 25nm of the beacons or that section of the chart how makes the MMEL and who accepts it? - Correct Answer- Manufacture makes it, authority accepts it what does Yellow centre lights mean? - Correct Answer-rapid taxiway off the runway what is the gross performance? - Correct Answer-the average performance a fleet of aircrafts should achieve Net is gross lowered for safety what is MORA? - Correct Answer-Minimum Off Route Altitude - two types of MORA, Grid and Route Grid MORA - Defined by the Lat and Long lines on the chart. what is the difference with wind between when you see and hear it - Correct Answer-see - true hear magnetic What is holding speed up to 14000 - Correct Answer-230 max What is holding speed between 14-20000ft - Correct Answer- 240 max What is holding speed for 200000 -30000ft - Correct Answer- 265 max Why does the stall speed increase with altitude? - Correct Answer-Because as the Mach number approaches, if you fly a higher angle of attack by flying slower the speed over the wing increases causing Mcrit how often is a standard 9 hour TAF (terminal Aerodrome Forecast) reissued? - Correct Answer-every 3 hours where is the centre of pressure? - Correct Answer-the centre of the HIGH pressure how long does a TEMPo last for - Correct Answer-no more than an hour, or half the period what must the wind speed be above to be classed as a jet stream? - Correct Answer-60kts where do you find the jet streams - Correct Answer-upper troposphere how often is a METAR issued? - Correct Answer-every 30 minutes what is veering? - Correct Answer-the clockwise change in the wind direction What is the geostrophic wind? - Correct Answer-Once the Coriolis force (CF) balances with the pressure gradient force (PGF), the wind no longer accelerates because the net force is zero. Here the wind flows in a straight path, parallel to the contours at a constant speed. We call this a geostrophic wind. what are the four types of cloud cover? - Correct Answer-FEW - 1-2 OKTAS SCT - 3-4 OKTAS BKN - 5-7 OKTAS OVC - 8 OKTAS what is backing - Correct Answer-the wind changing in an anti clockwise direction what is the optimum altitude? - Correct Answer-the altitude where the plane is moist efficient. lowest fuel consumption, max range speed. when the engines are working at their most efficient RPM. and flying at minimal drag what is a cost range index? - Correct Answer-= flying cost/fuel cost takes in to count all the addition cost of flying (crew etc) how does fuel vary a cost index? - Correct Answer-depending on the price of fuel changes the cost index How does it shift? - Correct Answer-Intertropical Convergence Zone. Where air is coming together in the tropics (low pressure) High temps create low pressures. Shifts Northern to Southern Hemisphere. Usually within 10 degrees of equator. Follow seasons. what is minimal drag? - Correct Answer-where induced drag and parasite drag are equal what is standard hold - Correct Answer-right hand turns below FL140 1 minute outbound above FL140 1 1/2 minute outbound speed for max range what's is a balanced field? - Correct Answer-when TODR equal ASDR TODR.- Distance required to get to screen height with engine failure at V1 ASDR - distance to stop the aircraft if rejected take off at V1 what is the difference between V1 and Vref? - Correct Answer- V1 after Vref as it accounts for reaction time what are the four main winds in Europe? - Correct Answer- Bora - northeasterly from Eastern Europe to NE Italy Scirocco - Southerly, from north africa to the Alps Fohn - warm dry southernly wind over the alps Mistral - cold northernly from the alps to Spain when is drag at its max - Correct Answer-Vmo/Mmo what is the difference between TODA and TORA? - Correct Answer-TODA is the length of the take-off run available + any clearway available for the aircraft to climb over. TORA is the physical length of the runway declared to be available and suitable for the ground run of an aircraft taking off. when does LDA start? - Correct Answer-50 ft about threshold Landing Distance available what are the 5 segments of the take off? - Correct Answer- ground roll - ends at Vlof First segment - starts screen height - gear retracted second segment - starts gear up - ends at acceleration alt third - min 400ft - finishes cleaned up final - starts cleaned up - ends MCT Max cruise thrust how much of the LDA can you use for a jet A? - Correct Answer-60% what is climb gradient - Correct Answer-% = T-D/W x 100 how much head and tail wind are we allowed to take into calculations? - Correct Answer-head = 50% Tail = 150% what is traffics load ? - Correct Answer-passengers + baggage + cargo + non revenue load what must Vr be of VMCA for jets? - Correct Answer-1.05 what's Is the ASDA? - Correct Answer-TORA + stopway zap fowler double slotted what is the critical angle of attack? - Correct Answer-The point at which the wing will stall. what are the times of useful conscious at FL180, 220 , 250, 300, 350, 400, 430, - Correct Answer-180 - 20-30 mins 220 - 10 mins 250 - 3-5 mins 300 - 1-2 mins 350 - 30 - 60 second 400 - 15 - 30 secs 430 - 10 secs what are the advantages and disadvantages of a swept wing - Correct Answer-advantages - increase Mcrit - increase in Mach Number in cruise - Greater stability in turbulence Disadvantages - Poor lift - high speed stall - speed instability at slow airspeeds wings tip stall how does a slat help to generate lift? - Correct Answer- increase wing camber increases wing surface reenergises the boundary layer why does span wise flow caused by swept wings help with increasing Mcrit - Correct Answer-part of the left is generated by span wise flow. spanwise flow doesn't accelerate what pressure do you get in a pitot tube - Correct Answer- total Dynamic + Static what is the time separation for wake turbulence for arriving aircrafts, following a Heavy or medium - Correct Answer- heavy - heavy = 2mins - 4nm heavy - medium = 2mins - 5 nm heavy - light = 3 mins - 6nm medium - light = 3 mins - 5nm following a heavy or a medium what are the take off separations due to wake turbulence - Correct Answer-same position = 2 min intermediate = 3 mins how do you work out the mean chord? - Correct Answer-wing area / wing span What is the angle of incidence? - Correct Answer-angle between the wing chord and the longitudinal axis what is the max time you should plan a takeoff alternate for? - Correct Answer-1 hour flying with one engine out what is the manoeuvring area at an airport? - Correct Answer- all surfaces used for takeoff landing and taxing - not apron what is the fuel procedure for an isolated airport? - Correct Answer-additional fuel of 2 hours normal cruise after arriving at destination + final reserves what is 273 Kelvin? - Correct Answer-0 degrees how long shouldn't you fly for after diving? - Correct Answer- 24 hrs 10m 48 hrs 10 m + what is a anabatic wind? - Correct Answer-a wind thats forced to rise up a mountain due to the surface of the mountain getting wind What is a katabatic wind? - Correct Answer-a wind that blows the mountain due the the surface getting cold and the cold air falling What is QFE and when is it used? - Correct Answer-Pressure at the official aerodrome elevation above MSL. It is used during visual circuits - gives height **What is the QNE altimeter setting? - Correct Answer-1013 - gives flight levels What is QNH and when is it used? - Correct Answer-Pressure at MSL, it is used for all flights below the transition altitude what is QFU? - Correct Answer-magnetic direction of runway in use what mach trim? - Correct Answer-its trim that adjusts for the pitching down caused by mach tuck how does bonding help prevent fires? - Correct Answer-sets all components to the same electrical potential what cat is a A320? - Correct Answer-Cat C VAT = 121-140 what are icing conditions - Correct Answer-temp below 10 degrees visible moisture what is flyby wire and what are the benefits? - Correct Answer-electronic signals are sent to actuators on the control surface saves weights allows precise handling what is the approach ban? - Correct Answer-1000ft must not continue unless RVR is above minima what is the procedure for radio failure - Correct Answer- squawk 7600 continue on last clearance for 7 mins then continue of filled flight plan aim to reach FAF as close to filed time what is the procedure for engine failure after V1? - Correct Answer-continue takeoff no actions below 400ft apart from gear up identify deal with problem what is a wheel shimmy - Correct Answer-oscillation of the tyre due to flexible side walls what are the different air masses? - Correct Answer-polar Maritime polar continental tropical maritime tropical continental artic What is the FADEC and its purpose. - Correct Answer-Full authority digital electrical control - receives aircraft and engine sensor information and determines the appropriate engine scheduling to operate the engine in all areas of the flight envelope. what are the limits of the green arc on the speed tape - Correct Answer-VNO VS1 what are some facts about the DA42 - Correct Answer-VN0 - 151 kts VNE - 188 VYSE - 85kts ILS speed - 100kts VX+VX = 79kts Cruise - 130kts - 80% power Max TOW - 1900kgs Max Landing -1800kgs Full Fuel - 95 per side 6 gallons an hour at cruise when can you descend on the glide path? - Correct Answer- once cleared for the approach within +- 5 degrees of localiser what is an isobar? - Correct Answer-points of equal pressure what are planning minima's - Correct Answer-always one worse than actual what is an inversion? - Correct Answer-a layer of warm air that is trapped by high pressure above and cold air below often cause poor vis and status clouds in the inversion what cause dutch roll? - Correct Answer-lateral stability stronger than directional stability wings roll what is the crew make up for the A320 and A321? - Correct Answer-A320 - 2 pilots 4 cabin crew A321 - 2 pilots 5 cabin crew What is cos(60 degrees)? - Correct Answer-0.5 what is Tan45? - Correct Answer-1 what is sin90? and Sin30? - Correct Answer-sin30 = 0.5 Sin90 = 1 what's are the 6 bus bars? - Correct Answer-emergency essential non - essential battery what is the minima DH for ILS Loc VOR/DME VOR NDB - Correct Answer-ILS Loc - 250ft VOR/DME - 250ft VOR - 300ft NDB- 300ft what is Vmd? - Correct Answer-minmum drag speed What is ECAM - Correct Answer-Electronic Centralised Aircraft Monitoring what does ETOPS stand for and what is it? - Correct Answer- Extended Twin Operations An operator has been granted permission to extend the alternate range to beyond 60mins single engine 60-180 mins A320 - 350nm what are the IFR flight levels - Correct Answer-360 - 179 degrees - ODD - 10,30,50 180 - 359 ~degrees - even -20,40,60 What is RVSM airspace? - Correct Answer-Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (FL 290-410). and Gain fuel saving and operating efficiency by flying at more fuel efficient FLs and on more user preferred routes. Equipment must be certified and crews qualified two independent alternators -must be within + or - 200ft of each other, two Air Data computers at least one autopilot with altitude maintaining function Altitude deviation alert system SSR Transponder mode C 2 long range navigation systems what power setting is assumed for VMCA and VMCG? - Correct Answer-take off power always the worse scenario when must the crew call either a pan or mayday for a fuel emergency? - Correct Answer-Pan - Maybe land with less than final reserve mayday - WILL land with less than final reserve why will a air driven artificial horizon indicate nose up during takeoff? - Correct Answer-due to the action of the pendulous vane What is a holdover time? - Correct Answer-The estimated length of time that deice/ anti-ice fluid will prevent the accumulation of ice/snow/frost on the aircraft. for 1 step the time starts at the beginning of the operation for 2 step it starts at the beginning of the second step what height above the ground will the GPWS work? - Correct Answer-50 - 2450 ft where is the EGT measured? - Correct Answer-turbine inlet Manoeuvre Blockage what are the frequency's for NAV, COM, ILS, VOR - Correct Answer-NAV- 108.000- 117.975 COM - 118.000- 136.975 ILS - 108.000 - 111.975 (odd) VOR - 108.000- 111.975 (even) what is the different between slip and skid? - Correct Answer- Slip - lateral force in a tun Skid - lateral force out of a turn what errors are a altimeter subject to? - Correct Answer- instrument pressure time - lag barometric density temperature blockage what are the weight categories for wake turbulence - Correct Answer-Heavy - 136,000kh + Medium - 136000kg - 7000 kg Light - <7000kg what colour are the REIL (Rwy end identification lights) - Correct Answer-green what will happen if the static port of a VSI becomes blocked? - Correct Answer-It will slowly move back to zero when is a RWY considered wet? - Correct Answer-when there is significant standing water and the surface is reflective what is a trough of low pressure associated with? - Correct Answer-Convergence causing increased cloud and precipitation will the stalling speed in crease or decrease for a fwd CG? - Correct Answer-Increase as more angle of attack will be required what does SAND mean regarding a magnetic compass in the southern hemisphere? - Correct Answer-a turn to the SOUTH when Accelerating, NORTH when Decelerating what does a shuttle valve do? - Correct Answer-allows fluid to flow through from one of two sources what percentage must the oxygen masks exceed the seats by? - Correct Answer-10% when must a aircraft be free of anti ice fluid? - Correct Answer-Take off what are seasons due to? - Correct Answer-and incline of the earth axis what does a bourdon tube measure? - Correct Answer- Pressure from which Flight Level are the crew required to have quick donning masks - Correct Answer-FL250 what errors is a mach metre subject to? - Correct Answer- pressure and instrument what type of fluid will give the longest hold over time? - Correct Answer-Type 2 fluid what must the non transgression zone (NTZ) be for parallel runways - Correct Answer-610 M min how do differential expansion tube work in a fire system? - Correct Answer-a tube with two wires in it expands to pull the wires together to create a circuit which triggers a warning. usually used in the engine cooling outlets to warn of engine over heat how do firewire systems work? - Correct Answer-it is a steel tube that contains an electrode core surrounded by temperature sensitive material the core has a positive coefficient of capacitance and the surrounding material has a negative coefficient of resistance/ as the temperature increases the resistance of the surrounding material decreases it allows a current to flow used in the engine housing how does a centrifugal compressor work? - Correct Answer- the air is sucked in through the air and accelerated outwards. the diffuser that surrounds it the slows it down compressing it together. before it leaves through the outlet what pressurises the hydraulic reservoirs? - Correct Answer- bleed air as