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EFMB WRITTEN TEST EXAM QUESTIONS WITH COMPLETE
SOLUTIONS GUARANTEED PASS BRAND NEW 2025
The initial radiographic evaluation of a trauma patient begins with supine Anterior-Posterior (AP) chest and pelvis radiographs taken in the trauma bay usually with a(n) __________. - - CORRECT ANSWERS - >>>portable x-ray machine T/F: Computed Tomography scanning has been largely replaced by Cervical Spine Radiographic Evaluation (CSRE) and should only be performed when CSRE is unavailable. - - CORRECT ANSWERS - >>>FALSE. Cervical Spine Radiographic Evaluation (CSRE) has been largely replaced by Computed Tomography (CT) and should only be performed when a CT is unavailable. What is the lowest level of care equipped with a Computed Tomography (CT) Scanner? - - CORRECT ANSWERS - >>>Role 3 What is the lowest level of care equipped with a portable x-ray machine? -
- CORRECT ANSWERS - >>>Role 2 Members of the trauma team should have __________ aprons and thyroid shields available near the trauma bay for radiation safety. - - CORRECT ANSWERS - >>>lead Distance is also protective from radiation exposure. If feasible based on the patient's condition, any personnel without lead shielding should move a short distance away from the x-ray unit. The recommended minimal distance is __________ feet. -
- CORRECT ANSWERS - >>>Six (6) While the FAST scan has been validated only in hemodynamically unstable blunt trauma patients, it has become a standard tool in the trauma bay and Emergency Department (ED) in most trauma patients. FAST stands for __________. - - CORRECT ANSWERS - >>>Focused Abdominal Sonographic Assessment for Trauma FAST in combat trauma has a sensitivity of only 56% and and specificity of __________. - - CORRECT ANSWERS - >>>98%
When performing a FAST examination on a patient, you inspect the left upper quadrant. You are inspecting between which two (2) organs? -
- CORRECT ANSWERS - >>>Spleen & Kidney An 18g __________ IV is typically desired for Computed Tomography IV access. - - CORRECT ANSWERS - >>>antecubital T/F: The goal of Computed Tomography (CT) contrast injection is to provide concurrent solid organ enhancement, arterial enhancement, and pulmonary arterial. - - CORRECT ANSWERS -
TRUE T/F: When performing Computed Tomography (CT) scan on a Military Working Dog, utilize a scanning protocol based on the adult settings to include the doses of and rates of contrast administration. - - CORRECT ANSWERS - >>>FALSE. Utilize a scanning protocol based on the pediatric settings to include the doses of and rates of contrast administration. T/F: All patients evacuated through casualty evacuation should have images sent electronically ahead of time as well as have a CD created to send with the patient as a backup. - - CORRECT ANSWERS - >>>TRUE
T/F: Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) is widely used in theater, as its utility in the acute management of combat trauma was extensively established during Operation Enduring Freedom. - - CORRECT ANSWERS - >>>FALSE. While Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) has been deployed to theater in the past, its utility in the acute management of combat trauma has not been established. All trauma patients arriving at a Role __________ hospital will receive proper and expeditious radiologic screening of injuries.
- CORRECT ANSWERS - >>> Section 2: Aural Blast Injury Acoustic Trauma & Hearing Loss - - CORRECT ANSWERS - >>>- T/F: Patients exposed to hazardous noise are only at risk for aural trauma. - - CORRECT ANSWERS - >>>FALSE. Service Members exposed to hazardous noise is impact noise or noise greater than 140 dB are at high risk for acoustic trauma and subsequent hearing loss. Patients exposed to blasts are at risk for both aural and acoustic trauma. The symptoms of acoustic trauma are: - - CORRECT ANSWERS -
- Hearing Loss 2. Tinnitus (Ringing in the Ear)
Acute management of intratemporal facial nerve injury is to provide objective documentation of facial movement using the __________ grading scale. -
- CORRECT ANSWERS - >>>House-Brackmann T/F: For significant facial pareses/paralyses, early administration of steroids must always be provided regardless of contraindications. - - CORRECT ANSWERS - >>>FALSE. Early administration of steroids should be provided if not contraindicated, and referral for management by an otolaryngologist is indicated. Which inner ear abnormalities may cause vertigo? - - CORRECT ANSWERS - >>>1. Otic Capsule Violating Temporal Bone Fractures 2. Secondary Infections of the Inner Ear or Vestibular Nerves 3. Trauma Induced Endolymphatic Hydrops 4. Activation of Subclinical Super Semicircular Canal Dehiscence "OSTA" All Service Members that develop symptoms consistent with noise trauma (acute tinnitus, muffled hearing, fullness in the ear) should... - - CORRECT ANSWERS - >>>...be educated and
directed to self-report for evaluation and possible treatment as soon as practicable. What is the best course of action if you find debris in the External Auditory Canal (EAC) or in the middle ear (as seen through a TM perforation)? - - CORRECT ANSWERS - >>>Treat the patient with a fluoroquinolone and steroid containing topical antibiotic (e.g., four (4) drops of ciprofloxacin/dexamethasone or ofloxacin in the affected ear three (3) times a day for seven (7) days. Do not irrigate the ear as it may provoke pain and vertigo. Hearing loss that persists __________ hours after acoustic trauma warrants a hearing test or audiogram. - - CORRECT ANSWERS - >>>72 hours T/F: Vestibular trauma to the inner ear may manifest in vertigo.
- CORRECT ANSWERS - >>>TRUE All patients with subjective hearing loss and tinnitus following blast exposure should... - - CORRECT ANSWERS - >>>...have the exposure documented, and should be evaluated by hearing testing as soon as possible
address any life threatening bleeding, airway compromise, or tension pneumothorax as directed by Tactical Combat Casualty Care guidelines. Do not debride blisters until the patient has reached a facility with surgical capability. Cover burns with loose, DRY gauze wraps or a clean sheet. Calculate a burn patient's initial burn size using the Rule of __________. -
- CORRECT ANSWERS - >>>Nines Which type of burn is NOT included in the estimation of Total Body Surface Area (TBSA) used for fluid resuscitation? - - CORRECT ANSWERS -
Superficial Burns (1st Degree) Which classification of burns appear red, do not blister, and blanch readily? - - CORRECT ANSWERS - >>>Superficial Burns (1st Degree) Which classification of burns are moist and sensate, blister, and blanch? - - CORRECT ANSWERS - >>>Partial Thickness Burns (2nd Degree) Which classification of burns appear leathery, dry,
nonblanching, are insensate, and often contain thrombosed vessels? - - CORRECT ANSWERS - >>>Full Thickness Burns (3rd Degree) What is the Rule of 10s burn fluid resuscitation equation? (Ensure You Can Apply It) - - CORRECT ANSWERS - >>>Use the Rule of Tens to Determine Fluid Requirements for the First 24 Hours Post-Burn. 10 mL/hr x %TBSA > 40kg and < 80kg. If > 80kg, Add 100 mL/hr to IV fluid rate for Every 10 kg > 80kg For Children, 3 x TBSA x Body Weight (kg) gives the Volume for the First 24 Hours For children suffering burn injuries, __________ x Total Body Surface Area (TBSA) x Body Weight (kg) gives the volume for the first 24 hours of fluid resuscitation. - - CORRECT ANSWERS -
T/F: A hypotonic solution is the preferred resuscitation fluid for a burn patient. -
Definitive care for U.S. Service Members suffering from burn injuries is provided at __________ - - CORRECT ANSWERS -
USAISR Burn Center in San Antonio, Texas T/F: Early ambulation and physical therapy is critical to the long-term functional outcome in burn patients. Once postoperative dressings are removed, perform range of motion of all affected joints. - - CORRECT ANSWERS - >>>TRUE __________ is the most common infectious complication with pediatric burn patients and usually presents within five (5) days of injury. - - CORRECT ANSWERS - >>>Cellulitis A patient has suffered burn injuries to the entire anterior torso (chest and abdomen), the anterior and posterior of both arms, and the anterior of his face and neck. Calculate the patient's initial burn size using the Rule of Nines. -
- CORRECT ANSWERS - >>>Anterior Torso - 18% Anterior & Posterior of Both Arms - 4.5% x 4 = 18% Anterior of Face & Neck - 4.5% Total of 40.5% A patient has suffered burn injuries to anterior and posterior legs and the perineum. Calculate the patient's initial burn size using the Rule of Nines. -
- CORRECT ANSWERS - >>>Anterior Legs - 9% x 2 = 18% Posterior Legs 9% x 2 = 18% Perineum = 1% Total of 37% A patient has suffered burn injuries to the anterior of her face, neck, and torso (chest and abdomen). Calculate the patient's initial burn size using the Rule of Nines. - - CORRECT ANSWERS - >>>Anterior Face & Neck - 4.5% Anterior Torso - 18% Total of 22.5% Section 4: Military Working Dogs - - CORRECT ANSWERS - >>>- T/F: In addition to providing immediate care to preserve life, limb, or eye sight when veterinary personnel are not available, human healthcare providers are also responsible for providing routine medical, dental, or surgical care to Military Working Dogs in combat or austere areas of operation. - - CORRECT ANSWERS - >>>FALSE. Routine medical, dental, or surgical care is NOT to be provided by Human Healthcare Providers (HCPs). The __________ is the best person to control the Military Working Dog; they have the most accurate information about
The arterial pulse of a Military Working Dog is best palpated at the __________ artery on the medial aspect of the proximal thigh in the inguinal area, or at the dorsal metatarsal artery on the dorsal aspect of the proximal hind paw. -
- CORRECT ANSWERS - >>>femoral Pulse oximetry probes used for people (typically finger probes) are best placed on the __________ for optimal reliability in unconscious, sedated, or anesthetized dogs. - - CORRECT ANSWERS - >>>tongue What are the three (3) characteristic breathing patterns typically displayed in Military Working Dogs in respiratory distress? - - CORRECT ANSWERS - >>>1. Parenchymal 2. Restrictive 3. Obstructive "PRO" When performing a tracheostomy on a Military Working Dog, make a transverse incision completely through the __________ ligament. - - CORRECT ANSWERS - >>>annular
While placing an endotracheal tube in a Military Working Dog, you palpate the dog's neck and feel two (2) tubes. This indicates that the endotracheal tube is in the dog's __________. - - CORRECT ANSWERS - >>>esophagus When performing cardiopulmonary resuscitation on a Military Working Dog, begin sustained, forceful chest compressions with the MWD in lateral recumbency (on either side) at a rate of __________ compressions per minute. Sustain compression for at least 2-3 minutes per cycle. - - CORRECT ANSWERS -
T/F: If single-person cardiopulmonary resuscitation is performed on a Military Working Dog, the responder should only perform ventilation, as this optimizes circulation. - - CORRECT ANSWERS - >>>FALSE. The responder should only perform chest compressions, as this optimizes circulation. T/F: Conventional human tourniquets applied to the limb of a Military Working Dog are an unreliable intervention to effectively control hemorrhage. - - CORRECT ANSWERS - >>>TRUE. Tourniquets are unreliable on the limbs of dogs due to the anatomic shape of the leg.
Chest - 18% Abdomen - 18% Each Forelimb - 9% Each Hindlimb - 9% 9% + 18% + 18% = 45% For PO supplementary analgesia for an injured Military Working Dog, administer __________ 5-10ml/kg PO q8-12h for up to five (5) days. - - CORRECT ANSWERS - >>>Tramadol Section 5: Whole Blood Transfusion - - CORRECT ANSWERS -
How long can whole blood collected in the anticoagulant CPD be stored? -
- CORRECT ANSWERS - >>>21 Days at 1-6°C How long can whole blood collected in the anticoagulant CPDA- 1 be stored? - - CORRECT ANSWERS - >>>35 Days at 1-6°C If stored at room temperature, fresh whole blood must be destroyed if not used within what time period? - - CORRECT ANSWERS - >>>24 Hours of Collection
T/F: The most important safety consideration in transfusing whole blood is that donor red blood cells be compatible with the recipient to avoid acute hemolytic transfusion reactions (a.k.a., major mismatch) - - CORRECT ANSWERS - >>>TRUE How often SHOULD titer and transfusion transmitted disease retesting be conducted? - - CORRECT ANSWERS - >>>Every 90 Days In order to mitigate the risk of transfusion-associated acute lung injury (TRALI), the Armed Services Blood Program collects whole blood from everyone EXCEPT:
- CORRECT ANSWERS - >>>1. Pregnant Females
- Females Testing Positive for Anti-HLA Antibodies __________ is the preferred resuscitation product for the prehospital treatment of patients in hemorrhagic shock. - - CORRECT ANSWERS - >>>Whole blood, and in particular, Low Tier O-Whole Blood (LTOWB) Storage lesion describes the degradation of the red blood cells (RBC) involving the loss of what? - - CORRECT ANSWERS -
membrane plasticity, diphosphoglycerate, adenosine
