Emergency Medical Care: Splinting and Trauma Management, Exams of Medicine

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EMT Written State Exam Study Guide

(PSI)

1. Which of the following is NOT true of medical control? A) It is determined by the dispatcher. B) It may be written or "standing orders." C) It may require online radio or phone consultation. D) It describes the care authorized by the medical director - A) It is determined by the dispatcher.
2. The major goal of quality improvement is to ensure that: A) quarterly audits of the EMS system are performed. B) EMTs have received BLS/CPR training. C) the public receives the highest standard of care. D) the proper information is received in the billing department. - C) the public receives the highest standard of care.
3. Federal legislation concerning patient confidentiality is known as: A) HIPAA. B) NAACS. C) EMTALA. D) FLCPC. - A) HIPAA
4. After stocking the ambulance this morning, you and your partner go out for breakfast. While entering the restaurant, you see an older gentleman clutch his chest and collapse to the floor. When you get to him, he has no pulse and is not breathing. To treat this patient, you will follow: A) off-line medical control. C) protocols. B) online medical control. D) All of these answers are correct. - D) All of these answers are correct.

5. After stocking the ambulance this morning, you and your partner go out for breakfast. While entering the restaurant, you see an older gentleman clutch his chest and collapse to the floor. When you get to him, he has no pulse and is not breathing. What level of training would allow you to perform an electrocardiogram and advanced life support on this patient? A) EMR B) EMT C) AEMT D) Paramedic - D) Paramedic
6. ______________ is a circular system of continuous internal and external reviews and audits of all aspects of an EMS system - Continuous quality iimprovement
7. One of the most dramatic recent developments in prehospital emergency care is the use of a(n)__________ defibrillator - automated external
8. The primary ________ area is the main area in which an EMS agency operates. - service
9. A 9-1-1 dispatch center is called a public safety __________, or PSAP - access point
10. ALS A) EMS professional trained in BLS interventions
11. BLS B) A system of internal reviews and audits
12. EMT C) Basic lifesaving interventions, such as CPR
13. AEMT D) Advanced procedures, such as drug administration
14. Paramedic E) EMS professional trained in ALS interventions
15. CQI F) EMS professional trained in some ALS interventions -
    10. D
16. C
17. A
18. F
19. E
20. B

16. __________ is a response to the anticipation of danger. A) Rage B) Anger C) Anxiety D) Despair - C) Anxiety
17. If you find that you are the target of the patient's anger, make sure that you: A) are safe. C) are tolerant and do not become defensive. B) do not take the anger or insults personally. D) All are correct. - D) All are correct.
18. When acknowledging the death of a child, reactions vary, but ____________ is common. A) shock B) disbelief C) denial D) All of these answers are correct. - D) All of these answers are correct.
19. The quickest source of energy is ____________; however, this supply will last less than a day and is consumed in greater quantities during stress. A) glucose B) carbohydrates C) protein D) fat - A) glucose
20. Components of the CISM system include: A) preincident stress education. C) spouse and family support. B) defusings. D) All of these answers are correct. - D) All of these answers are correct.
21. Sexual harassment is defined as: A) any unwelcome sexual advance. B) unwelcome requests for sexual favors. C) unwelcome verbal or physical conduct of a sexual nature. D) All of these answers are correct. - D) All of these answers are correct.

22. A 12-year-old boy told his grandmother he was going to collect the day's mail, located on the opposite side of the street, for her. As he was returning with the mail, he was struck by a vehicle and was found lying lifeless in the middle of the street. Which of the following would be appropriate to say to the grandmother? A) "Don't worry. I'm sure he'll be fine." B) "What were you thinking? You will be reported!" C) "We're placing him on a backboard to protect his back, and we'll take him to the ColumbusCommunity Hospital. Do you know who his doctor is?" D) It's best not to spend time talking to the grandmother. - C) "We're placing him on a backboard to protect his back, and we'll take him to the ColumbusCommunity Hospital. Do you know who his doctor is?"
23. The struggle to remain calm in the face of horrible circumstances contributes to the __________of the job. - emotional stress
24. Proper ___________ is the simplest, yet most effective, way to control disease transmission. - handwashing
25. You or your partner may develop ___________ after experiencing a particularly stressful call. - PTSD
26. PPE A) Contact with blood, body fluids, tissues, or air borne particles
27. OSHA B) Examples include gloves, gowns, and face shields
28. General adaptation syndrome C) The process of alarm, reaction, and recovery
29. Exposure D) Procedures to reduce transmission of infection among patients and health care personnel
30. Infection control E) Regulatory compliance agency -
    26. B
31. E
32. C
33. A
34. D