the system requires a high pressure what fire extinguisher would you use on a brake fire? - Correct Answer-dry powder what does the GCB ( Generator Circuit Breaker) do? - Correct Answer-connects the generator to the appropriate busbar what converts DC to AC? and AC to DC? - Correct Answer-DC to AC - Invertor AC to DC - Transformer Rectifier Unit (TRU) why might you get a slightly higher oil pressure starting in very cold conditions - Correct Answer-the oil is more vicious ok as long as it returns to normal what conditions can you get carb icing? - Correct Answer- below +10 and visible moisture Signs - Gradual Drop in RPM - Engine Rough Running - Vibrations what is the HOT bus bar? - Correct Answer-one that is permanently connected to the battery as it has all the essential consumers on it which regards to passenger oxygen whats is the difference between 10,000ft and 13,000ft? - Correct Answer-above 13'000ft for more than 30 minutes you are required to have enough oxygen for ALL passengers between 13,000ft and 10,000ft you only need enough oxygen for 10 % of passenger how long must FDR's record data for? - Correct Answer-at least 10 hours what are the four parts of the OPs manual? - Correct Answer- Part A - General and Basic Information Part B - Aeroplane Operating Matters -General Info and Unit measures - Normal Procedures - Abnormal and Emergency Procedures - Performance - Flight Planning - Mass and Balance - Loading - Configuration Deviation List - MEL - Survival and Emergency Equipment including oxygen - Emergency Evacuation Procedures - Aeroplane systems Parts C - Route and Aerodrome Instruction Information Part D - training what must be ensured with regards to navigational equipment - Correct Answer-one failure doesn't affect another system working for an aircraft of 5700kg + how long must the artificial horizon work and be illuminated for by emergency power? - Correct Answer-30 mins what is the requirement to carry lift rafts when flying over water? - Correct Answer-120 mins or 400nm from land. for plane that can continue with its critical engine out. or 30 minutes/ 100nm for everyone else what point can't you continue the approach beyond if the RVR is below Minima? - Correct Answer-Outer marker - precision 1000ft - non precision you can always start the approach regardless of weather how long does a CVR (cockpit voice recorder need to record for if an aircraft was certified before 1998? - Correct Answer- the last 30 minutes after an incident, how long must an operator keep. the FDR and CVR data for? - Correct Answer-60 days what are the rules regarding visibility for SVFR? - Correct Answer-can not be commenced when vis is below 3k can not be concluded when below 1500m what are the limits on crew duty? - Correct Answer-190 duty hours in any consecutive 28 days 60 hours in any consecutive 7 days 900 block hours in a calendar year what are the three atmospheric cells? - Correct Answer- Hadley, ferrel, and polar What is convergence? - Correct Answer-when to air masses converge force the air upwards or down depending on the level what happens to the air around when water evaporates? - Correct Answer-decreases increases when it freezes or condenses what is the SALR and DALR? - Correct Answer-Saturated Air Lapse rate - 1.8 per 1,000ft Dry Air Lapse Rate- 3 per 1,000ft at what point is the operator no longer responsible for a passenger? - Correct Answer-once they have been admitted into the state what does the Y or Z designator on a air way indicate? - Correct Answer-Y - at or above FL200- all turns between 30-90 degrees shall be made within a 22.5 nm radius Z - at or below FL190 - all turns between 30-90 degrees shall be made within a 15 nm radius what does the F or G on a airway designator indicate? - Correct Answer-F - advisory service only G - information service only what is the signal to apply brakes or release them? - Correct Answer-apply engine brakes - arm in the air - open palm then clenched fist Release Brakes - arm in the air - clenched first - open palm what is the signal for chocks in place or chocks out? - Correct Answer-chocks in - ams out - then to the side chocks out - arms to the side then out what is the sign to start engines? - Correct Answer-left hand raise, with the number of fingers indicating the engine to start right hand circular motion what is the signal to shut down engines? - Correct Answer-arm across the high chest what are the visual flight rules? - Correct Answer-below 3000ft - clear of cloud , 5 vis above 3000ft - 1500m horizontally, 1000ft vertically, 5k vis above 1000ft - 1500m horizontally, 1000ft vertically, 8k vis visual flight rules regarding flying over a built up area. - Correct Answer-no less than 1000ft or able to glide clear 600m vertically what is the min required to be an CPL instructor? - Correct Answer-500 hours 200 IFR hours 200 hours instructing what hours are required to get your CPL? - Correct Answer- 150 flying hours 80 hours dual instruction 70 PIC 20 cross county 5 night hours 10 instrument hours what is a RWY vacated sign for? - Correct Answer-to indicate when you are out of the sensitive are for ILS or MLS who can assign an aircrafts registration number? - Correct Answer-state of registration or common marking registering authority what is a RWY end safety area? - Correct Answer-area of tarmac that allows for RWY over or under shoots what are the three cloud levels? - Correct Answer-Cirro - High - 16,500ft + Alto - Medium - 6,500ft - 23,000ft Low level - <6,500ft what are cumulus clouds an indication of? - Correct Answer- turbulence uplifting unstable air what does the thunderstorm symbol on a sig weather chart indicate? - Correct Answer-moderate/servere turbulence and moderate/servere icing how big and how long are micro burst? - Correct Answer-5km and 5 minutes what size supper cooled droplets are likely to be contained in large cumulus clouds? - Correct Answer-large by what distance should you try and avoid thunder storms by? - Correct Answer-below 20,000ft = 10nm above 20,000ft = 20nm how long is the full cycle of a CB? - Correct Answer-2-3 hours how is fog described? - Correct Answer-a reduction in visibility to less that 1,000ft meters due to water droplets in the air where does frontal fog occur in relation to the front? - Correct Answer-in front of the warm front at what temperature range is lighting strikes most likely in a CB? - Correct Answer-+10 to - 10 what is an anticyclone? - Correct Answer-an area of high pressure how many m2 are in a hectare? - Correct Answer-10000 what happens to the dew point before and after a warm and cold front? - Correct Answer-warm before - low why does wind flow parallel to the isobars? - Correct Answer- because the Coriolis force and pressure gradient are in balance. what clouds would you expect flying towards a warm front? - Correct Answer-At some 800 km CS, later AS, and at some 300 km NS until the front. what does departure mean in navigation terms? - Correct Answer-east/west distance between two points along a rhumb line What are meridians? - Correct Answer-Arcs that are formed around the globe between the North and South Poles great circles how are meridians displayed on a mercator chart - Correct Answer-parallel equally spaced straight lines how do rhumb lines on a mercator chart? - Correct Answer-as straight lines what is compass deviation - Correct Answer-the angle between compass north and magnetic north what increase the stall angle off attack between slats and flaps? - Correct Answer-slats what does ANDS mean for a compass? - Correct Answer- Acceleration North Deceleration South what does unos mean for a compass in the northern hemisphere? - Correct Answer-undershoot north - overshoot south what doe wing fences do? - Correct Answer-reduce span wise flow vortex generators can also be used what are the warnings of a GPWS? - Correct Answer-1. excessive sink rate 2 Excessive terrain closure 3 descent after take off or go around 4 unsafe proximity to terrain 5 descent below the glide slope what are the three types of parasite drag? - Correct Answer- Form, interference, and skin friction drag How long should you keep flight plans for? - Correct Answer-3 months what are the semi circular rules - Correct Answer-IFR 10s Even - 180 - 360 Odd - 0-180 VFR 5s Even - 180 -360 Odd - 0 - 180 what weight is a light aircraft? - Correct Answer-MTOW below 7000kg what speed should you fly in a hold below FL140? - Correct Answer-230kts how long is the caution zone of the runway? - Correct Answer- 600m red and white for 300 the all red for 300 what is the difference between a wet and contaminated runway - Correct Answer-wet = 25% covered by LES than 3mm of Water Contaminated = 25% covered by MORE than 3mm of Water.slush.snow what is the one on 60 rule? - Correct Answer-"If you allow your aircraft to drift 1° off track over a 60 nm distance then you will be 1 nm off your desired track" Miles off = (Degrees off X Distance Flown) / 60 how long do a tempo last for? - Correct Answer-during the TEMPO period the weather conditions will last for no more than a hour each and will be less than 50 % of the period When is convergence greatest? - Correct Answer-at the poles zero at the equator what is the difference between a great circle line and a rhumb line? - Correct Answer-a great circle is the shortest distance but the bearing is always changing a rhumb line the bearing remains the same why does the IAS indicate higher airspeed when approaching M-CRIT? - Correct Answer-because the shock waves forces some of the molecules to stop which suddenly increases the density of the air which causes compressibility errors what is the initial segment of a instrument approach? - Correct Answer-IAF (initial approach fix) to IF (intermediate fix) how long do you need to keep a aircraft tech log for? - Correct Answer-24 months where does a swept wing stall first and why? - Correct Answer-the wing tip due to the amount of span wise flow what is the screen height for a jet engine when wet? - Correct Answer-15 ft