Emergency Medical Care: Trauma and Injury Management, Exams of Nursing

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EMT Final II Written Examination Latest

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1. According to the National EMS Scope of Practice Model, an EMT should be able to: A. insert a peripheral IV line and infuse fluids. B. assist a patient with certain prescribed medications. C. administer epinephrine via the subcutaneous route. D. interpret a basic (ECG) rhythm and treat accordingly - ✔✔B. assist a patient with certain prescribed medications.
2. An EMS provider who has extensive training in various aspects of advanced life support (ALS) is called a(n): A. paramedic. B. advanced EMT (AEMT). C. EMT. D. EMR. - ✔✔A. paramedic.
3. As an EMT, you may be authorized to administer aspirin to a patient with chest pain based on: A. the transport time to the hospital. B. the patient's condition.

C. an order from a paramedic. D. medical director approval. - ✔✔D. medical director approval.

4. Continuing education in EMS serves to: A. maintain, update, and expand the EMT's knowledge and skills. B. provide an ongoing review and audit of the EMS system. C. enforce mandatory attendance at agency-specific training. D. confirm research and statistical findings in prehospital care. - ✔✔A. maintain, update, and expand the EMT's knowledge and skills.
5. EMS as we know it today had its origins in 1966 with the publication of: A. the Department of Transportation's White Paper: Death and Dying. B. Accidental Death and Disability: The Neglected Disease of Modern Society. C. the Emergency Medical Services Act. D. Emergency Care and Transportation of the Sick and Injured - ✔✔B. Accidental Death and Disability: The Neglected Disease of Modern Society.

6. EMT training in nearly every state meets or exceeds the guidelines recommended by the: A. individual state's EMS protocols. B. National Registry of EMTs. C. National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA). D. National Association of EMTs - ✔✔C. National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA).
7. If an EMT candidate has been convicted of a felony or misdemeanor, he or she should: A. recognize that any such conviction will disqualify him or her from EMT licensure. B. contact the state EMS office and provide its staff with the required documentation. C. send an official request to the National Registry of EMTs (NREMT) to seek approval to take the EMT exam. D. wait at least 24 months before taking another state- approved EMT class - ✔✔B. contact the state EMS office and provide its staff with the required documentation.
8. Obtaining continuing medical education is the responsibility of the: A. EMS medical director.

B. State Bureau of EMS. C. EMS training officer. D. individual EMT - ✔✔D. individual EMT

9. The continuous quality improvement (CQI) process is designed to: A. focus specifically on the quality of emergency care provided to the patient. B. identify areas of improvement and provide remedial training if needed. C. ensure that all EMTs maintain licensure through the state EMS office. D. administer punitive actions to EMTs who do not follow local protocols - ✔✔B. identify areas of improvement and provide remedial training if needed.
10. The EMT certification exam is designed to: A. ensure that EMTs are competent and have the same level of knowledge and skills. B. provide EMTs with the best possible wage once certification is achieved. C. rank EMTs based on performance on the certification exam. D. identify those EMTs who are prepared for advanced levels of training - ✔✔A. ensure that EMTs are competent and have the same level of knowledge and skills.

11. The person who is responsible for authorizing EMTs to perform emergency medical care in the field is the: A. field training officer. B. medical director. C. shift supervisor. D. EMS administrator - ✔✔B. medical director.
12. The standards for prehospital emergency care and the individuals who provide it are typically regulated by the: A. state office of EMS. B. regional trauma center. C. National Registry of EMTs. D. American Heart Association - ✔✔A. state office of EMS.
13. Which of the following is an example of a primary prevention strategy? A. The construction of a guardrail on a dangerous curve following a fatal motor vehicle crash B. Protecting a patient's spine from further injury after a fall from a significant height C. Community awareness programs that emphasize the dangers of drinking and driving

D. Teaching a group of new parents how to perform one- and two-rescuer infant CPR - ✔✔C. Community awareness programs that emphasize the dangers of drinking and driving

14. Which of the following scenarios involves the administration of ALS? A. A 64-year-old patient who is given aspirin for suspected cardiac chest pain B. A 61-year-old patient who is receiving humidified supplemental oxygen C. A 53-year-old patient who is assisted with his prescribed nitroglycerin D. A 48-year-old patient whose airway is secured with a supraglottic device - ✔✔D. A 48-year-old patient whose airway is secured with a supraglottic device
15. Which of the following skills or interventions is included at every level of prehospital emergency training? A. Oral glucose for hypoglycemia B. Automated external defibrillation C. Use of a manually triggered ventilator D. Intranasal medication administration - ✔✔B. Automated external defibrillation

16. Which of the following skills would a layperson most likely be trained to perform before the arrival of EMS? A. Insertion of an oropharyngeal airway B. Obtaining a manual blood pressure C. Bleeding control using a tourniquet D. Administration of supplemental oxygen - ✔✔C. Bleeding control using a tourniquet
17. Which of the following statements regarding the EMS medical director and an EMT's scope of practice is correct? A. An EMT's scope of practice may be expanded by the medical director after proper training and state approval. B. An EMT's scope of practice is exclusively regulated by the state EMS office, not the EMS medical director. C. The EMS medical director can expand the EMT's scope of practice but cannot limit it without state approval. D. The EMS medical director can expand or limit an individual EMT's scope of practice without state approval - ✔✔A. An EMT's scope of practice may be expanded by the medical director after proper training and state approval.
18. Which of the following statements regarding the NREMT is correct?

A. The NREMT provides a national standard for EMS testing. B. The NREMT is a governmental agency that certifies EMTs. C. The NREMT regulates EMS training standards. D. The NREMT is the exclusive certifying body for EMTs - ✔✔A. The NREMT provides a national standard for EMS testing.

19. Which type of medical direction do standing orders and protocols describe? A. Direct B. Off-line C. Radio D. Online - ✔✔B. Off-line
20. Why are prehospital emergency care guidelines updated on a regular basis? A. Statistical data indicate that an increasing number of people are being diagnosed with a particular illness. B. The federal government requires the implementation of changes to existing emergency care protocols at least every five years. C. Additional information and evidence indicate that the effectiveness of certain interventions has changed. D. EMS providers should be encouraged to actively participate in research and become familiar with data analysis - ✔✔C.

Additional information and evidence indicate that the effectiveness of certain interventions has changed.

21. A 75-year-old male with a terminal illness has died at home. As you and your partner enter the residence, a family member becomes verbally abusive, pushes you, and states that you took too long to get there. You should: A. retreat and notify law enforcement personnel. B. tell the family member that it is not your fault. C. ignore the family member and assess the patient. D. subdue the family member until the police arrive - ✔✔A. retreat and notify law enforcement personnel.
22. According to Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) regulations, an employer must: A. offer a workplace environment that reduces the risk of exposure. B. screen all prospective employees for bloodborne pathogens. C. provide gloves and other personal protective equipment to full-time paid employees only. D. guarantee a 100% risk-free environment prior to employment. - ✔✔A. offer a workplace environment that reduces the risk of exposure.

23. A critical incident stress debriefing should be conducted no longer than ________ hours following the incident. A. 12 B. 72 C. 6 D. 24 - ✔✔B. 72
24. After assessing a patient's blood glucose level, you accidentally stick yourself with the contaminated lancet. You should: A. immerse your wound in an alcohol-based solution. B. get immunized against hepatitis as soon as possible. C. report the incident to your supervisor after the call. D. discontinue patient care and seek medical attention - ✔✔C. report the incident to your supervisor after the call.
25. A positive TB skin test indicates that: A. you are actively infected with TB. B. you have never been exposed to TB. C. the TB disease is currently dormant but might later become active. D. you have been exposed to TB. - ✔✔D. you have been exposed to TB.

26. As an EMT, it is important to remember that the signs and symptoms of cumulative stress: A. cannot be identified and can cause health problems. B. might not be obvious or present all the time. C. usually manifest suddenly and without warning. D. are most effectively treated with medications - ✔✔B. might not be obvious or present all the time.
27. At the scene of an automobile crash, a utility pole has been broken, and power lines are lying across the car. The patients inside the car are conscious. You should: A. proceed with normal extrication procedures. B. mark off a danger zone around the downed lines. C. advise the patients to carefully get out of the car. D. remove the lines with a nonconductive object - ✔✔B. mark off a danger zone around the downed lines.
28. Carbon monoxide blocks the ability of the blood to oxygenate the body because it: A. fills the alveoli in the lungs with thick secretions. B. destroys the number of circulating red blood cells. C. causes the body to expel too much carbon dioxide.

D. binds with the hemoglobin in red blood cells - ✔✔D. binds with the hemoglobin in red blood cells

29. Critical incident stress management (CISM) can occur at an ongoing scene in all of the following circumstances, except: A. when personnel are assessed during periods of rest. B. before personnel are preparing to reenter the scene. C. when patients are actively being assessed or treated. D. before leaving the scene after the incident is resolved - ✔✔C. when patients are actively being assessed or treated.
30. Gloves, a mask, eye protection, and a face shield should be used: A. whenever you touch non-intact skin. B. when performing endotracheal intubation. C. while handling needles or other sharps. D. during routine cleaning of the ambulance - ✔✔B. when performing endotracheal intubation.
31. If it is not possible to adequately clean your ambulance at the hospital following a call, you should:

A. thoroughly wash the back of the ambulance at a local car wash or similar facility. B. clean the ambulance at your station in a designated area that is well ventilated. C. quickly wipe down all high-contact surfaces with an antibacterial solution. D. wait until the end of your shift and then disinfect the entire patient compartment - ✔✔B. clean the ambulance at your station in a designated area that is well ventilated.

32. If you are exposed to a patient's blood or other bodily fluid, your first action should be to: A. vigorously clean the area with soap and water. B. transfer care of the patient to another EMS provider. C. abandon patient care and seek medical attention. D. report the incident to the infection control officer - ✔✔B. transfer care of the patient to another EMS provider.
33. If you use a waterless handwashing substitute in the field, it is important to: A. avoid donning another pair of gloves for at least 10 minutes. B. wash your hands with soap and water at the hospital. C. immediately dry your hands with a paper towel. D. wait at least five minutes before touching another patient. - ✔✔B. wash your hands with soap and water at the hospital.

34. Prescription glasses do not provide adequate eye protection because they: A. do not have shatterproof lenses. B. have large, rounded lenses. C. offer little or no side protection. D. are not secured with a strap - ✔✔C. offer little or no side protection.
35. The capacity of an individual to cope with and recover from stress is called: A. wellness. B. distress. C. resilience. D. eustress - ✔✔C. resilience.
36. The simplest, yet most effective method of preventing the spread of an infectious disease is to: A. wash your hands in between patient contacts. B. ensure that your immunizations are up-to-date. C. undergo an annual physical examination. D. undergo annual testing for tuberculosis and hepatitis - ✔✔A. wash your hands in between patient contacts.

37. Vector-borne transmission of an infectious organism occurs via: A. smoke or dust. B. animals or insects. C. inanimate objects. D. direct contact - ✔✔B. animals or insects.
38. When decontaminating the back of your ambulance after a call, you should: A. clean all surfaces and patient contact areas with a mixture of alcohol and water. B. allow surfaces to air dry unless otherwise indicated in the product directions. C. use a bleach and water solution at a 1:2 dilution ratio to thoroughly wipe all surfaces. D. spray the contaminated areas and then immediately wipe them dry with a towel. - ✔✔B. allow surfaces to air dry unless otherwise indicated in the product directions.
39. Which of the following is an effective stress management strategy? A. Frequently reflecting on troublesome calls

B. Modestly increasing caffeine consumption C. Developing a social network outside of EMS D. Requesting overtime to occupy your mind - ✔✔C. Developing a social network outside of EMS

40. Which of the following scenarios most accurately depicts a posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) reaction? A. An EMT becomes distracted at the scene of a motor vehicle crash involving the same type of car in which a child was previously killed. B. An EMT with many years of field experience becomes irritable with her coworkers and experiences headaches and insomnia. C. An EMT is emotionally exhausted and depressed after a school bus crash involving critical injuries and the death of several children. D. A newly certified EMT becomes extremely nauseated and diaphoretic at the scene of an incident involving grotesque injuries - ✔✔A. An EMT becomes distracted at the scene of a motor vehicle crash involving the same type of car in which a child was previously killed.
41. Activities such as walking, talking, and writing are regulated by the: A. central nervous system.

B. autonomic nervous system. C. somatic nervous system. D. involuntary nervous system - ✔✔C. somatic nervous system.

42. Anterior to the knee is a specialized bone called the: A. femur. B. tibia. C. calcaneus. D. patella - ✔✔D. patella
43. Contraction of the right ventricle causes: A. closure of the mitral and aortic valves. B. a return of blood from the pulmonary veins. C. ejection of blood into the systemic circulation. D. blood to flow into the pulmonary circulation - ✔✔D. blood to flow into the pulmonary circulation
44. Deoxygenated blood from the abdomen, pelvis, and lower extremities is returned to the right atrium via the: A. inferior vena cava. B. common iliac vein. C. superior vena cava.

D. coronary sinus vein - ✔✔A. inferior vena cava.

45. Negative-pressure breathing involves: A. relaxing the respiratory muscles. B. a drop in pressure within the chest cavity. C. pushing or forcing air into the lungs. D. increasing airway resistance during breathing. - ✔✔B. a drop in pressure within the chest cavity.
46. Stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system would result in: A. tachycardia. B. vasoconstriction. C. a slower heart rate. D. a strong pulse - ✔✔C. a slower heart rate.
47. The air you breathe is _______ oxygen, and the air you exhale is _______ oxygen. A. 16%; 25% B. 21%; 35% C. 25%; 32% D. 21%; 16% - ✔✔D. 21%; 16%

48. The average adult has approximately ___________ of blood in his or her vascular system. A. 3 L B. 6 L C. 5 L D. 4 L - ✔✔B. 6 L
49. The bones of the forearm are called the: A. radius and humerus. B. tibia and radius. C. humerus and ulna. D. radius and ulna. - ✔✔D. radius and ulna.
50. The bones that constitute the fingers and toes are called: A. metacarpals. B. metatarsals C. carpals. D. phalanges - ✔✔D. phalanges
51. The carpal bones form the:

A. hand. B. wrist. C. ankle. D. foot. - ✔✔B. wrist.

52. The diaphragm and intercostal muscles contract during: A. ventilation. B. exhalation. C. inhalation. D. respiration - ✔✔C. inhalation.
53. The firm cartilaginous ring that forms the inferior portion of the larynx is called the: A. thyroid cartilage. B. tracheal cartilage. C. cricoid cartilage. D. costal cartilage - ✔✔C. cricoid cartilage.
54. The kidneys and pancreas are called retroperitoneal organs because they: A. are protected by the anterior rib cage. B. are located behind the abdominal cavity.

C. lie just anterior to the costovertebral angle. D. sit in front of the liver, spleen, and stomach - ✔✔B. are located behind the abdominal cavity.

55. The leaf-shaped flap of cartilage that prevents food and liquid from entering the trachea during swallowing is called the: A. vallecula. B. epiglottis. C. pharynx. D. uvula - ✔✔B. epiglottis.
56. The part of the brain that controls the left side of the body is the: A. right-side cerebrum. B. right temporal lobe. C. left parietal lobe. D. left-side cerebrum - ✔✔A. right-side cerebrum.
57. The primary organ responsible for absorption of products of digestion is the: A. small intestine. B. gallbladder.

C. pancreas. D. large intestine - ✔✔A. small intestine.

58. The three bones that make up the shoulder girdle are the: A. acromion, humerus, and clavicle. B. clavicle, scapula, and humerus. C. acromion, scapula, and humerus. D. acromion, clavicle, and scapula - ✔✔B. clavicle, scapula, and humerus.
59. The waste products of aerobic metabolism include: A. carbon dioxide and water. B. glucose and lactic acid. C. uric acid and nitrogen. D. ATP and glucose - ✔✔A. carbon dioxide and water.
60. What happens when blood volume is lost from the body? A. The arteries contract to increase the blood pressure. B. The veins dilate to increase systemic perfusion. C. Widespread vasodilation causes blood pressure to decrease. D. Arterial blood is diverted to the skin and muscles - ✔✔A. The arteries contract to increase the blood pressure.

61. A 29-year-old male with a head injury opens his eyes when you speak to him, is confused as to the time and date, and is able to move all of his extremities on command. His Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is: A. 13 B. 14 C. 12 D. 10 - ✔✔A. 13
62. A 39-year-old male sustained a stab wound to the groin during an altercation at a bar. As you approach the patient, you note that he is conscious, is screaming in pain, and is attempting to control the bleeding, which is bright red and spurting from his groin area. You should: A. administer 100% supplemental oxygen. B. elevate his legs and keep him warm. C. ensure that his airway is patent. D. apply direct pressure to the wound - ✔✔D. apply direct pressure to the wound
63. A 40-year-old male crashed his motorcycle into a tree. He is semiconscious, has snoring respirations, and has a laceration to the forearm with minimal bleeding. You should:

A. open his airway with the jaw-thrust maneuver. B. apply a pressure dressing to the patient's arm. C. apply a cervical collar and suction his airway. D. tilt the patient's head back and lift up on his chin - ✔✔A. open his airway with the jaw-thrust maneuver.

64. A 40-year-old male presents with pain to the right upper quadrant of his abdomen. He is conscious and alert with stable vital signs. During your assessment, you note that his skin and sclera are jaundiced. You should suspect: A. acute pancreatitis. B. liver dysfunction. C. renal insufficiency. D. gallbladder disease. - ✔✔B. liver dysfunction.
65. A 50-year-old male presents with altered mental status. His wife tells you that he had a "small stroke" 3 years ago but has otherwise been in good health. The patient is responsive but unable to follow commands. After administering oxygen if needed, you should: A. perform a head-to-toe assessment. B. inquire about his family history. C. repeat the primary assessment.

D. prepare for immediate transport - ✔✔D. prepare for immediate transport

66. A 71-year-old female slipped on a rug and fell. She is conscious but confused and complains of severe pelvic pain. Her respirations are 22 breaths/min and her heart rate is 120 beats/min. What should you do? A. Transport her in a seated position B. Transport her on her left side C. Gently palpate her pelvis D. Treat her for possible shock - ✔✔D. Treat her for possible shock
67. A blood pressure cuff that is too small for a patient's arm will give a: A. falsely high systolic and diastolic reading. B. falsely low systolic but high diastolic reading. C. falsely high systolic but low diastolic reading. D. falsely low systolic and diastolic reading - ✔✔A. falsely high systolic and diastolic reading.
68. After performing a primary assessment, a rapid exam of the body should be performed to: