Emergency Medical Care for Cardiac and Respiratory Conditions, Exams of Nursing

Download Emergency Medical Care for Cardiac and Respiratory Conditions and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! EMT Final Written: Multiple Choice Which one of the following medications should the EMT administer orally? A) Aspirin B ) Alubterol C) Nitroglycerin D) Epinephrine - a Which one of the following medical emergencies would most likely result in the use of epinephrine by the EMT? A) Slow heart B) Cardiac Arrest C) Best sting D) Asthmatic episode - c Which one of the following is one of the basic five rights of medication administration? a) Right dose b) Right allergies c) Right EMT d) Right physician - a The label on your patient's prescribed metered-dose inhaler reads as follows: "Administer three puffs as needed for shortness of breath." Your protocol states that you can only assist with two puffs. The patient is extremely short of breath. You should: a. Not administer the medication b. Administer two puffs c. Administer three puffs d. Contact medical direction - D You suspect that a patient involved in a MVA is in shock. Which one of the following signs and symptoms of shock will be observed last? A) Decreased blood pressure B) Pale and diaphoretic skin C) Increased respirations D) Tachycardia - a The EMT shows he understands the use of an EPI pen for a treating a patient with an anaphylactic reaction when he makes which one of the following statements? A. "The EPI pen should never be used if the patient has developed the allergic reaction after eating chocolate" B. "It is critical that the EMT identify the cause of the allergic reaction prior to administering epinephrine through the auto-injector" C. "Epinephrine administered through an auto-injector can be used for all severe allergic reactions, regardless of the cause" D. "The epinephrine auto-injector is used only when a patient is stung by a bee or suffers an insect bite" - c In which situation must the EMT contact medical direction prior to administering epinephrine for someone who is having an allergic reaction? A. Her heart rate is 144 bpm. B. She is hypertensive and bradycardic. C. The patient is not prescribed an EPI pen. D. She has an allergy to chocolate or eggs. - C A panicked and anxious patient informs you that he is allergic to peanuts and think he might have accidentally eaten some. He states that the last time he ate the peanuts he had to have a tube put in his throat and almost died. When assessing the patient, which one of these signs and symptoms would show that he is having an allergic reaction? A. Hives on his chest B. Elevated blood pressure C. Increased respiratory rate D. Cool and clammy skin - A On arrival to a parking lot tailgate, you observe a crowd around a young man who is seizing. As you get equipment from the ambulance and make your way to the patient, his friends tell you that the patient has been up all night "partying" by drinking alcohol and snorting cocaine. At the patient's side, you note that he is no longer seizing, but he is unresponsive and has snoring respirations. His respirations are labored at 16 per minute and his radial pulse is strong. His skin is cool and diaphoretic. Friends also inform you that he is a diabetic and about an hour ago they heard him say A. Give him oral glucose. B. Test him for a gag reflex. C. No care is required. Just encourage him to eat. D. Have the patient give himself an insulin injection. - A A man tells you that he can't awaken his wife, who you find lying on the couch. He explains that she takes pills for diabetes. You find the patient to be unresponsive to painful stimulus. Your first action should be to: A. Give oral glucose. B. Start chest compressions. C. Open and maintain her airway. D. Assess sensory and motor function in her toes. - C What are the classic signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia? A. Warm, dry skin; hunger; abdominal pain; deep rapid respirations B. Warm, dry skin; irritability; bradycardia; rapid respirations C. Cold, clammy skin; bradycardia; hunger; deep, rapid respirations D. Cool, clammy skin; abnormal behavior; tachycardia; rapid respirations - C A known diabetic patient is found on the floor next to his bed. His speech is slurred, and he is unable to tell you his name. His wife states that she hasn't been able to get him to eat much for several days. What should your care include? A. Give him oral glucose. B. Insert an oropharyngeal airway. C. Have him drink a glass of juice. D. Assist him with taking his insulin. - A Pain felt at a location other than its origin its: A. Transferred pain. B. Transposed pain. C. Remote pain. D. Referred pain - d Which of the following is NOT a characteristic sign or symptom of acute abdomen? A. Pain. B. Tenderness. C. Rapid deep breathing. D. Abdominal distention. - B A ruptured ectopic pregnancy: A. Occurs in the last trimester. B. Usually presents with mild mid-menstrual-cycle back pain. C. Is retroperitoneal and therefore does not cause acute abdomen. D. Is a life-threatening emergency. - D A 35 year old woman, 32 weeks' gestation, reports increased swelling in her hands and feet the last week and now complains of a sudden, intense headache. Her vital signs are as follows: pulse of 92/min; respirations of 24/min; and blood pressure of 144/92 mm Hg. You are concerned she has: A. Hypertensive syndrome. B. Pre-eclampsia. C. Eclampsia. D. Vitamin B12 deficiency - b You have delivered an infant who is not breathing. After suctioning and physical stimulation, there are no respirations. You should: A. Administer free-flow oxygen. B. Clamp and cut the umbilical cord. C. Provide ventilations at a rate of 40 to 60/min. D. Start chest compressions at a rate of 60/min. - C You rapidly transport a patient who is at full term and presenting with a prolapsed cord. The patient is best placed: A. On her left side. B. In the prone position C. Head up with her feet down. D. In Trendelenburg's position. - A When a baby's head has delivered, you should immediately: A. Apply vaginal pads to the perineal area to reduce the blood loss. B. Massage the mother's uterus by kneading it to speed up delivery of the baby's body. C. Insert a sterile gloved hand into the vagina to relieve pressure around the baby's neck. D. Check the location of the umbilical cord and suction the mouth and nose. - D The fontanels are areas of the skill that have not fused together. These fontanels provide a window to the brain when assessing children with a suspected head trauma. The anterior fontanel closes at what age? 1-2 months of age 12-18 months of age 2-3 years of age 13-18 years of age - c To clear a complete airway obstruction to a foreign body in an unresponsive, the correct technique would be: A. Continuous abdominal thrusts until the airway is cleared B. A repeat series of back blows and abdominal thrusts until the airway is clear C. A repeat of back blows, chest thrusts, and airway evaluation until the obstruction is cleared D. A repeat series of back blows chest thrusts, and blind fingers until the airway is cleared. - d A person is considered to be a Toddler between the ages: A. 1 year to 3 years B. 6 months to 5 years C. 18 months to 3 years D. 1 year to 2 years - A Which of the following regarding circulation in infants is true? A. Cap refill provides accurate information regarding circulatory status C. All respiratory structures are proportionally smaller and more easily obstructed D. The epiglottis is smaller and located behind the esophagus - C Which portion of the heart is in failure when the heart can no longer effectively pump blood into the lungs? A. Left Atrium B. Left Ventricle C. Right Ventricle D. Pulmonary Vein - C A paramedic tells you that a patient with a probable spinal injury still retains his plantar reflexes. As a knowledgeable EMT, you should understand that the patient has reflex activity in what part of the body? A. Hands B. Feet C. Arms D. Fingers - B Which one of the following anatomical statements is true? A. The head is proximal to the elbow B. The shoulder is distal to the hand C. The hip is distal to the knee D. The knee is proximal to the ankle - D You have been called to assist a pediatric physician, a pediatric nurse, and a respiratory therapist in the transfer of a two week old baby who is very sick. The baby will be taken from a community hospital and transferred in an isolette to a large metropolitan teaching hospital in a nearby city. The isolette is secured to the stretcher, and the stretcher is loaded into the ambulance. The physician, nurse, and respiratory therapist will provide all patient care. Prior to departing the hospital, it is essential that you: A. Advise the family of the baby's critical condition B. Make sure that the stretcher is secured to the ambulance C. Mix and prepare medications needed for transport D. Disinfect the outside of the isolette. - B An EMT is correct when he describes an infectious disease as: A. Any of a number of diseases that are deadly once contracted B. A disease that can be spread from one person to another C. Any of a number of diseases that is caused and spread by a virus D. A disease for which no immunization or treatment exists - B Which one of the following statements made by an EMT shows that he has an accurate understanding of hepatitis C? A. "It is important to get the hepatitis C vaccine to decrease your chance of contracting the disease if exposed B. "Wearing gloves and washing hands are the best means by which to prevent the transmission of hepatitis C to healthcare workers" C. "Since hepatitis C is primarily transmitted in the spring and summer, more precautions are needed during this time" D. "Respiratory droplets are the primary means by which hepatitis C is transmitted, making a mask necessary" - B When the diaphragm and intercostal muscles relax, which one of the following occurs? A. Inhalation B. Release C. Inspiration D. Exhalation - D Which of the following best describes the goal of a trauma system? A. Providing all trauma patients with a complete battery of diagnostic tests and access to specialists B. Providing the highest level of care possible within a 10-minute transport time for all patients C. Transporting as many patients as possible by air medical transportation D. Getting the right patient to the right facility in the right amount of time - D Which of the following statements concerning trauma is true? A. A "spider web" or "starring" pattern of cracks on the windshield means the patient impacted the windshield with his head B. Falls are the leading cause of trauma deaths C. Multi-system trauma has a higher mortality rate than single-system injuries D. Mechanism of injury is the best predictor of patient outcome - C Another crew has called for your assistance in extricating an obese male with a nosebleed from a third floor bedroom. As you enter the room, which one of the following shows proper management of the patient's condition? A. The patient is supine, head turned to the side, blood draining from the nose and mouth, cold pack to bridge of nose B. The patient is lying on his side, a loose dressing has been applied below his nose, and a cold pack is on the bridge of his nose C. The patient is sitting upright, leaning forward, with nostrils pinched shut D. The patient is sitting upright, head tilted back, sterile gauze packed in each nostril - C Severe external bleeding should be controlled during what phase of patient assessment? A. Rapid secondary assessment B. Reassessment C. Primary assessment D. Scene size-up - C A 51-year-old male was burned in the face after a steam valve was accidentally opened. His face is red and swollen, and he is screaming in pain. He also states that he is having a hard time seeing. Which one of the following is the EMT's priority priority concern in caring for this patient? A. Airway compromise B. Loss of vision C. Facial disfigurement D. Pain management - a The EMT's 32-year-old patient was in a motor-vehicle collision. Which assessment finding should the EMT recognize as potentially life threatening? A) Dislocation of two fingers on the left hand B) Open fracture to the right forearm C) Deformity of the left femur Early in your assessment of the 56 year old male who presents with chest pain, you take his radial pulse. This is a very important vital sign because, if the heart is beating too fast or too slow, the patient with cardiac compromise may also: A. have stomach pain B. lose consciousness C. have a seizure or convulsion D. have right sided weakness - b You are evaluating a 59 year old female patient who you suspect may be exhibiting the signs and symptoms of an acute coronary syndrome. Her signs and symptoms may include any of the following except: A. difficulty breathing and abnormal pulse rate B. sudden onset of sweating with nausea or vomiting C. sharp lower abdominal pain and a fever D. pain in the chest of upper abdomen - C. You are treating a 62 year old male patient who is complaining of crushing substernal chest pain and shortness of breath. His pulse is fast, BP is high, and pulse oxygen is in the low 90's. The EMT management of the patient with a suspected acute coronary syndrome should include all of the following except: A. placing the patient in the position of comfort B. administering high concentration oxygen by non-rebreather mask C. administering high-flow oxygen by a nasal cannula D. assisting the patient with nitroglycerin administration if medical direction authorizes - C What is the typical position of comfort that you should consider using for a 62 year old male patient who is complaining of crushing substernal chest pain and shortness of breath. His pulse is fast, BP is high, and pulse oxygen is in the low 90's. A. fowler B. supine C. prone D. lying down with knees bent - A. All of the following potential acute coronary syndrome patients are candidates for immediate transport except a patient with: A. no history of cardiac problems B. a history of cardiac problems, who does not have nitroglycerin C. prescribed nitroglycerin D. a systolic blood pressure of less than 90 - C You should consider using nitroglycerin when the 65 year old female patient: A. is hypertensive and has a headache B. has her own nitroglycerin and has crushing chest pain C. loses consciousness after feeling dizzy D. has chest pain for over 5 minutes and is hypotensive - B Which of the following is the best description of the role of medical direction in the treatment of a 55 year old male who you suspect is having an acute coronary syndrome? A. authorizing the EMT to administer oxygen via nonrebreather mask B. prescribing nitroglycerin that the EMT can then assist the patient in taking C. authorizing the EMT to assist the patient in taking his prescribed nitroglycerin D. contacting the patient's physician to ensure that the patient's nitroglycerin prescription is not out of date - C A patient is complaining of chest pain. In order for the EMT to administer nitroglycerin, all the following conditions must be met except: A. medical direction should authorize its administration B. the patient's physician should have prescribed the medication C. the patient's blood pressure is lower than 100 systolic D. the patient's blood pressure is greater than 100 systolic - C The maximum number of doses of nitroglycerin routinely given by the EMT with medical control permission, or taken by the patient at the advice of his physician, is: A. one B. two C. three D. four - C If the patient's blood pressure falls below 100 systolic after the EMT has administered nitroglycerin, the EMT should: A. administer another dose of nitroglycerin B. reassess the patient's vital signs C. treat for shock and transport promptly D. do all of these - C Nitroglycerin is contraindicated for the patient who has: A. an obvious head injury and altered mental status B. a systolic blood pressure of 110 C. not yet taken the maximum dose D. been complaining of pain for at least 20 minutes - A You are treating a 62 year old male patient who has a chief complaint of chest pain. You are considering administering aspirin to the patient. Of the following considerations, which would not be pertinent to administering this medicine? A. the patient has allergies B. there is a history of asthma C. the patient has taken Viagra D. the patient is on anti-clotting meds - C You have administered aspirin to the patient with chest pain per your protocols. The patient has his own prescribed nitro and a stable BP, so you decide to assist him in administering one of his nitro pills. After administering the nitroglycerin, it is important for you to: A. immediately administer the next dose B. discontinue the oxygen therapy C. reassess the vital signs D. lay the patient down - C Unfortunately, nearly ____ of the patients who experience a cardiac arrest within 2 hours of the onset of symptoms have no previous history of cardiac problems. A. 10 percent B. 25 percent C. 60 percent D. 80 percent - B Your 70 year old female patient has a cardiovascular disorder that stems from weakened sections in the arterial walls. These weak spots begin to dilate to form a condition that is known as a(n): A. thrombosis B. aneurysm C. inflammation D. infarction - B You are treating a 55 year old male patient who has a history of three past MIs and angina. Due to his difficulty breathing and normally sedentary lifestyle, you suspect he may be experiencing congestive heart failure. CHF is a(n): A. clotting of the coronary artery B. condition in which excessive fluids build up in the lungs and/or other organs C. infection in the heart that makes it difficult to oxygenate the blood D. chronic lung condition that requires a low concentration of oxygen administration - B Damage to the left ventricle and blood backing up into the lungs usually presents in the form of: A. pedal edema B. pulmonary edema C. fibrinolyitics D. diaphoresis - B You are treating a 59 year old male patient whose wife called EMS because he had difficulty breathing and was acting anxious and confused. He is diaphoretic and cyanotic, and his vitals are rapid respirations, tachycardia, and hypertension. He has swollen ankles and is coughing up pink sputum. What do you suspect is wrong with the patient? A. he is having an asthma attack B. he is having an acute myocardial infarction C. he has CHF as well as right heart failure D. he is in the end stages of his emphysema - C You just treated a 17 year old male who was struck in the chest with a baseball and went into sudden cardiac arrest. you medical director says that you did a good job on the call but this was not the typical cardiac arrest victim. Who is the typical cardiac arrest victim? A. a male in his sixties B. a female in her forties C. a male in his seventies D. there is no pattern to cardiac arrest - A The single most important factor in determining survival from cardiac arrest is: A. nitroglycerin administration B. training middle aged and older people in CPR C. early high-quality CPR D. early defibrillation - D If the response time from the moment a call is received to arrival of the defibrillator is longer than ____ minutes, virtually no one survives a cardiac arrest. A. 6 B. 8 C. 10 D. 12 - B When treating a cardiac arrest patient and there is no ALS unit in the community, the EMT should: A. discontinue resuscitative efforts and pronounce the patient dead B. package quickly, provide high quality CPR and transport to the closest hospital C. call for ACLS from another town and wait for its arrival D. continue to provide CPR at the scene until the patient regains a pulse - B To manage a patient in cardiac arrest, the EMT should provide high quality CPR as well as do all of the following except: A. use a bag-valve-mask device with oxygen B. use an automated external defibrillator C. request advanced life support backup (when available) D. administer epinephrine via IV - D Which of the following steps in not necessary for the EMT to take when using a fully automated defibrillator? A. assess the patient B. turn on the power C. put the pads on the patient's chest D. press the button to deliver the shock - D The primary electrical disturbance resulting in cardiac arrest is: A. asystole B. ventricular fibrillation C. ventricular tachycardia D. pulseless electrical activity - B The shockable rhythms include all of the following except: A. asystole and PEA B. ventricular fibrillation C. pulseless ventricular tachycardia D. ventricular tachycardia - A A nonshockable rhythm that can be the result of a terminally sick heart or severe blood loss is called: A. pulseless electrical activity B. ventricular tachycardia C. pulseless ventricular tachycardia D. ventricular fibrillation - A You are treating a 27 year old female who has a condition that you suspect has been brought about by a decrease in insulin production. This condition is known as: A. diabetes mellitus B. hypotension C. hypoglycemia D. stroke - A Your patient has a history of diabetes. You were called to her home because her family noticed her mental status was altered. The most common medical emergency for the diabetic patient is called: A. diabetes mellitus B. hypotension C. hypoglycemia D. stroke - C You are treating a diabetic patient who seems to have overdone his exercise routine today. He is a little confused about where he is and the day of the week. The most likely medical condition he has developed is called: A. hypoglycemia B. hyperglycemia C. diabetes mellitus D. acute pulmonary edema - A The hypoglycemia that EMT's see in the field has many causes. Which of the following is not a cause of hypoglycemia? A. the patient may have taken too much insulin by mistake B. the patient ate a box of candy too fast C. the patient has been vomiting D. the patient has been fasting - B If sugar is not replenished quickly for the diabetic patient who has developed hypoglycemia, the patient: A. may have permanent brain damage B. may go into pulmonary edema C. will have chest pain D. can live off his internal sugar supply for up to 2 weeks - A You are treating a patient who is unconscious for an unknown reason. The clues that a patient is a diabetic include all of the following except: A. a medical identification bracelet B. the presence of insulin in the refrigerator C. low fat food in the freezer D. information provided by family members - C In the patient with an altered mental status, the EMT should always consider _____ before proceeding with the secondary assessment and transport. A. hypothermia B. an airway or breathing problem C. that the patient may have had a seizure D. internal blood loss - B An intoxicated appearance and uncharacteristic behavior are typical of: A. shock B. dehydration C. cardiac arrest D. diabetic emergency - D Your patient has a history of diabetes and takes medication by injection daily. Diabetics often present the EMT with all of the following signs and symptoms except: A. cold, clammy skin B. decreased heart rate C. anxiety D. combativeness - B For the EMT to consider administering oral glucose, the patient must have an altered mental status, have a: A. history of diabetes, and be awake enough to swallow B. prescribed medication, and have an absent gag reflex C. history of seizures, and be awake D. Medic Alert tag that says "diabetic," and have a head injury - A You are treating a diabetic patient who has low blood sugar., as documented by a glucometer. When reassessing the patient after you administered oral glucose, you note the patient's condition has not improved. What action should you take? A. call the patient's personal physician B. give glucose in orange juice C. consult medical control about whether to administer more glucose D. administer oxygen by nasal cannula - C When it is time to transport the diabetic patient who does not responding to painful stimuli, which position is most appropriate? A. supine B. prone C. recovery D. fowler's - C Which statement about children with diabetes is most correct? A. children are more likely than adults to eat correctly B. children are less likely than adults to exhaust blood sugar levels C. children are more at risk than adults for developing hypoglycemia D. children have a greater risk for medical emergencies than do adults - C Which of the following would most likely indicate an alteration in the patient's blood sugar level? A. right lower abdominal pain B. nausea and vomiting C. change in mental status D. rigid abdomen or palpation - C You are responding to a call for a 37 year old male patient who has had a seizure. Convulsive seizures may be seen with: A. epilepsy or hypoglycemia B. hyperventilation or AMI C. anaphylaxis or pulmonary embolism D. hyperglycemia or asthma - A You are interviewing the family members of a patient who just had a seizure. The best known condition that results in seizure is: A. a stroke B. epilepsy C. measles D. eclampsia - B Most members of the general public associate a ___ seizure with epilepsy. A. generalized tonic clonic B. complex partial C. simple partial D. idiopathic - A When obtaining the medical history of a seizure patient, interview the bystanders to find out all of the following except: A. how long the seizure lasted B. what the patient did after the seizure C. what the patient was doing prior to the seizure D. what the family's reaction was to the seizure - D You are treating a patient who is actively seizing. He is rapidly becoming cyanotic. After convulsions end, what action should you take? A. wait for the patient's color to return to normal B. place a nonrebreather mask with oxygen on the patient C. provide artificial ventilations with supplemental oxygen D. monitor the pulse closely for 2 minutes - C. On your arrival at the scene, you notice that a bystander has placed a tongue blade in the corner of a seizure patient's mouth. What should you do? A. begin oxygen therapy with a nonrebreather mask B. carefully remove the object form the patient's mouth C. immobilize the patient on a long spine board D. immediately transport the patient to the hospital - B A seizure will normally last about ____ minutes. A. 1 to 3 B. 4 to 6 C. 7 to 10 D. 30 - A You are treating an elderly patient who has just had two back to-back seizures without regaining consciousness. This is a serious condition called ____ and the treatment will include ____. A. repeating seizure; ventilation B. status epilepticus; ALS meds C. status asthmaticus: the recovery position D. convulsions; oxygen administration - B. If you suspect a conscious 49 year old female has had a stroke, you should transport in the ____ position and pay close attention to her ____. A. recovery; heart rate B. supine; breathing rate C. prone; skin color D. semi sitting; airway - D. When assessing your 53 year old male patient, you determining he is having difficulty saying what he is thinking even though he clearly understands you. This condition found in stroke patients is called: A. receptive aphasia B. expressive aphasia C. miscommunication D. confusion - B. When assessing your 42 year old female patient, you determine that she can speak clearly but cannot understand what you are saying. This is called: A. expressive aphasia B. hyperactivity C. receptive aphasia D. petit mal seizure - C Your patient is a suspected stroke patient. A common sign you would expect to find in this patient is: A. tingling in both legs B. diminished urine flow C. low blood pressure D. headache - D You are treating a 58 year old male patient who you suspect maybe having a stroke. The signs and symptoms this patient presents with might include: A. vomiting B. seizures C. loss of bladder control D. all of these - D The 62 year old male patient who presented with a number of the signs and symptoms of a stroke was take to the ED yesterday. When talking with your Medical Director about the call, he tells you that the signs and symptoms were completely resolved within the past 24 hours. this patient was most likely suffering a(n): A. altered mental status (AMS) B. transient ischemic attack (TIA) C. acute myocardial infarction (AMI) D. hypoglycemic incident - B B. first C. second D. third - A. You are treating a male patient in his forties who has a chief complaint of abdominal discomfort. He denies any difficulty breathing yet has vital signs consistent with a patient in shock or hypoperfusion. You should: A. transport him in the Semi Fowler position B. administer 10-15 lpm oxygen by non-rebreather mask C. apply a cervical collar and long spine board D. contact medical direction for permission to assist the patient with their nitroglycerin - B When a 61 year old male patient tells you that he has a tearing sensation in the back and denies any recent injury, the EMT should suspect: A. an acute appendicitis B. kidney stone C. abdominal aortic aneurysm D. a flare up of pancreatitis - c Your 35 year old female patient is experiencing a severe and sudden epigastric pain that seems to radiate to the shoulder. She says that it gets worse when she eats. Of the choices below, which is the most likely cause? A. Ectopic pregnancy B. Cholecystitis C. A hernia D. Renal colic - B. You are assessing a 25 year old male who has no primary survey problems but is writhing in pain. He just cannot seem to find a comfortable position form his pain in the lower back and flank. What would you suspect is his most likely problem? A. Peritonitis B. A hernia C. AAA D. Renal colic - D. You have responded to the local high school physical education center where a 17 year old male is complaining of lower abdominal pain. On palpation, he has a lump he is concerned about. Because this came on suddenly during exercising, what do you suspect it could be? A. a tension pneumothorax B. a hernia C. a spontaneous embolism D. an AAA - B. Your 55 year old male patient called the ambulance because he has been feeling weak and dizzy most of the day. He states that she has no chest pain or difficulty breathing, but he is nauseated and has had very dark colored diarrhea all day. What do you suspect is his most likely problem? A. an acute myocardial infarction B. an abdominal aneurism C. a bleeding ulcer D. food poisoning - C. Physical causes of altered behavior include all of the following except: A. inadequate blood flow to the brain B. mind altering substances C. excessive heat or cold D. differing lifestyles - D Your 56 year old male patient is exhibiting altered behavior tanging from irritability to altered mental status. This behavior can be due to any of the following except: A. lack of oxygen B. head trauma C. hypoactivity D. hypoglycemia - C. The functions of our blood include all of the following except: A. removal of oxygen from the cells B. control of bleeding by clotting C. delivery of waste products to the kidneys and the liver D. removal of carbon dioxide from the cells - A. The medical specialty concerned with the blood disorders is called: A. nephrology B. neurology C. hematology D. histology - C. A component of the blood that is critical to the body's response to infection is called: A. red blood cells B. platelets C. white blood cells D. hemoglobin - C. A component of the blood that is designed to aggregate as a response to a bleeding injury is called the: A. red blood cells B. platelets C. white blood cells D. hemoglobin - B. The liquid in which the blood cells and platelets are suspended is called: A. interstitial fluid B. plasma C. lymph D. coumadin - B. The 45 year old male patient you are assessing tells you that he has a history of chronic anemia. He is pale and complains of fatigue. This condition could be due to: A. recurrent heavy menstrual periods D. all of these - D The most commonly transported organ(s) is (are) the: A. kidney B. liver C. heart D. spleen - A. You are treating a 58 year old female who states that she is not feeling well after returning home from her dialysis treatment. Each of the following is a complication of dialysis except: A. development of an aortic aneurism B. bleeding form the sire of the AV fistula C. clotting and loss of function of the A-V fistula D. a bacterial infection of the blood - D When attempting to distinguish a spinal injury from a stroke, the EMT should remember that: A. stroke typically results in weakness or paralysis to one side of the body B. spinal injuries always result in weakness to one side of the body C. stroke usually causes weakness to all extremities, spinal injuries do not D. stroke does not cause paralysis, while spinal injuries typically do - A. Which of the following describes typical signs and symptoms of a transient ischemic attack (TIA)? A. temporary, lasting less than 15 min B. severe and permanent C. mild but permanent D. persistent, lasting at least several hours - A. You have been called to a longterm care facility for a 77 year old female who was found unresponsive in her wheelchair. The nurse reports that the patient complained of a headache earlier in the day and was given 600mg of Motrin. Your assessment shows her to be unresponsive with a patent airway. Her lips are cyanotic and your parter reports the following: pulse 44, respirations 6, BP 228/116. What should you do next? A. start positive pressure ventilations B. attach a pulse oximeter and get a SpO2 reading C. perform a Cincinnati Stroke Test D. check the patient's blood glucose level - A. Your patient is unresponsive. Which piece of information given to you by the patient's family is most important to the EMT in relation to possible stroke? A. "he forgot to take his blood thinner last night" B. "he took some ibuprofen last night for a fever and cough" C. "we think that he drank too much last night" D. "we noticed him acted oddly around 7pm" - D. Assessment reveals a drooling 48yo male to have gurgling speech and left arm paralysis. The emts immediate priority is to: A. determine risk factors for stroke B. determine the time of onset C. suction the airway D. protect the left arm - C. How would you transport a seizure patient who may have a spinal chord injury? A. lateral recumbent position with c-collar in place B. semi-sitting position with a c-collar in place C. supine on the stretcher with straps loosely applied D. immobilized on a spine board with a c-collar in place - D As a general rule, a postictal patient should be placed on the stretcher and transported in what position? A. Supine B. Lateral recumbent C. Prone D. Semi Fowler's - B. You are called to a residence to assess a child. The panicked parents state that their 3yo son was playing with his brother when he suddenly "blacked out" and would not respond to them for several seconds. When asked, they deny convulsing like movements as well as a history of medical problems. Based on this description, you would be suspicious of what type of seizure? A. Febrile B. Absence C. Grand mal D. Simple partial - B. When performing a secondary assessment on a confused patient, which of the following signs would be most suggestive of a seizure? A) pinpoint pupils B) bleeding tongue C) warm skin D) bruises to the arms - B You have just arrived by the side of a male patient who is in cardiac arrest. EMRs have been on the scene for 6 minutes performing CPR. ALS has been contacted and is 1 minute out. Which one of the following should you do immediately? A. place the patient on the stretcher so ALS can provide care en route B. check the heart rate, BP and SpO2 C. apply and use the automated external defibrillator D. continue CPR and wait for ALS care - C. Your patient is a 67yo male who has chest pain. After assisting with his nitroglycerin, his chest pain remains a 7 out of 10 and he is still diaphoretic. His vitals are pulse 72bpm, respirations 18, BP 82/60, and SpO2 97% on 2 lpm of oxygen. To the present, the patient has taken two nitroglycerin tablets. You should: A. transfer him to the stretcher and transport B. administer a third nitroglycerin tablet C. administer half a nitroglycerin tablet D. increase oxygen to 4 lpm - A. The three primary components of the cardiovascular system are best described as: When assessing a patient with an an anaphylactic reaction, which of the following findings would you expect? A. rapid and strong carotid pulse B. normal to slightly increased BP C. slow and bounding radial pulse D. weak radial pulse - D. The spleen of a patient has ruptured. Because it is a solid organ, the emt recognizes that the primary threat to life is: A. blood loss B. inflammation C. pain D. infection - A. A 26yo with hemophilia fell in his garage, cutting his arm on a nail protruding from a door frame. EMRs are on scene holding a blood soaked towel on his right forearm. He is alert and oriented with a pale complexion. They report the following: pulse 98, respirations 18, BP 142/66, SpO2 99% on room air. Your initial priority in caring for this patient is: A. immediate transport to the hospital B. providing supplemental O2 C. stopping the bleeding D. replacing the towel with a sterile dressing - C. When palpating the anterior portion of the patient's abdomen, you note tenderness to the left upper quadrant. As a knowledgable emt, you would recognize that which organ might be involved? A. gall bladder B. liver C. spleen D. kidney - C. The emt would recognize that the pain associated with a kidney stone is caused by: A. formation of a stone in the kidney B. passage of the stone through the ureter C. inability to empty the bladder of urine D. infection of the bladder and ureter - B. A patient complains of severe and sharp pain to the right lower abdomen quadrant. Based on location, what organ or structure is most likely involved? A. appendix B. kidney C. spleen D. liver - A. You are on scene with a 55 year old female complaining of sudden onset shortness of breath while at rest. Following a quick examination, you determine that the patient may be experiencing non- traumatic cardiac tamponade. If so, the patient will likely exhibit all of the following signs except: A. Bradycardia with signs and symptoms of peripheral hypoperfusion B. Distended, often throbbing jugular veins bilaterally C. Hypotension D. Distant or muffled heart tones during auscultation - A You are working an elderly cardiac arrest patient, when a family member hands you a DNR. At this point, what should you do? A. Ignore the document because you already initiated CPR and cannot stop. B. Comply with the document and stop all resuscitation efforts C. Continue working the patient until medical command gives you permission to stop D. Ask the family to allow you to continue because you have already started resuscitation efforts. - C You have been called for 27 year old who has been stung by a jellyfish while swimming. What symptoms would you expect to see if an envenomation occurred? A. Cramps B. Skin necrosis C. Vomiting D. All of the above - D When conducting a scene size up, all of the following should be addressed except: A. Donning your own personal protective gear B. Assessing the need for other resources and equipment C. Evaluating the mechanism of injury potential D. The overall safety of the scene as you see it - A You are on scene assessing a 22 year old female for facial injuries. She tells you that her husband beat her up and this isn't the first time. While you are treating the patient, the husband returns and demands that you leave without his wife. What is your next course of action? A. Tell the husband that he has to leave while you are treating the patient B. Confront the husband and ask him why he beats his wife C. Ask the wife if she wants you to stay and treat her injuries D. Notify dispatch that you need police assistance immediately in a way that does not alert the husband of your actions or intent - D Which artery is most accurate for checking the pulse of a 2 year old child? A. Carotid artery B. Radial artery C. Brachial artery D. Femoral artery - C You arrive on scene to find a 10 year old male with non traumatic epistaxis. He is visibly upset and crying. What should you do to control the bleeding? A. Tip the head backward, holding pressure in the bridge of the nose B. Stick gauze up each nostril until the bleeding stops C. Squeeze the nostrils together below the bridge of the nose for approximately 10-15 minutes. D. Tip the head forward and apply ice - C You are on scene with a 19 year old male complaining of general malaise and shortness of breath. He is sweaty, breathing very shallow, and has pinpoint pupils that are slow to react. Which of the following is most likely the cause of his signs and symptoms? A. Narcotic overdose B. Benzodiazepine overdose A. absent air movement B. air that can be felt at the nose or mouth on expiration C. unusual hoarse or raspy sound quality to the voice D. abnormal noises such as wheezing, crowing, or stridor - B An inadequate airway in a child is defined as: A. less than 15 breaths per minute B. retractions above the clavicles and between and below the ribs C. breathing that is primarily from the nose in infants D. none of these - B When you question an elderly woman with a respiratory complaint, she speaks in short, two or three- word sentences. Is this significant? A. No, she is probably always like that B. Yes, she must have a complete airway obstruction C. No, elderly people always talk slowly D. Yes, she is probably very short of breath - D Your patient was the driver of a car that stopped suddenly when she hit a pole. She was not wearing her seatbelt and has a bruise on her neck. When you question her, she speaks very softly and seems to have a raspy voice. Is this significant or just a sign of nervousness about the collision? A. No, many patients get quiet after a motor vehicle crash B. Yes, if she were nervous, she would be more excited C. No, but the bruise could mean that she has significant bleeding D. Yes, low volume and raspy tone could be due to airway swelling from neck or laryngeal trauma - D. One indication that a child is experiencing inadequate breathing is that she: A. has a headache B. complains of nausea C. has nasal flaring when breathing D. is dizzy when standing - C The very first step to aid a patient who is not breathing is to: A. clear the mouth B. administer oxygen C. apply positive ventilation D. open the airway - D What is the importance of mechanism of injury (MOI) to airway care? A. an injured patient will need more oxygen B. the procedure for opening the patient's airway is different in trauma C. patients without a mechanism of injury will have an open airway D. an injury can make airway care easier to manage than a medical emergency - B The purposes of suctioning may include removal of: A. teeth and large pieces of solid material B. excess oxygen from the patient C. blood, vomitus, and other secretions D. all of these - C When a patient begins to vomit, it is essential that you have a(n) _____ ready to go at the patient's side A. suction unit B. oxygen tank C. blood pressure cuff D. pocket mask - A. You are treating a 29 year-old female who has major airway problems. She has thick secretions and blood in her upper airway that needs to be suctioned with a Yankauer. Which of the following is NOT true of the Yankauer suction tip? A. It has a rigid tip B. It allows for excellent control over the distal end of the device C. It is used most successfully with responsive patients D. It has a larger bore than flexible catheters - C. During the process of ventilation: A. the intercostal muscles expand, causing the air to be forced out of the chest B. carbon dioxide enters the body during each expiration C. oxygen enters the body during each expiration D. the diaphragm and chest muscles contract and relax to change the pressure in the chest - D The EMT needs to recognize respiratory distress and manage it so it does not proceed to respiratory failure. Respiratory failure is: A. the complete cessation of inspiration B. inadequate breathing, which is a precursor to respiratory arrest C. another term for respiratory arrest D. caused by electrocution in young children - B Your patient is a child approximately 4 years old and is in respiratory distress, which may be leading to respiratory failure. Inadequate breathing in a child this age is defined as: A. less than 12 breaths per minute B. more than 36 breaths per minute C. cyanosis of the lips and earlobes D. any of these - D A difference between a patient with respiratory distress and a patient with respiratory failure includes: A. respiratory failure shows mottled or blotchy skin color B. respiratory failure shows an alert mental status C. respiratory distress shows blue skin D. respiratory distress results in a comatose patient - A Cyanosis can be checked by observing the patient's: A. tongue B. earlobes A. calling for ALS backup. B. transport to a trauma center. C. understanding kinematics. D. ensuring rescuer safety. - D Because patients benefit from rapid transport to a trauma center, it is important to limit time spent on scene to: A.30 minutes. B. 1 hour. C. 10 minutes. D. 15 minutes. - C _____ accounts for about half of all trauma in pregnancy. A. Domestic violence B. Burns C. Falls D. Motor vehicle crashes - D During pregnancy, a woman has _____ circulating blood. A. less B. thicker C. more D. thinner - C A 28 year-old male was cutting limbs from a tree when he lost his footing and fell approximately 20 feet. He is unresponsive and breathing shallowly at 28 times per minute. His radial pulse is weak and thready, and his skin is cool to the touch. Emergency Medical Responders (EMRs) have placed him on a nonrebreather face mask and are holding manual in-line cervical spine stabilization. Based on these assessment findings, which one of the following instructions would you provide to the EMRs? Select one: a. Let's take off the oxygen mask and start positive pressure ventilation to assist his breathing. b. Do not cover him with a blanket because that will cause his blood vessels to dilate and drop his BP. c. Let's go ahead and elevate his legs 8 to 12 inches so more blood gets to his vital organs. d. He has snoring respirations, so let's go ahead and open the airway with the head tilt-chin lift. - A A 47 year-old patient has been in cardiac arrest for six minutes. Prior to checking the heart rhythm with the AED, the EMT and his partner must: a. perform CPR at a ratio of 30 ventilations to two compressions. b. administer cardiopulmonary resuscitation for one minute. c. provide five cycles of chest compressions and ventilations. d. perform a primary and secondary assessment. - c A 51 year-old male who suffered cardiac arrest has regained a pulse after one shock from the AED. The dispatcher informs you that the paramedic unit you have requested for assistance is coming from the eastern end of the county and has a 20-minute ETA. The hospital is 15 minutes west of your location. Which one of the following would be most appropriate? a. Wait on scene for the paramedic unit to arrive. b. Load the patient and meet the paramedic unit at a halfway point. c. Load the patient in the ambulance and wait on scene for the paramedic unit. d. Cancel the paramedic unit and transport to the hospital. - d A 52 year-old male has collapsed on his front porch and his family dialed 911. When you arrive, the daughter informs you that the patient has been down for approximately eight minutes. Assessment reveals him to be in cardiac arrest. Which one of the following should you do immediately? a. Perform five cycles of CPR at a ratio of 15 compressions to 2 ventilations. b. Perform two minutes of CPR before analyzing the heart rhythm. c. Apply electrodes to the patient and follow the AED's prompts. d. Contact medical direction for permission to use the AED given the downtime. - b A 66 year-old female patient has been struck by a car. Your assessment reveals gurgling respirations, rapid breathing, and cool, diaphoretic skin. You also observe bruising to the chest and abdomen. Which one of the following should you do immediately? a. Evaluate for shock. b. Administer high-concentration oxygen. c. Suction the airway. d. Determine the blood pressure. - c A 47 year-old male is complaining of substernal chest pain. The EMT is considering assisting with the patient's prescribed nitroglycerin. Which one of the following patient statements is most relevant to the EMT at this time? a. I accidentally took five baby aspirins when the chest pain first started. b. I took a nitroglycerin yesterday for the pain and it didn't do anything. c. My urologist just started treating me for problems I am having with sex. d. I forgot to take my high blood pressure medication this morning. - c A confused and anxious patient fell 20 feet from a ladder. Which one of the following signs would suggest that the patient is in shock? a. Heart rate of 140 b. Deformity to the left arm c. Contusion to his head d. Constricted pupils - a A driver was ejected from his vehicle in a rollover type collision. Assessment findings include unresponsiveness and bruising to the abdominal and pelvic areas along with an open femur fracture. The patient has an open airway and is breathing at 32 times per minute. The skin is cool and clammy and the radial pulses are weak. Manual in-line spinal stabilization is being maintained. Which one of the following is the EMT's initial intervention? a. Assist respirations. b. Obtain a blood pressure. c. Apply a cervical collar. d. Examine the fracture site. - a A No Shock Advised message is provided by the AED. The EMT understands that this could mean: a. the electrodes may be loose. b. the patient has regained a pulse. c. the patient is in ventricular fibrillation. d. CPR is no longer needed. - b An Emergency Medical Responder informs you that he was assisting EMS with a cardiac arrest last week. He also states that the patient had been in cardiac arrest for eight minutes and questions why CPR was performed first, even though the AED was right there. You should reply: a. The chest compressions administered before defibrillation relax the muscles of the chest wall, allowing more electricity to enter the body. b. When the heart is in cardiac arrest for a few minutes, the blood in the heart becomes toxic and must be pumped out before defibrillating. c. Research has shown that chest compressions frequently convert the heart rhythm from asystole to ventricular fibrillation. d. Compressions administered prior to defibrillation help ensure that the heart is perfused with blood, increasing the chance of successful defibrillation. - d An EMT has just received a Shock Advised message from the AED. Just before delivering the shock, the EMT must: a. press the analyze button once more. b. hold the patient's head to avoid injury when shocking. c. remove the oral airway to prevent possible choking. d. ensure that all rescuers are clear of the patient. - d An unrestrained 37 year-old female is in cardiac arrest after striking a tree head-on at a high rate of speed. Assessment reveals her to have suffered massive blunt trauma to the chest and abdomen. The patient is quickly extricated from the vehicle and placed on a long board for immobilization. It is estimated that the patient has been in cardiac arrest for approximately 10 minutes, during which CPR was not performed. At this time, the EMT would: a. perform CPR and contact medical command for permission to use the AED. b. apply electrodes to the patient's chest and follow the AED's instructions. c. withhold CPR and perform a focused trauma assessment. d. apply the AED and administer CPR for two minutes prior to using the AED. - d At an in service on shock, the presenter asks if anyone can tell him something about irreversible shock. Which statement made by an EMT is correct? a. If the pupils are dilated, the patient is in irreversible shock. b. To survive, the patient in irreversible shock needs a large amount of IV fluids. c. In irreversible shock, the carotid pulse is weak, but the radial pulse is strong. d. Even with treatment, if shock has reached the irreversible stage, death will result. - d It is critical that the EMT never apply the AED to a person who is not in cardiac arrest because an accidental shock could: a. produce full thickness burns and lead to a deadly infection. b. cause the patient extreme pain. c. cause the patient to lose his eyesight. d. cause the beating heart to go into cardiac arrest. - d The EMT knows that the cause underlying distributive shock is: a. poor fluid intake. b. damaged heart with poor contractility. c. loss of blood volume. d. dilation of the blood vessels. - d The EMT realizes that the best means of preventing failure of the AED is to: a. check the AED and its supplies at the beginning of each shift. b. obtain a second set of batteries when the original set is no longer functional. c. check the electrodes monthly and replace when expired. d. always make sure that the AED is kept clean and free of damage. - c The EMT should recognize which one of the following as the most probable case of cardiogenic shock? a. Myocardial infarction b. Systemic infection c. Gastrointestinal bleed d. Severe vomiting and diarrhea - a The EMT should request advanced life support (ALS) backup for a patient in cardiac arrest because: a. ALS care is superior to basic life support care, even with the AED. b. paramedics must be present in order for the EMT to use the AED. c. cardiac arrest patients must be transported by ALS personnel. d. ALS treatment decreases the possibility of the patient going back into cardiac arrest once successful defibrillation has occurred. - d The major categories of shock include: a. hypovolemic, cardiogenic, obstructive, and distributive. b. hypoglycemic, obstructive, distributive, and hypovolemic. c. hemorrhagic, distributive, hypoxic, and obstructive. d. burn, hypovolemic, distributive, and hypoxic. - a Which of the following is one of the basic five rights of medication administration? a. Right allergies b. Right physician c. Right EMT d. Right dose - d Which one of the following actions performed by the EMT indicates appropriate care with the AED when treating a patient in cardiac arrest? a. He purposely does not shock a patient in cardiac arrest who has an implantable defibrillator. b. He places then quickly removes a set of electrodes in an attempt to remove hair from a patient's chest. c. He applies one electrode over top of the power source for a pacemaker located on the patient's chest. d. He places the AED pads two inches away from a transdermal medication patch on the patient's chest. - b Which one of the following conditions could be responsible for causing obstructive shock? a. Blood clots in the lungs b. Loss of blood in the urine c. Infection throughout the body d. Poor transfer of oxygen at the capillary level - a Which one of the following statements about the heart rhythm of ventricular fibrillation is true? You are transporting a patient in cardiac arrest. The AED is being used and a shock has been advised. Prior to administering the shock, what should you do? a. Stop the ambulance and have all rescuers exit prior to shocking with the AED. b. Withhold all shocks because metal will conduct the shock into the ambulance. c. Ensure that no rescuer is touching the stretcher. d. Move the patient from the metal stretcher to a nonmetal surface. - c You are transporting an unresponsive 31 year-old female patient who suffered cardiac arrest. On scene Emergency Medical Responders (EMRs) shocked her once with the AED and she regained a pulse. She remains unresponsive and is breathing shallowly. Ventilations are being provided with a bag-valve mask. An EMR has agreed to ride to the hospital with you to provide assistance in caring for the patient. Which one of the following instructions given to the EMR is most appropriate? a. "Please check her breathing and pulse every five minutes." b. "Place her on a nonrebreather with 15 liters per minute of oxygen." c. "Place her in the recovery position so her airway is clear if she vomits." d. "Leave the AED on her, even though she is breathing and has a pulse." - d You believe that a patient who has been shot in the lower abdomen is bleeding internally and is in the early stage of shock. Which one of the following indicates appropriate prehospital care of this patient? a. Oxygen therapy and warm packs to the abdomen b. Shock position and administration of water by mouth c. Oxygen therapy and rapid transport to the hospital d. Semi Fowler's position and direct pressure over the injury site - c You have applied the AED's electrodes to an obese male patient in cardiac arrest. When you press the analyze button, the AED gives you a check electrode message. In looking at the patient, which one of the following would most likely be responsible for this message? a. Extremely hairy chest b. Obese chest and abdomen c. History of asthma d. AED placed to the patient's left side - a You have arrived at a residence for a 66 year-old female who is in cardiac arrest. In the living room, you find a family member performing CPR on the patient. They quickly report that they found the patient in cardiac arrest and have been doing CPR for five minutes. Which one of the following statements should you make at this time? a. "Let's stop CPR so I can check the airway, breathing, and circulation." b. "Let's continue CPR for another two minutes, and then I will put the AED on." c. "Let's continue CPR while I talk with the family to see if they want us to continue." d. "Let's stop CPR so I can put the electrodes of the AED on her chest." - a You have arrived on the scene of a 44 year-old male in cardiac arrest. According to family, the patient has a cardiac history and was complaining of chest pain most of the morning. They state that it has been about 10 minutes since he collapsed. To maximize the patient's opportunity for a successful outcome, which one of the following is the most important intervention that the EMT can make immediately? a. Advanced drugs by paramedics b. Defibrillation with the AED c. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation d. Oxygen through a nonrebreather mask - c You have been assigned to a football game to provide standby coverage. While taking a break, you decide to walk to a nearby concession stand for a soft drink. On the way, you come across a group of people standing around a male patient who collapsed and is on the ground. Your assessment reveals him to be unresponsive, not breathing, and pulseless. A bystander states that the patient collapsed less than a minute earlier. An AED is located less than a minute from your location. The nearest EMT is five minutes from your location. Which one of the following should you do immediately? a. Run to retrieve the nearby AED. b. Perform two minutes of CPR. c. Call for assistance and start CPR. d. Take manual inline spinal stabilization - a You have been called to a public pool for an unresponsive patient. On arrival you find lifeguards performing CPR with a pocket mask and oxygen on a 67 year-old male. They report that the patient was in the water and was seen clutching his chest seconds before going unresponsive. He was immediately pulled from the water and CPR was initiated. They estimate that CPR has been performed for five minutes. Assessment shows the man to be unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless. Which one of the following is your first response? a. Let's take a towel and dry off his chest. b. We need to quickly dry him from head to toe before applying the AED. c. Stop CPR and let's apply the AED. d. Let's start ventilation with a bag-valve mask and oxygen. - a You have been called to transport a patient in septic shock from the emergency department of a local hospital to the critical care unit of another. Two nurses will be accompanying you. As a knowledgeable EMT, you recognize that this state of shock has been caused by: a. failing heart. b. infection. c. blood loss. d. lung dysfunction. - b You have been dispatched to a residence for a male patient with a cardiac history who is complaining of chest pain. On scene you find a 52 year-old male patient sitting in a chair. He is alert and oriented and states that his chest pain feels like the last time he had a heart attack. He also states that in the hospital his heart stopped and they had to shock him twice before it restarted. He is breathing adequately and has a strong radial pulse. Which one of the following would be appropriate in the care of this patient? a. Provide positive pressure ventilation with high-flow oxygen. b. Open the airway using the head tilt-chin lift maneuver. c. Obtain the heart rate, respiratory rate, and blood pressure. d. Apply the AED to the patient but do not turn it on - c You have just applied the AED to a female patient in cardiac arrest and the machine is ready to analyze the heart rhythm. Which one of the following instructions is appropriate at this time? a. Continue CPR until we see if a shock is advised. b. Stop chest compressions but continue ventilation. c. Stop CPR and clear the patient. d. Stop CPR but continue to check for a pulse. - c Your service has a new AED. During the in service on the new device, the instructor informs you that it is a semi-automated AED and uses a biphasic wave form, as opposed to the monophasic form used by the previous AED. As a knowledgeable EMT, you should recognize that: a. the EMT will not need to press a shock button to shock the patient. b. provide high flow oxygen and rapid transport c. use your fingers to physically hold the infant's head off the cord d. position the mother to keep the weight of the infant off the cord - A When handling a delivery involving a drug or alcohol-addicted mother, your first concern should be for: a. the mother's airway b. your personal safety c. the infant's airway d. the need for CPR for the infant - B Which of the following is not a stage of labor? a. rupture of amniotic fluid b. expulsion of the baby c. delivery of the placenta d. dilation of the cervix - a The first stage of labor begins with the onset of contractions and ends when: a. the infant is born b. the cervix is fully dilated c. the water breaks d. the placenta is delivered - b Which of the following is not a sign of the beginning of labor? a. bloody show b. contractions of the uterus c. crowning d. rupture of the amniotic sac - c The second stage of labor begins when the cervix is fully dilated and ends when: a. the infant is born b. the water breaks c. the placenta is delivered d. the uterus stops contracting - a The third stage of labor begins with the birth of the infant and ends with the: a. release of milk from the breasts b. cessation of uterine contractions c. delivery of the placenta d. cutting of the umbilical cord - c The difference between preeclampsia and eclampsia is the onset of: a. seeing spots b. seizures c. swelling in the hands and feet d. headaches - b You should consider the possibility of a(n) ___________ in women who have missed a menstrual cycle and complain of a sudden stabbing and usually unilateral pain in the lower abdomen. a. PID b. ectopic pregnancy c. miscarriage d. placenta abruptio - b Which of the following is not a reason for delivery of the fetus at the scene? a. delivery can be expected within a few minutes b. there is a natural disaster c. there is severe inclement weather d. the amniotic sac has ruptured - d Which of the following statements regarding pregnancy is true? a. a patient in the third trimester is at a decreased risk for aspiration b. as the pregnancy continues, the patient will experience slower and deeper breathing c. by the 20th week of pregnancy, the uterus is at or above the belly button d. maternal blood volume increases up to 10% by the end of pregnancy - c Low blood pressure resulting from compression of the inferior vena cava by the weight of the fetus when the mother is supine is called: a. pregnancy induced hypertension b. placenta previa c. placenta abruptio d. supine hypotensive syndrome - d __________ is a situation in which the umbilical cord comes out of the vagina before the infant. a. eclampsia b. placenta previa c. abruptio placenta d. prolapsed cord - d Premature separation of the placenta from the wall of the uterus is known as: a. eclampsia b. placenta previa c. abruptio placenta d. prolapsed cord - c __________ is a condition in which the placenta develops over and covers the cervix. a. eclampsia b. placenta previa c. placenta abruptio d. prolapsed cord - b ___________ is heralded by the onset of convulsions, or seizures, resulting from severe hypertension in the pregnant woman. a. eclampsia b. the leading cause of abruptio placenta is an ectopic pregnancy c. as pregnancy progresses, the uterus enlarges and rises out of the pelvis d. some cultures may not permit male EMTs to examine a female patient - b The "P" in Apgar stands for: a. perfusion b. pulse c. pupils d. position - b Which of the following statements regarding multiple gestations is false? a. you should consider the possibility of twins when the first infant is small and the mother's abdomen remains fairly large after the birth b. you should record the time of birth on each twin separately c. there is only one placenta with the birth of twins d. the second baby will usually be born within 45 minutes of the first - c An infant delivered before _________ weeks is considered premature. a. 36 b. 37 c. 38 d. 39 - a All of the following are correct regarding postterm pregnancy except: a. infants can be larger, sometimes weighing 10lbs or more b. there is an increased risk of meconium aspirations c. postterm is considered past 2 weeks gestation d. ultrasounds are not accurate at determining due dates - d A patient presents with a sudden onset of shortness of breath three days following a delivery. What is likely the underlying cause of this condition? a. pulmonary hypertension b. pulmonary inflammation c. pulmonary embolism d. pulmonary fibrosis - c After delivery, if the infant does not begin breathing after _______ seconds, you should begin resuscitation efforts. a. 5-10 b. 10-15 c. 15-20 d. 20-25 - b A 3 year old girl is in severe respiratory distress. Her skin is cool and mottled. She is breathing spontaneously at 6-7 times a minute, but is unresponsive to verbal or physical stimuli. Her heart rate is 138 bpm. What should be your first action? a. Provide high flow oxygen using a non-rebreather at 10 lpm. b. Administer a blind finger sweep to attempt to remove the obstruction. c. Assist her ventilations with a BVM and supplemental oxygen at 15 lpm. d. Begin chest compressions to assist her inadequate spontaneous respirations. - c You arrive on scene to find a 45 year old male who is having difficulty breathing. He is cool, pale and sweaty. He tells you in quick gasps that he has COPD. His O2 sat is 86%. You should place the patient on oxygen via nasal cannula at 3 lpm to prevent triggering his hypoxic drive. a. True b. False - b What is the device designed to deliver a specific amount of medication into the lungs via aerosolized form? a. a capsule b. an aerosolized nebulizer c. a nebulizer d. a metered dose inhaler - d You arrive on scene to find a 73 year old male in cardiac arrest. His wife informs you that he collapsed 2 minutes prior to your arrival and that his physician had signed a "do not resuscitate" (DNR) order for the patient but she cannot find the written order. What should you do in such scenario? a. Call the patients doctor to confirm the order prior to initiating care b. Leave immediately after documenting the wife's statement and return in service c. Obey the DNR and leave immediately, respecting the patients wishes d. Provide all necessary care to save the patients life until the document is provided - D You are called to assist a full term pregnant female who is believed to be experiencing imminent birth with crowning present. Which of the following best describes crowning? A. When the amniotic sac spontaneously separates from the uterine wall and fluid rushes from the vagina B. The umbilical cord presents at the vaginal opening as the baby begins to deliver C. The top of the baby's head is visible in the vaginal opening D. The placenta is formed in an abnormal location - C Which set of vital signs suggest early hypothermia might be present? a. Pulse 66; respirations 14/min and irregular; BP 114/78; hot and dry skin; reactive pupils b. Pulse 58 and faint; respirations 10/min and shallow; BP 94/62; cyanotic; sluggish pupils c. Pulse 76; respirations 18/min and strong; BP 122/82; warm and dry skin; reactive pupils d. Pulse 96; respirations 28/min, rapid and shallow; BP 116/72; flushed cool skin, reactive pupils - D Your patient was accidentally sprayed in the eyes with a liquid insecticide. Which of the following would be the most appropriate treatment for this situation? A. Irrigate the eye with clean water or saline for no less than 20 minutes B. Place an airtight dressing over both eyes with sterile gauze C. Place 20 cc of saline in the affected eye D. Administer activated charcoal to the patient - A You arrive on scene to find an 18 year old female who has been vomiting for three days. She states she feels dizzy and her mouth feels dry. Her family confirms that other members of the family have had gastrointestinal flu in the past couple weeks. What is your primary concern for this patient? A. Drug use