31. The process by which an individual, an institution, or a program is evaluated and recognized as meeting certain standards is called: A) the standard of care. B) competency. C) the scope of practice. D) certification - D) certification
32. Negligence is based on the EMT's duty to act, cause, breach of duty, and: A) expressed consent. C) mode of transport. B) termination of care. D) real or perceived damages - D) real or perceived damages
33. Good Samaritan laws generally are designed to offer protection to persons who render care in good faith. They do not offer protection from: A) properly performed CPR. C) improvising splinting materials. B) acts of negligence. D) providing supportive BLS to a DNR patient - B) acts of negligence
34. Which of the following is generally NOT considered confidential? A) Assessment findings C) A patient's medical history B) A patient's mental condition D) The location of the emergency - D) The location of the emergency
35. An important safeguard against legal implication is: A) responding to every call with lights and siren. B) checking ambulance equipment once a month. C) transporting every patient to an emergency department. D) writing a complete and accurate run report - D) writing a complete and accurate run report

36. Definitive or conclusive signs of death that are obvious and clear to even non medical persons include all of the following, EXCEPT: A) profound cyanosis. B) dependent lividity. C) rigor mortis. D) putrefaction. - A) profound cyanosis.
37. At 2:00 AM, a 17-year-old boy, accompanied by his 19-year-old girlfriend, had driven to the bar to give his father (who had been drinking large amounts of alcohol) a ride home. On the way back, they were involved in a motor vehicle collision. The boy has a large laceration with profuse bleeding on his forehead. His girlfriend is unconscious in the front passenger floor. The father is standing outside the vehicle, appearing heavily intoxicated, and is refusing care. What is the best way to gain consent to begin care for the driver, considering that he is a minor and his father has an altered mental status? A) Call his mother for consent. B) Call his grandparents for consent. C) It is a true emergency, so consent is implied. D) You are covered under the Good Samaritan laws. - C) It is a true emergency, so consent is implied.
38. You respond to a single-vehicle crash on the highway west of town. Upon arrival you find a 33- year-old man with an open forearm fracture who has self-extricated from his pickup, which is down the road side embankment. He does not appear to have suffered any other injuries, is fully coherent, and refuses all medical care. In an effort to obtain consent to treat this patient, you should: A) summon law enforcement and request that the patient be placed into protective custody. B) clearly explain the consequences of not accepting medical treatment. C) proceed with treatment; consent is not required because the patient is not being rational. D) properly document the refusal of care. - B) clearly explain the consequences of not accepting medical treatment. _ 39. Assault A) Written documentation that specifies treatment
39. Battery B) Touching without consent
40. Expressed consent C) Relating to law or forensic medicine
41. Implied consent D) Accepted level of care consistent with training

43. Medicolegal E) Unlawfully placing a patient in fear of bodily harm
44. Standard of care F) Specific authorization to provide care expressed by the patient
45. Advance directive G) Legal assumption that treatment was desired -
    39. E
46. B
47. F
48. G
49. C
50. D
51. A
52. ________ are helpful when you are away from the ambulance and need to communicate with dispatch, another unit, or medical control. A) Base stations B) Portable radios C) Mobile radios D) Cellular phones - B) Portable radios
53. Digital signals are used in some kinds of paging and tone-alerting systems because they transmit________ and allow for more choices and flexibility. A) numerically B) faster C) alphanumerically D) encoded messages - B) faster
54. Which of the following is NOT true with regard to simplex mode? A) When one party transmits, the other must wait to reply. B) You must push a button to talk. C) It is called a "pair of frequencies." D) Radio transmissions can occur in either direction, but not simultaneously in both -

C) It is called a "pair of frequencies."

49. The patient report commonly includes all of the following, EXCEPT: A) a list of the patient's medications. C) a brief history of the patient's current problem. B) the patient's age and gender. D) your estimated time of arrival. - A) a list of the patient's medications
50. Standard radio operating procedures are designed to: A) reduce the number of misunderstood messages. C) develop effective radio discipline. B) keep transmissions brief. D) All of these answers are correct. - D) All of these answers are correct.
51. Depending on how the protocols are written, you may need to call medical control for direct orders to: A) administer certain treatments. C) request assistance from other agencies. B) transport a patient. D) immobilize a patient. - A) administer certain treatments
52. The __________ officially occurs during your oral report at the hospital, not as a result of your radio report en route. A) patient report C) termination of services B) transfer of care D) All of these answers are correct. - B) transfer of care
53. When attempting to communicate with non-English-speaking patients, you should: A) use short, simple questions and simple words whenever possible. B) always use medical terms. C) shout. D) position yourself so the patient can read your lips. - A) use short, simple questions and simple words whenever possible.

54. You have responded to a scene at which a 45-year-old man has run his SUV into a utility pole. On arrival, the driver was found slumped over the steering wheel, unconscious. A large electrical wire was lying across the hood of the vehicle. After securing scene safety, you were able to approach the patient and complete a primary assessment, in which you found a 6" (15.4-cm) laceration across his forehead.The patient regained responsiveness, was alert and oriented, and refused care. If the patient refuses to sign the refusal form: A) sign it yourself and state: "Patient refused to sign." B) you cannot let the man leave the scene until he either goes with you or signs the form. C) have a credible witness sign the form testifying that he or she witnessed the patient's refusal of care. D) nothing more needs done. If the patient refuses care, you don't have to document it - C) have a credible witness sign the form testifying that he or she witnessed the patient's refusal of care.
55. Maintaining _________ with your patient builds trust and lets the patient know that he or she is your first priority. - eye contact
56. Children can easily see through lies or deception, so you must always be _____ with them. - honest _ 57. UHF A) A process in which electronic signals are converted into coded, audible signals
57. VHF B) Radio frequencies between 300 and 3,000 MHz
58. Repeater C) Radio frequencies between 30 and 300 MHz
59. Telemetry D) Special base station radio that receives messages and signals on one frequency and then automatically retransmits them on a second frequency -
    57. B
60. C
61. D
62. A
63. Your patient has been involved in an MVA. The term MVA stands for: A) motor vehicle accident. C) multiple vascular accidents.B) motor vehicle crash. D) mitral valve accumulation. -

A) motor vehicle accident.

62. You are attending to a patient who was involved in a car crash. He was not wearing his seat belt when he ran off the highway and hit a tree. You correctly assume that he has cardiac tamponade. On arrival at the hospital the doctor performs pericardiocentesis. The suffix "-centesis" means: A) pertaining to sensation or perception. B) pertaining to puncturing an organ or body cavity. C) examination with an instrument. D) suture of; repair of. - B) pertaining to puncturing an organ or body cavity.
63. A patient presents with severe erythema to his left lateral chest wall and a ruptured spleen. Upon arrival at the hospital, the surgeon performs a splenectomy. The suffix "-ectomy" means: A) surgical creation of an opening. B) slowing or stopping of the normal flow of a fluid. C) decline, disintegration, or destruction. D) surgical removal of - D) surgical removal of
64. Your patient has had laryngitis for almost a week. It has progressed to the point that she has difficulty swallowing. What is the suffix pertaining to eating or swallowing? A) "-osis" B) "-phasia" C) "-phagia" D) "-phobia" - C) "-phagia"
65. Your patient was flying back home from Cuba when she developed a nose bleed and headache right behind the eyes. A physician ascertained that her previous head cold had left the patient with sinusitis.The root word "sinus" pertains to which of the following? A) Wall, divider B) Opening C) Cavity, channel, or hollow space D) Membrane - C) Cavity, channel, or hollow space

66. You are caring for a very sick patient who is complaining of chest pain. You have him on your cardiac monitor which is showing AF. Suddenly, the patient goes into VF, so you attach your AED and shock him. What do the abbreviations AF, VF and AED stand for? A)atherosclerotic heart disease, ventricular tachycardia, automated external defibrillator B)acute myocardial infarction, ventricular fibrillation, automated external defibrillator C)atrial fibrillation, ventricular fibrillation, automated implantable cardioverter defibrillator D) atrial fibrillation, ventricular fibrillation, automated external defibrillator - D) atrial fibrillation, ventricular fibrillation, automated external defibrillator
67. The suffix "-_______" means disease. - pathy
68. The meaning "under" can be represented by the prefixes "_______-" and "infra-." - sub
69. "Emesis" in the word "hyperemesis" means ________. - vomit
70. "_______" in the word "erythrocyte" means red. - erythro
71. Flexion A) A body part (or condition) on appearing on both sides of the midline.
72. Extension B) Movement away from the midline of the body.
73. Adduction C) The bending of a joint.
74. Abduction D) The straightening of a joint.
75. Bilateral E) Movement toward the midline of the body -
    71. C
76. D
77. E
78. B
79. A

76. The leaf-shaped flap of tissue that prevents food and liquid from entering the trachea is called the: A) uvula. B) epiglottis. C) laryngopharynx. D) cricothyroid membrane. - B) epiglottis.
77. Which of the following systems is responsible for releasing chemicals that regulate body activities? A) Nervous B) Endocrine C) Cardiovascular D) Skeletal - B) Endocrine
78. The _____ is connected to the intestine by the bile ducts. A) stomach B) spleen C) appendix D) liver - D) liver
79. There are ________ cervical vertebrae. - 7
80. There are a total of ____ lobes in the right and left lungs. - 5
81. The movement of air between the lungs and the environment is called _____. - ventilation

82. Capillary A) Major artery that supplies blood to the lower extremities
83. Carotid B) Connects arterioles to venules
84. Femoral C) Imaginary vertical line descending from the middle of the forehead to the floor
85. Brachial D) Major artery of the upper arm
86. Radial E) Bending of a joint
87. Flexion F) Major artery that supplies blood to the head and brain
88. Anatomic position G) Standing, facing forward, palms facing forward
89. Midline H) The Thorax
90. The Thorax I) Major artery of the lower arm -
    82. B
91. F
92. A
93. D
94. I
95. E
96. G
97. C
98. B
99. Kidney function declines by _________________ between the ages of 20 and 90 years. A) 10% B) 50% C) 45% D) 20% - B) 50%
100. What is "vital capacity"? A) The volume of blood moved by each contraction of the heart B) The maximum thickness of the meninges C) The volume of air moved during the deepest points of respiration D) The amount of air left in the lungs following exhalation - C) The volume of air moved during the deepest points of respiration
101. Diastolic blood pressure tends to _______________ with age.

A) decrease B) compensate C) increase D) decompensate - C) increase

94. Work, family, and stress best describe the life stage known as: A) middle adulthood. B) adolescence. C) late adulthood. D) early adulthood - D) early adulthood
95. You are dispatched to a public park in the middle of a sprawling subdivision for an arm injury. You arrive to find a crying 5-year-old boy cradling his swollen and deformed left forearm. His friends tell you that he was holding onto the bars of the play structure and that his arm "snapped" when he jumped into the sand below. You would expect this boy's pulse to be: A) between 60 and 80 beats/min. C) most likely above 90 beats/min. B) higher than 150 beats/min. D) around 70 beats/min. - C) most likely above 90 beats/min.
96. In toddlers, the pulse rate is _____ to _____ beats/min, and the respiratory rate is _____ to _____breaths/min. - 90;150;20;
97. An infant's lungs are fragile, and providing bag-valve mask ventilations that are too forceful can result intrauma from pressure, or _____. - barotrauma
98. By _____ to _____ months, toddlers begin to understand cause and effect. - 18, 24 99.Among elderly persons, _________ function in the 5 years preceding death is presumed to decline. - mental

100. Anxious-avoidant attachment A) A type of reasoning in which a child looks for approval from peers and society
101. Conventional reasoning B) A type of reasoning in which a child bases decisions on his or her conscience
102. Moro reflex C) An infant reflex that occurs when something touches an infant's cheek and the infant instinctively turns his or her head toward the touch
103. Post conventional reasoning D) An infant reflex in which the infant opens his or her arms wide, spreads the fingers, and seems to grab at things
104. Rooting reflex E) A bond between an infant and his or her parents in which the infant understands that the parents will be responsive to his or her needs
105. Secure attachment F) A bond between an infant and his or her caregiver in which the infant is repeatedly rejected and develops an isolated lifestyle -
106. F
107. A
108. D
109. B
110. C
111. E
112. You should perform an urgent move in all of the following situations, EXCEPT: A) if a patient has an altered level of consciousness. B) if the patient is complaining of neck pain. C) in extreme weather conditions. D) if a patient has inadequate ventilation or shock. - B) if the patient is complaining of neck pain.
113. You may injure your back if you lift: A) with your back curved. B) with your back straight, but bent significantly forward at the hips. C) with the shoulder girdle anterior to the pelvis. D) All of these answers are correct. - D) All of these answers are correct.

108. In lifting with the palm down, the weight is supported by the _____ rather than the palm. A) fingers B) forearm C) lower back D) wrist - A) fingers
109. When pulling a patient, you should do all of the following, EXCEPT: A) extend your arms no more than about 15 to 20 inches (38 to 50 cm). B) reposition your feet so that the force of pull will be balanced equally. C) when you can pull no farther, lean forward another 15 to 20 inches (38 to 50 cm). D) pull the patient by slowly flexing your arms - C) when you can pull no farther, lean forward another 15 to 20 inches (38 to 50 cm).
110. You should use a rigid _____, often called a Stokes litter, to carry a patient across uneven terrain from a remote location that is inaccessible by ambulance or other vehicle. A) basket stretcher B) scoop stretcher C) molded backboard D) flotation device - A) basket stretcher
111. You have been called to the scene of a high-speed motor vehicle collision involving two compact cars.The first vehicle was a roll-over, ejecting the driver. The second vehicle contained both a driver and a front-seat passenger who cannot be reached because the door is up against a building. For the passenger in the second vehicle, you may need to perform a(n) _____ on the driver in order to reach the patient. A) extremity lift B) emergency move C) short backboard D) You should do nothing different; treat each patient the same - B) emergency move
112. You should not attempt to lift a patient who weighs more than _____ pounds with fewer than four rescuers, regardless of individual strength. -

113. Be careful that you do not push or pull from a(n) _____ position. - overhead
114. The _______________ is used for patients with no suspected spinal injury who are found lying supine on the ground. - direct ground lift
115. The __________ may be especially helpful when the patient is in a very narrow space or when there is not enough room for the patient and a team of EMTs to stand side by side - extremity lift
116. Flexible stretcher A) Can be folded or rolled up
117. Stair chair B) Used to carry patients up and down stairs
118. Scoop stretcher C) Used to carry and immobilize patients with suspected spinal injuries
119. Backboard D) Specifically designed stretcher that can be rolled along the ground
120. Wheeled ambulance stretcher E) Separates into two or four pieces -
121. A
122. B
123. E
124. C
125. D
126. The scene size-up consists of all of the following, EXCEPT: A) determining the mechanism of injury. B) requesting additional assistance. C) determining level of responsiveness. D) using personal protective equipment (PPE) and standard precautions. - C) determining level of responsiveness.
127. With _____, the force of the injury occurs over a broad area, and the skin is usually not broken.

A) motor vehicle collisions B) blunt trauma C) penetrating trauma D) gunshot wounds - B) blunt trauma

123. The best indicator of brain function is the patient's: A) pulse rate. B) papillary response. C) mental status. D) respiratory rate and depth. - C) mental status.
124. A normal respiratory rate for an adult is typically: A) 5 to 10 breaths per minute. C) 15 to 30 breaths per minute. B) 12 to 20 breaths per minute. D) 20 to 30 breaths per minute. - B) 12 to 20 breaths per minute
125. For children younger than 1 year old, you should palpate the _____ artery when assessing the pulse. A) carotid B) radial C) femoral D) brachial - D) brachial
126. When there are low levels of oxygen in the blood, the lips and mucous membranes appear blue or gray.This condition is called: A) AVPU. B) DCAP-BTLS. C) OPQRST. D) SAMPLE - B) DCAP-BTLS.
127. When there are multiple patients, you should use the _______________ to help organize the triage, logistics, and treatment of patients. - incident command system

128. _____ is the circulation of blood within an organ or tissue. - perfusion
129. A brassy, crowing sound that is prominent on inspiration and suggests a mildly occluded airway is referred to as _____ - stridor
130. If a patient seems to develop difficulty breathing after your primary assessment, you should immediately reevaluate the _____. - airway
131. Skin that is cool, clammy, and pale in your primary assessment typically indicates _____. - hypoperfusion
132. Triage A) The reason a patient called for help
133. Orientation B) The mental status of a patient
134. Chief complaint C) The process of establishing treatment and transport priorities -
135. C
136. B
137. A
138. All of the following are signs of hypoxia, EXCEPT: A) tachycardia. B) dehydration. C) cyanosis. D) weak pulse - B) dehydration
139. The proper technique for sizing an oropharyngeal airway before insertion is to measure the device from: A) the tip of the nose to the earlobe. C) the corner of the mouth to the earlobe. B) the bridge of the nose to the tip of the chin. D) the center of the jaw to the earlobe - C) the corner of the mouth to the earlobe.

137. Suctioning the oral cavity of an adult should be accomplished within: A) 5 seconds. B) 10 seconds. C) 15 seconds. D) 20 seconds. - C) 15 seconds.
138. After ___________ minutes without oxygen, brain damage is very likely. A) 0 to 4 B) 4 to 6 C) 6 to 10 D) more than 10 - C) 6 to 10
139. You come upon an unresponsive patient who is not injured and is breathing on her own with a normal rate and an adequate tidal volume. What would be the advantage of placing her in the recovery position? A) It's the preferred position of comfort for patients. B) It helps to protect the patient's cervical spine when injuries are hidden. C) It helps to maintain a clear airway. D) It's easier to load the patient onto the cot from this position. - C) It helps to maintain a clear airway.
140. You respond to a construction site and find a worker lying supine in the dirt. He has been hit by a heavy construction vehicle and flew more than 15 feet (4.6 m) before landing in his current position. There is discoloration and distention of his abdomen about the right upper quadrant. He is unconscious and his respirations are 10 breaths/min and shallow, with noisy gurgling sounds. What method will you use to keep his airway open? A) Nasal cannula B) Jaw thrust C) Oropharyngeal airway D) All of these answers are correct - C) Oropharyngeal airway

141. While assisting with respirations, you note gastric distention. In order to prevent or alleviate the distention, you should: A) ensure that the patient's airway is appropriately positioned. B) ventilate the patient at the appropriate rate. C) ventilate the patient at the appropriate volume. D) All of these answers are correct. - D) All of these answers are correct.
142. Inhalation A) Exchange of air between lungs and the environment
143. Exhalation B) Amount of air moved during one breath
144. Tidal volume C) Active part of breathing
145. Ventilation D) Part of breathing during which thorax size decreases -
146. C
147. D
148. B
149. A
150. The proper dose of a medication depends on all of the following, EXCEPT: A) the patient's age. B) the patient's size. C) generic substitutions. D) the desired action - C) generic substitutions.
151. Nitroglycerin relieves the squeezing or crushing pain associated with angina by: A) dilating the arteries to increase the oxygen supply to the heart muscle. B) causing the heart to contract harder and increase cardiac output. C) causing the heart to beat faster to supply more oxygen to the heart. D) All of these answers are correct. - A) dilating the arteries to increase the oxygen supply to the heart muscle.

148. The form the manufacturer chooses for a medication ensures: A) the proper route of the medication. B) the timing of the medication's release into the bloodstream. C) the medication's effects on target organs or body systems. D) All of these answers are correct. - D) All of these answers are correct.
149. Epinephrine acts as a specific antidote to: A) adrenaline. B) histamine. C) asthma. D) bronchitis - B) histamine
150. Oral glucose: A) is a suspension. C) is placed between a patient's cheek and gum. B) should be given to all patients. D) is not carried by EMTs - C) is placed between a patient's cheek and gum.
151. _____ is the main hormone that controls the body's fight-or-flight response. - Epinephrine
152. In all but the __________ route, the medication is absorbed into the bloodstream through various body tissues - intravenous injection
153. A(n) _____ is a chemical substance that is used to treat or prevent disease or relieve pain. - medication
154. Absorption A) To bind or stick to a surface
155. Contraindication B) Amount of medication given
156. Side effect C) Therapeutic use for a particular medication
157. Adsorption D) Situation in which a drug should not be given
158. Dose E) Effect that a drug is expected to have

159. Indication F) Any action of a drug other than the desired one
160. Action G) Process by which medications travel through body tissues -
161. G
162. D
163. F
164. A
165. B
166. C
167. E
168. Regulation of blood flow is determined by: [1] oxygen intake. [2] systolic pressure. [3] cellular need. [4] diastolic pressure. - [3] cellular need.
169. The action of hormones such as epinephrine and norepinephrine stimulates _____ to maintain pressure in the system and, as a result, perfusion of all vital organs. [1] an increase in heart rate [2] an increase in the strength of cardiac contractions [3] vasoconstriction in nonessential areas [4] All of these answers are correct. - [4] All of these answers are correct.
170. Basic causes of shock include: [1] poor pump function. [2] blood or fluid loss. [3] blood vessel dilation. [4] All of these answers are correct - [4] All of these answers are correct

164. Noncardiovascular causes of shock include respiratory insufficiency and: [1] sepsis. [2] metabolism. [3] anaphylaxis. [4] hypovolemia. - [3] anaphylaxis.
165. Neurogenic shock is caused by: [1] a radical change in the size of the vascular system. [2] massive vasoconstriction. [3] low volume. [4] fluid collecting around the spinal cord, causing compression of the cord - Fluid collecting around the spinal cord, causing compression of the cord.
166. You are called to a construction site where a 27-year-old worker has fallen from the second floor. He landed on his back and is drifting in and out of consciousness. A quick assessment reveals no bleeding or blood loss. His blood pressure is 90/60 mm Hg with a pulse rate of 110 beats/min. His airway is open and breathing is within normal limits. You realize the patient is in shock. The patient's shock is due to an injury to the: [1] cervical vertebrae. [2] skull. [3] spinal cord. [4] peripheral nerves - [3] spinal cord.
167. You respond to the local nursing home for an 85-year-old woman who has altered mental status. During your assessment, you notice that the patient has an elevated body temperature. She is hypotensive and her pulse is tachycardic. The nursing staff tells you that she has been sick for several days and that they called because her mental status continued to decline. You suspect the patient is in septic shock. The shock is due to: [1] pump failure. [2] massive vasoconstriction. [3] widespread dilation.

[4] increased volume - [2] massive vasoconstriction.

168. Pressure in the arteries during cardiac _____ is known as systolic pressure. - contraction
169. Blood pressure is a rough measurement of _____. - perfusion
170. _____ are circular muscle walls in capillaries that cause the walls to contract and dilate. - sphincters
171. Shock A) Fainting
172. Perfusion B) Hypoperfusion
173. Autonomic nervous system C) Regulates involuntary body functions
174. Syncope D) Early stage of shock
175. Compensated shock E) Sufficient circulation to meet cell needs -
176. B
177. E
178. C
179. A
180. D
181. In a conscious infant who is choking, you would first give five back slaps, followed by: A) attempting to breathe. B) five chest thrusts. C) checking a pulse. D) five abdominal thrusts - B) five chest thrusts.
182. In most cases, cardiac arrest in children results from: