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EFMB Written Test FY23 100% VERIFIED CORRECT ANSWERS 2024/2025, Exams of Nursing

EFMB Written Test FY23 100% VERIFIED CORRECT ANSWERS 2024/2025

Typology: Exams

2023/2024

Available from 08/20/2024

SUPERIORSCORES
SUPERIORSCORES 🇺🇸

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Download EFMB Written Test FY23 100% VERIFIED CORRECT ANSWERS 2024/2025 and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!

EFMB Written Test FY23 100%

VERIFIED CORRECT ANSWERS

2024/

The initial radiographic evaluation of a trauma patient begins with supine Anterior- Posterior (AP) chest and pelvis radiographs taken in the trauma bay usually with a(n) _______________________ Portable x-ray machine. True/False: Computed Tomography scanning has been largely replaced by cervical spine radiographic evaluation (CSRE) and should only be performed when CSRE is unavailable False, CT is superior to radiographic CSRE What is the lowest level of care equipped with a Computed Tomography scanner? Role 3 What is the lowest level of care equipped with a portable x-ray machine? Role 2 Members of the trauma team should have ___________ aprons and thyroid shields available near the trauma bay for radiation safety. lead True/False: Patients exposed to hazardous noise are only at risk for aural trauma. False, hazardous noise = acoustic trauma The symptoms of acoustic trauma are Hearing loss, tinnitus (ringing in the ear), aural fullness, recruitment (ear pain with loud noise), difficulty localizing sounds, difficulty hearing in a noisy background, and vertigo

Acoustic trauma may result in sensorineural hearing loss (SNHL) that is either temporary or permanent The ear, specifically the , is the most sensitive organ to primary blast injury. tympanic membrane True/False: The smaller the size of the tympanic membrane perforation, the greater the likelihood is of spontaneous closure. True What are indications for endotracheal intubation during your initial burn survey?

40% TBSA due to swelling, comatose, symptomatic inhalation injury, deep facial burns Burn casualties with injuries greater than _____ Total Body Surface Area (TBSA) are at high risk of hypothermia 20% True/False: When providing point of injury care to a burn patient, you must immediately debride blisters and cover burns with loose, moist gauze wraps or a wet clean sheet False, Do not debride blisters until the patient has reached a facility with surgical capability Calculate a burn patient's initial burn size using the Rule of 9s, head, arms = 9%, 9%, 9% Torso = 36% Legs = 18%, 18% Which type of burn is NOT included in the estimation of Total Body Surface Area (TBSA) used for fluid resuscitation? First degree or superficial burns True/False: In addition to providing immediate care to preserve life, limb, or eye sight when veterinary personnel are not available, human healthcare providers are also responsible for

providing routine medical, dental, or surgical care to Military Working Dogs in combat or austere areas of operation False, not routine care The is the best person to control the Military Working Dog; they have the most accurate information about past medical problems and the current situation, and they have first aid training and can assist in care dog handler ________ is the normal temperature (rectal) range for a Military Working Dog at rest. 101 - 103 ______ is the heart/pulse rate range for a Military Working Dog at rest 60 - 80 True/False: The normal blood pressure for a Military Working Dog at rest is systolic 120 mmHg/diastolic 80 mmHg True How long can whole blood collected in the anticoagulant CPD be stored? 21 days, 35 days if in CPDA- 1 How long can whole blood collected in the anticoagulant CPDA-1 be stored? 35 days

  1. If stored at room temperature, fresh whole blood must be destroyed if not used within what time period? 24 hours True/False: 1. The most important safety consideration in transfusing whole blood is that donor red blood cells be compatible with the recipient to avoid acute hemolytic transfusion reactions. True
  1. How often SHOULD titer and transfusion transmitted disease retesting be conducted? 90 days True/False: Infection Prevention in Combat-related Injuries standard precautions apply to all patients, regardless of suspected or confirmed infectious status. True The World Health Organization's "five moments of hand hygiene" include
  2. Use of soap/water or alcohol sanitizer before contact.
  3. Before aseptic tasks.
  4. After bodily fluids exposure risk.
  5. After patient contact.
  6. After contact with patient surrounds even if gloved What are Infection Prevention in Combat-related Injuries standard precautions? Hand washing, gloves, gowns, masks, goggles or face shield True/False: When implementing infection prevention measures in a combat zone, cohorting is the process of clustering host nation patients (who are not eligible to evacuate from theater) and U.S. and coalition patients (who are eligible for evacuation from theater) and separate when possible to reduce the risk of cross-contamination with multi-drug resistant organisms True ________ and ________ should be worn with all patients suspected or known to have multi-drug resistant organism colonization or infection with C. difficile- infection (CDI). gloves, gowns What substance is NOT a highly water soluble irritant?

oxides of nitrogen and phosgene (highly = acrolein, sulfur dioxide, hydrogen chloride, and ammonia) Treatment for chlorine inhalation includes Skin decontamination, supplemental oxygen as necessary, beta agonists and ARDS ventilatory techniques Which chemical irritant has a sweet, pleasant smell of mown hay? Phosgene Which chemical irritant may produce a severe cough with laryngospasm when exposed to high concentrations? Phosgene Which chemical irritant smells like rotten eggs? Hydrogen Sulfide Deglycerolized Red Blood Cells are derived from _____ ml of whole blood collected inCitrate/Phosphate/DextroseorCitrate/Phosphate/Dextrose/Adeninecollectionbags 450 - 500 Red Blood Cells are stored for up to 6 days at 1 - 6 °C before being frozen in a cryoprotectant (40% w/v glycerol), and stored in the frozen state at minus 65 °C or colder for up to 10 years True/False: Each unit of deglycerolized red blood cells (DRBCs) should be considered equivalent to a fresh unit of RBCs since they are frozen within 6 days of collection and have a 14-day shelf-life upon deglycerolization True What are the clinical indications for use of each unit of deglycerolized red blood cells (DRBCs)? to supplement liquid RBCs during surge periods of increased transfusion requirments How long does it take to thaw frozen red blood cells in a plasma thawer?

35 minutes How long does it take to thaw frozen red blood cells in a 42°C water bath? 45 minutes Optimal but not necessarily definitive patient stabilization before transport is critical and encompasses four connected elements. What are these elements? Injuries must be controlled, resuscitation must be optimized and ongoing, treatments other than resuscitation should be at steady state, deterioration requiring intervention en route must be anticipated and risks mitigated prior to departure True/False: Medical capability is the quality or state of being able to provide the expected and required medical services and support to the casualty True ___________ transport is required when "the patient has a critical illness or injury that acutely impairs one or more vital organ systems such that there is a high probability of imminent or life- threatening deterioration in the patient's condition during transport." Critical Care The gold standard for unstable patient transport is movement with critical care capability led by a ____________ who is qualified, experienced, and proficient at critical care transport. physician True/False: Intermediate en route care should be initiated for a patient that does not require critical care but is in need of a dedicated medical attendant with at least the knowledge and skills equivalent to a paramedic as defined by the National Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Scope of Practice Model True True/False: The Acute pain service (APS) should be established and be an integral part of casualty care starting at the Role I. False, Role 3

True/False: Sedation should be optimized as a priority over pain control False. Pain control over sedation Adjuncts can greatly increase patient safety and the effectiveness of narcotics to treat pain while reducing side effects. What are examples of adjuncts? Acetaminophen, ketamine, NSAIDS, CRIs, epidurals If is it not feasible to incorporate the acute pain service (APS) team into trauma rounds, then the APS is responsible for __________ pain rounds, pain management consults, and reports to the trauma team leader. daily What are standardized and validated scoring systems for the assessment of pain, anxiety, and delirium? DoD/VA Pain Rating Scale, Richmond Agitation Sedation Scale (RASS), Confusion Assessment Method (CAM) During debridement, extremity wounds should be extended longitudinal During debridement, truncal wounds should be extended along Langer's lines Due to their heavy contamination and the diminished healing capacity, how long should the closure of blast wounds be avoided after the injury occurs? 48 hours Assurance of ___________ and removal of all nonviable skin, fat, fascia, muscle, and bone are essential to reduce the load of contamination and necrotic tissue prior to dressing application hemostasis All methods of wound irrigation are adjuncts and not substitutes to what?

sharp surgical debridement Propelled explosive devices impaled in a casualty usually consist of Propulsion system trigger mechanism main explosive charge True/False: All retained ordnance impaled in a patient should be considered "armed" or activated to a degree that final triggering of the fuse would cause the ordnance to explode. True True/False: Only enemy patients require an initial inspection in order to find and remove all weapons and ammunition prior to entry into a transport vehicle or treatment facility. Friendly patients should not have their treatment delayed False, everyone Safe removal of impaled UXO's require significant coordination with local security, base command element, and EOD As the common impaled ordnance types have a number of variants, the __________ can provide advice on specific concerns to prevent arming and detonating the device. EOD specialist What device is best described as a portable blood analyzer? I-STAT ___________ is defined as a pathology or laboratory test that is performed at the site of clinical interaction, in a non-laboratory setting, allowing immediate decision regarding treatment. Point of Care (POC) testing True/False: While using an i-STAT device, one of the most important environment factors that medics must always be cognizant of are extremes in ambient temperatures/exposure to extreme temperatures can render results inaccurate.

True What are lab values the i-STAT can measure? Troponin I, electrolytes, blood gas, urea, creatinine, glucose, i CA, INR The results from the i-STAT are generally available in minutes or less. 10 A provider of prolonged field care must first and foremost be an expert in TCCC True/False: Hypothermia risk is high in burn patients. Anticipate that all burn casualties will become hypothermic and take immediate measures to prevent it by covering patient. Aggressively rewarm if temperature falls below 36°C (96.8°F). True Burns covering greater than _____ % of the total body surface area (TBSA), or those with smoke inhalation injury (and airway or breathing problems), are life threatening

20% All patients with burns covering greater than _____ % total body surface area (TBSA) shouldbeintubatedbecausetotal-bodyswellingwilltendtoobstructtheairway 40% What is the MINIMUM recommendation regarding airway management when providing prolonged field care for a burn patient? Cricothyroidotomy, ketamine, ambu bag with positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) valve The ultimate mechanism of cold injury involves these combination of factors: Direct cold injury to cells, direct intra and intercellular ice formation, ischemia from thrombosis, and reperfusion injury

True/False: Increased rates of frostbite occur at extreme high altitude secondary to ambient temperature increases and microcirculatory changes that occur at altitudes less than 17,000 ft. False, greater than 17,000 ft True/False: All patients with identified cold injury should be considered trauma patients first to identify other life threatening injuries. True What must be established prior to making the diagnosis of cold injury? Normothermia A patient is experiencing a superficial skin injury; pain on re-warming, numbness, hyperemia, occasional blue mottling, swelling and superficial desquamation. Classify the degree of cold injury the patient is suffering from First A Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 13-15 indicates a traumatic brain injury (TBI) severity classification of: mild A Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 9-12 indicates a traumatic brain injury (TBI) severity classification of: moderate A Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 3-8 indicates a traumatic brain injury (TBI) severity classification of Severe True/False: In no circumstance should a neurologic examination take priority over measurement of the optic nerve sheath diameter, and all results must be considered in the context of the neurologic examination and overall patient status. False, other way around

True/False: Visualizations of spontaneous venous pulsations with an opthalmoscope can reassure the provider that intracranial pressure (ICP) is not critically elevated. True What are the steps of retrieving a drowning victim in a body of water? Reach with an object from safety, throw an object, row a smaller craft if too far to throw, tow them, go into the water Once you get a drowning victim on land, you call for additional help and ensure the victim's head and feet are at the same level. The victim is unconscious and not breathing. What is your next step? 5 rescue breaths, then 30:2 compression to breaths. (breathing first is different than norm True/False: The Heimlich maneuver is no longer recommended for drowning True Consider ____________ as many drowning patients swallow water prior to inhaling and between 60 - 80% will vomit at some point during recovery or resuscitation. gastric decompression When do you terminate resuscitation efforts in the field for a drowning victim? 30 mins into CPR True/False: Initial care of the CBRN casualty should be approached in the same manner as other casualties True In a CBRN situation, ______ and ______ is the foundation for further management, and is key not only for initiating patient treatment but also for preventing contamination of medical personnel, equipment, and facilities early recognition, categorization

In a high-threat environment due to a CBRN attack, what military-issued personal protective equipment (PPE) should personnel be aware of? Respiratory and skin stuff. What is a CBRN evacuation planning consideration when incorporating a Military Treatment Facility (MTF)? Time it takes to refuel in a MASCAL, as well as distance from decon site and MTF What is the first priority to be coordinated when a CBRN attack has occurred? security The hallmark clinical presentation ____________ of that leads to diagnosis is tissue hypoxia without cyanosis with the finding of metabolic acidosis. Cyanide True/False: When a victim has been exposed to cyanide in a gas form, clothing should be remove before evacuation from location. False What should be done before decontaminating a patient who has been exposed to cyanide with irrigation solutions? Treatment with antidote For a patient that has been exposed to cyanide, the mainstay of treatment is antidote therapy with ________. hydroxocobalamin If the preferred cyanide antidote is not available, the _________ can be used. cyanide antidote kit When performing nursing intervention during prolonged field care, personnel must flush saline locks with 10ml of normal saline at least every _____ hours.

In order to prevent ischemic tissue injury and the formation of pressure sores on patients who cannot reposition themselves, nursing staff must reposition the patient and check padding every _____ hours. 2 True/False: Burned and injured extremities should be slightly elevated and rigidly straight to optimize venous return and maintain adequate peripheral pulses False, elevated but slightly flexed True/False: Lip moisturizer is included in the "minimum" recommendation for oral care during prolonged field care True Patients who are conscious and able should brush their teeth a minimum of every ______ hours. For unconscious patients, perform oral care at least every ______ hours. 12, 4 True/False: Prolonged Field Care is intended for use prior to Tactical Combat Casualty Care guidelines when evacuation to higher level of care is not immediately possible False, after TCCC Completion of the prolonged field care AAR will contribute greatly to performance improvement to develop training, tools, and techniques for improving the care of casualties in austere environments. AAR stands for after action report What is the minimum recommendation for documentation during prolonged field care (PFC)? DD1380 TCCC card What is the most useful tool to recognize important clinical changes in complex casualties such as decompensation, response to resuscitation, development of complications, effectiveness of medications, etc.?

PFC flowsheet When prehospital care transitions to prolonged field care, documentation should transition from the to the TCCC (DD 1380), PFC Flowsheet What are the major snakebite syndromes? Neurotoxic, hemotoxic, cytotoxic What are the major signs and symptoms of a neurotoxic snakebite? Bilateral ptosis, descending paralysis, dypsnea/AMS What are the major signs and symptoms of a hemotoxic snakebite? Coagulopathy (VICC), local bleeding, systemic bleeding What are the major signs and symptoms of a cytotoxic snakebite? Severe pain, progressive edema, tissue destruction True/False: When treating a snake bite patient, identifying the snake species will not change your patient care True What are criteria used to predict the need for a massive transfusion using the assessment of blood consumption score? Penetrating mechanism, pos FAST, BP of less than 90, HR greater than 120 True/False: Blood product usage can be optimized when hemorrhage control is undertaken simultaneously True True/False: Rapid transfusion of blood can cause sheering of RBCs and should be avoided if possible True

True/False: In low titer group O whole blood, the titer of Anti-A and Anti-B antibodies is low enough to represent minimal risk of clinical consequences, and may be considered a universal donor True Blood products should be transfused in a plasma:platelet:RBC ratio of 1:1: True/False: Anaphylaxis from an arthropod envenomation is not an indication for antivenom. True A patient has a chief complaint of abdominal muscle spasm. You notice a pair of small red spots that appears to be a bite. The patient states he did feel a pinprick at that same site about an hour ago. The patient also states the pain started at that site, but is more concern with his abdominal pain. More than likely the patient is suffering from what? Widow Spider Bite True/False: You have a patients with significant symptoms that meet indications for antivenom, but has a history of asthma. You can still give one 2.5 milliliter vial of antivenom dissolved in one 2.5 milliliter vial of sterile water intravenously. False. Asthma is like a fatal reaction to antivenom When patients do have significant symptoms meeting indications for antivenom you can administer 2.5ml vial dissolved in 2.5 ml water IV Loxosceles reclusa is a venomous spider more commonly known as what? Brown Recluse, Violin Spider, or Fiddleback Spider Distance is also protective from radiation exposure. If feasible based on the patient's condition, any personnel without lead shielding should move a short distance away from the x-ray unit. The recommended minimal distance is 6 feet

While the FAST scan has been validated only in hemodynamically unstable blunt trauma patients, it has become a standard tool in the trauma bay and Emergency Department (ED) in most trauma patients. FAST stands for Focused Abdominal Sonographic Assessment FAST in combat trauma has a sensitivity of only 56% and specificity of 98% True/False: The FAST exam remains the most sensitive test for hollow viscus injury and mesenteric injury. False, Diagnostic Peritoneal Lavage (DPL) True/False: At the Role 3, properly trained providers including radiologists, surgeons, and emergency physicians, can perform and interpret FAST scans in the emergency department on a hand held portable device True A FAST examination is performed with a portable hand-held machine most commonly using a standard 3-7 MHz curved array__________ probe US The standard FAST examination is focused on evaluating for the presence of ____________________ in certain areas of the body free intraperitoneal fluid When performing a FAST examination on a patient, you inspect the right upper quadrant. You are inspecting between which two organs? Liver and Kidney When performing a FAST examination on a patient, you inspect the left upper quadrant. You are inspecting between which two organs? Spleen and Kidney

An 18g __________________ IV is typically desired for Computed Tomography IV access. antecubital True/False: The goal of Computed Tomography contrast injection is to provide concurrent solid organ enhancement, arterial enhancement, and pulmonary arterial True True/False: When performing Computed Tomography scan on a Military Working Dog, utilize a scanning protocol based on the adult settings to include the doses of and rates of contrast administration False, based on pediatric settings True/False: All patients evacuated through casualty evacuation should have images sent electronically ahead of time as well as have a CD created to send with the patient as a backup. True True/False: Magnetic Resonance Imaging is widely used in theater, as its utility in the acute management of combat trauma was extensively establishment during Operation Enduring Freedom False, used in past, not widely, has not been established yet. All trauma patients arriving at a ______________ will receive proper and expeditious radiologic screening of injuries Role 3 The majority of tympanic membrane perforations that close spontaneously do so within the first ____________ after injury 8 weeks Acute management of intratemporal facial nerve injury is to provide objective documentation of facial movement using the __________ scale House-Brackmann

True/False: For significant facial pareses/paralyses, early administration of steroids must always be provided regardless of contraindications False, if NOT contraindicated Which inner ear abnormalities may cause vertigo? Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo BPPV) Damage to sensitive neuroepithelial rests within the inner ear, Perilymphatic fistula, Otic capsule violating temporal bone fractures, Secondary infections of the inner ear or vestibular nerves, Trauma induced endolymphatic hydrops, Activation of subclinical superior semicircular canal dehiscence. All Service Members that develop symptoms consistent with noise trauma (acute tinnitus, muffled hearing, fullness in the ear) should: Be educated and directed to self-report for evaluation and possible treatment as soon as practicable What is the best course of action if you find debris in the external auditory canal or in the middle ear? Treat the patient with a fluoroquinolone and steroid containing topical antibiotic (4 drops of ciprofloxacin or dexamethasane), DO NOT IRRIGATE Hearing loss that persists ________ hours after acoustic trauma warrants a hearing test or audiogram. 72 True/False: Vestibular trauma to the inner ear may manifest in vertigo True All patients with subjective hearing loss and tinnitus following blast exposure should Have the exposure documented, and should be evaluated by hearing testing as soon as possible

Patients with TTS greater than __________ losses in three consecutive frequencies should be considered candidates for high dose oral and/or transtympanic steroid injections when not otherwise contraindicated 25 dB Which classification of burns are moist and sensate, blister, and blanch? Partial thickness (Second degree) Which classification of burns appear red, do not blister, and blanch readily? Superficial (First degree) Which classification of burns appear leathery, dry, non-blanching, are insensate, and often contain thrombosed vessels? Full thickness (Third degree) What is the Rule of 10s burn fluid resuscitation equation? Initiate manual intravenous fluid resuscitation 10mL/Hr x %TBSA PT weight >80kg(160-175lbs) +100mL/hr for every 10kg over 80kg for children suffering burn injuries, ______x TBSA x body weight in kg givers the volume for the first 24 hours of fluid resuscitation 3 True/False: A hypotonic solution is the preferred resuscitation fluid for a burn patient False, isotonic True/False: both under- and over- fluid resuscitation of burn patient can result in serious morbidity and even mortality; patient who receive over 250mL/kg in the first 24 hours are at increased risk for severe complications including acute respiratory distress syndrome and both abdominal and extremity compartment syndromes. True

At 8-12 hours post-burn, if the hourly IV fluid rate exceeds 1500 mL/hr or if the projected 24 hour total fluid volume approaches 250mL/kg, initiate 5% ___________ infusion for an adult burn patient. Albumin For children 4-7mL/kg @rate of 0.5mL/min continue for 48 hours What are clinical signs of inhalation injury? Progressive voice changes Soot about the mouth/nares Hypoxia Shortness of Breath definitive care for US service members suffering from burn injuries is provided at ____________ USAISR Burn Center in San Antonio, TX True/False: Early ambulation and physical therapy is critical to the long-term functional outcome in burn patients. Once post-operative dressings are removed, perform range of motion of all affected joints. True _____________ is the most common infectious complication with pediatric burn patients and usually present within 5 days of injury Cellulitis A patient has suffered burn injuries to the entire anterior torso (chest and abdomen), the anterior and posterior of both arms, and the anterior of his face and neck. Calculate the patient's initial burn size using the Rule of 9s 40.5% A patient has suffered burn injuries to the anterior and posterior legs and the perineum. Calculate the patient's initial burn size using the Rule of 9s. 37%

A patient has suffered burn injuries to the anterior of her face, neck and torso(chest and abdomen). Calculate the patient's initial burn size using the Rule of 9s. 22.5% Use the ______________ vein for long-term fluid therapy, large volume fluid delivery, and repeated blood sampling on Military Working Dogs External jugular True/False: When introducing a catheter into a Military Working Dog, it is acceptable to create a small skin nick over the intended catheter insertion site to facilitate penetration of the dog's thick skin True The arterial pulse of a Military Working Dog is best palpated at the _______________ artery on the medial aspect of the proximal thigh in the inguinal area, or at the dorsal metatarsal artery on the dorsal aspect of the proximal hind paw. femoral Pulse oximetry probes used for people (typically finger probes) are best placed on the______________for optimal reliability in unconscious, sedated, or anesthetized dogs Tongue What are the 3 characteristic breathing patterns typically displayed in Military Working Dogs in respiratory distress? Obstructive Restrictive Parenchymal When performing a tracheostomy on a Military Working Dog, make a transverse incision completely through the ____________ ligament annular

While placing an endotracheal tube in a Military Working Dog, you palpate the dog's neck and feel 2 tubes. This indicates that the endotracheal tube is in the dog's _____________ esophagus When performing cardiopulmonary resuscitation on a Military Working Dog (MWD), begin sustained, forceful chest compressions with the MWD in lateral recumbency (on either side) at a rate of _____ compressions per minute. Sustain compression for at least 2- 3 minutes per cycle 100 True/False: If single-person cardiopulmonary resuscitation is performed on a Military Working Dog, the responder should only perform ventilation, as this optimizes circulation. False, Chest compressions over ventilation True/False: Conventional human tourniquets applied to the limb of a Military Working Dog are an unreliable intervention to effectively control hemorrhage. True Calculate the approximate safe but effective crystalloid bolus volume for a 55 pound Military Working Dog experiencing signs and symptoms of shock 550mL (add a zero to lbs) True/False: Gastric Dilation-Volvulus Syndrome (GDV) in Military Working Dogs occurs when the stomach rapidly dilates with fluid, food, and air and then rotates along the long axis (volvulus). When volvulus develops, the esophagus and duodenum become twisted, preventing the passage of stomach contents True Hypothermia in Military Working Dogs caused by low body temperature due to trauma, toxicity, underlying illness, or anesthesia and surgery is classified as ___________________ hypothermia Secondary Calculate the estimated percent of total body surface area burned on a Military Working Dog suffering from burns to the head, neck, chest, and abdomen.

45%

For PO supplementary analgesia of an injured Military Working Dog, administer _______________ 5 - 10ml/kg PO q 8-12h for up to 5 days. Tramadol In order to mitigate the risk of transfusion-associated acute lung injury (TRALI), the Armed Services Blood Program collects whole blood from everyone EXCEPT: Pregnant or having been pregnant females _____________ is the preferred resuscitation product for the pre-hospital treatment of patients in hemorrhagic shock. LTOWB Storage lesion describes the degradation of the RBC involving the loss of what? membrane plasticity True/False: Fresh whole blood (FWB) is FDA-approved and is intended or indicated for routine use. False, NOT FDA-apporved and not intended for routine use. Fresh whole blood is to be used only when Other blood products cannot by delivered at an acceptable rate to sustain the resuscitation of an actively bleeding patient When specific stored products are not available When stored products are not adequately resuscitating a patient with immediately life-threatening injury True/False: Fresh whole blood should routinely be collected from pre-screened donors as a way to maintain a routine inventory of Walking Blood Bank - Stored whole blood products False In general, whole blood units should not be collected form donors more frequently than every ________ weeks

True/False: In situations where there are a limited number of donors and a dire need for blood, no more than three units may be taken from a single donor. False, no more than two units may be taken from a single donor is there a known contraindication to using whole blood in pediatric casualties? No A massive transfusion in children is defined as _______ mL/kg. 40 Daily __________________of ICU patients has shown a reduction of infections with vancomycin- resistant enterococci (VRE) and methicillin-resistant staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). bathing True/False: Antimicrobial drug usage have no impact on the development of multidrug-resistant organisms. False True/False: All facilities should avoid unnecessary empiric use of broad spectrum antibiotics True True/False: Prolonged duration of prophylaxis have been shown to decrease long term rates of infections in patients with combat-related open fractures. False Blast injuries, especially those related to ________________, present a unique bloodborne pathogen risk if an impaled body part is introduced into the trauma patient suicide bomb True/False: the risk of transmission of human immunodeficiency virus is considered very high after blast injury and generally warrants immediate action regardless of the region of operation.

False for a patient that sustained injuries for a suicide bomber, testing for Hepatitis B virus (HBV) and human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) should be obtained _______________ and up to six months post-exposure at exposure which role of care should have a designated infection prevention and control officer? Role 2 and 3 All facilities responsible for trauma care should monitor adherence to _______________________ as listed in the Joint Trauma System guidelines for infection prevention after combat-related injuries and present rates to provider regularly. Antimicrobial prophylaxis regimes Which chemical irritant produces a "knockdown" effect, a sudden loss of consciousness, when exposed to high concentrations? Hydrogen Sulfide Which chemical irritant forms a strong base which can cause mucosal irritation, severe upper airway irritation, and alkali skin burns when reacting with water? Ammonia The triad of severe cyanide toxicity consists of: Hypotension, Altered mental status, Lactic acidosis Which of the following is the most commonly available antidote for cyanide poisoning? Hydroxocobalamin True/False: High index of suspicion must be present when treating patients exposed to carbon monoxide as elevates CO may be present despite normal PaO2 and SpO2.