Emergency Medical Procedures and Protocols, Exams of Nursing

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EMT 38-41 (JBL) EXAM QUESTIONS

AND ANSWERS

91. The purpose of a jump kit is to: A) facilitate defibrillation within 5 to 10 minutes after making patient contact. B) manage a critically injured patient until he or she is loaded into the ambulance. C) carry advanced life support equipment approved by the EMS medical director. D) contain anything that you might need during the first 5 minutes of patient care. - Answer- D
92. Typically, medivac helicopters fly at speeds between: A) 100 and 120 mph. B) 120 and 140 mph. C) 130 and 150 mph. D) 150 and 200 mph. - Answer- C
93. Upon arriving at the scene of a major motor vehicle crash at night, you find that the safest place to park your ambulance is in a direction that is facing oncoming traffic. You should: A) turn your headlights off. B) quickly access the patient. C) place a flare near the crash. D) turn all warning lights off. - Answer- A
94. A portable oxygen cylinder should have a minimum capacity of ____ of oxygen. A) 250 L B) 500 L C) 750 L D) 1,000 L - Answer- B
95. The type _____ ambulance is a standard van with a forward-control integral cab body. A) I B) II C) III D) IV - Answer- B
96. When driving with lights and siren, you are _____ that drivers yield the right-of-way. A) requesting

B) demanding C) offering D) None of these answers are correct - Answer- A

98. You are hired at the local EMS service. Your duties include station cleanup and checking the unit for mechanical problems. You should also check all medical equipment and supplies: A) after every call. B) after every emergency transport. C) every 12 hours. D) every day. - Answer- D
99. Ambulances today are designed according to strict government regulations based on _____ standards. A) local B) state C) national D) individual - Answer- C
100. You are requested out to County Road 93 for a vehicle collision at a rural area known for serious crashes. After driving with lights and sirens for nearly 20 minutes to reach the scene, you arrive at the intersection at the east end of the county. As you pull up, you see two pickup trucks crushed into a mass of twisted, smoking metal. A sheriff's deputy is shouting and waving you over to the passenger side door of one of the demolished trucks. You quickly look down all four roads leading to the scene and note that they are deserted as far as you can see. How would you ensure the proper control of traffic around this scene? A) Put out flares in a pattern that leads other vehicles safely around the involved vehicles. B) Because the roads were deserted when you arrived, it is not a priority. C) Ask the law enforcement officer to control any traffic. D) Pull completely off the roadway and leave your red emergenc - Answer- C
101. The MOST common and usually the most serious ambulance crashes occur at: A) stop signs. B) stop lights. C) intersections. D) railroad crossings. - Answer- C
102. During the transport phase of an ambulance call, it is MOST important to: A) reassess the patient only if he or she deteriorates. B) reassess unstable patients at least every 15 minutes. C) converse with the patient and provide reassurance. D) complete the run form before arrival at the hospital. - Answer- C

103. When arriving at the scene of an overturned tractor-trailer rig, you note that a green cloud is being emitted from the crashed vehicle. The driver is still in the truck; he is conscious but bleeding profusely from the head. After notifying the hazardous materials team, you should: A) park downhill from the scene. B) ask the driver to exit the vehicle. C) position the ambulance upwind. D) quickly gain access to the patient. - Answer- C
104. A medical transport helicopter is incoming and you are responsible for setting up the landing zone (LZ). You should: A) use yellow caution tape to mark of the LZ perimeter. B) ask bystanders to stand at all four corners of the LZ. C) use weighted cones to mark all four corners of the LZ. D) place four flares 100 feet apart in an "X" pattern. - Answer- C
105. The process of removing dirt, dust, blood, or other visible contaminants from a surface or equipment is called: A) cleaning. B) disinfection. C) sterilization. D) high-level disinfection. - Answer- A
106. In which of the following situations would the EMTs MOST likely utilize a police escort? A) The weather is treacherous and there are numerous roads washed out. B) The EMTs are unfamiliar with the location, but the police officer knows the area. C) The EMTs are transporting a critical pediatric patient through traffic. D) The call is dispatched as an unresponsive patient with CPR in progress. - Answer- B
107. You have just delivered a major trauma patient to the hospital. Shortly after departing the hospital, dispatch advises you of another call. The back of the ambulance is contaminated with bloody dressings and is in disarray, and you are in need of airway equipment and numerous other supplies. You should: A) proceed to the call, functioning only as an emergency medical responder. B) advise the dispatcher that you are out of service and to send another unit. C) have your partner quickly clean the ambulance as you proceed to the call. D) quickly proceed to the call and clean and restock the ambulance afterwards. - Answer- B
108. The use of lights and siren on an ambulance: A) signifies a request for other drivers to yield the right of way. B) legally gives the emergency vehicle operator the right of way. C) allows other drivers to hear and see you from a great distance. D) is required any time a patient is being transported to the hospital. - Answer- A

109. While en route to a call for a patient in cardiac arrest, you approach a stopped school bus with its red warning lights flashing. You should: A) pass the bus only after all the children have exited. B) back up and take an alternate route to the scene. C) slowly and carefully pass the bus on the left side. D) stop and wait until the warning lights stop flashing. - Answer- D
110. Which of the following is an example of regional equipment or supplies? A) Oral glucose B) Vacuum splint C) DuoDote Auto-Injector D) Inhaled bronchodilator - Answer- C
111. The LEAST practical place to store a portable oxygen cylinder is: A) inside the jump kit. B) near the side or rear door. C) in the driver's compartment. D) on the ambulance stretcher. - Answer- C
112. Equipment and supplies that are carried on an ambulance should be stored: A) as directed by the EMS system's medical director. B) according to the urgency and frequency of their use. C) based on recommendations of the health department. D) in locked or secured cabinets in order to prevent theft. - Answer- B
113. Common safety equipment carried on the ambulance includes all of the following, EXCEPT: A) face shields. B) hazardous materials gear. C) safety goggles. D) turnout gear. - Answer- B
114. Hydroplaning of the ambulance on wet roads would MOST likely occur at speeds of greater than _____ mph. A) 10 B) 15 C) 20 D) 30 - Answer- D
115. When approaching a helicopter, whether the rotor blades are moving or not, you should: A) never duck under the body or the tail boom because the pilot cannot see you in these areas. B) remember that the main rotor blade is flexible and can dip as low as 5¢ to 6¢ from the ground. C) carefully approach the aircraft from the rear unless a crew member instructs you to do otherwise.

D) approach the aircraft from the side because this will make it easier for you to access the aircraft doors. - Answer- A

116. The scene size-up at a motor vehicle crash or other incident: A) is an ongoing process until the incident is terminated. B) should be performed by the most experienced EMT. C) is a quick visual assessment of the scene prior to entry. D) determines who is allowed to safely enter the hot zone. - Answer- A
117. Which of the following statements regarding the rapid extrication technique is correct? A) The only indication for performing a rapid extrication is if the patient is not entrapped and is in cardiac arrest. B) Rapid extrication involves the use of heavy equipment to disentangle a patient from his or her crashed vehicle. C) It involves rapidly removing a patient from his or her vehicle after immobilizing him or her with a short backboard. D) The rapid extrication technique is indicated if the scene is unsafe and the patient is not entrapped in his or her vehicle. - Answer- D
118. Upon arrival at a motor vehicle crash, the EMT should: A) leave only the essential warning lights activated. B) turn off the ambulance and set the emergency brake. C) turn off the emergency flashing lights and headlights. D) park at least 300 feet away from the accident scene. - Answer- A
119. The EMT's role at the scene of a search and rescue attempt is to: A) accompany search team members and provide care. B) direct the search effort from a centralized location. C) report to a location where the patient will be carried. D) stand by at the command post until the person is located. - Answer- D
120. Your primary concern when arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle crash is: A) gaining access to the patient(s). B) requesting additional resources. C) immediately beginning triage. D) surveying the area for hazards. - Answer- D
121. When you arrive at the scene where there is a potential for hazardous materials exposure: A) turn off your warning light. B) do not waste time waiting for the scene to be marked and protected. C) park your unit downhill of the scene. D) park your unit uphill of the scene. - Answer- D
122. If there are downed power lines near a vehicle involved in a crash, you should:

A) attempt to move the power lines yourself. B) touch the power lines with an object to see if there is active electricity. C) have the patient slowly exit the vehicle. D) have the patient remain in the vehicle. - Answer- D

123. _____ is responsible for properly securing and stabilizing the vehicle and providing a safe entrance and access to the patient. A) Law enforcement B) The rescue team C) The EMS service D) The hazardous materials unit - Answer- B
124. Lighting at a scene, establishing a tool and equipment area, and marking for a helicopter landing all fall under: A) logistics operations. B) EMS operations. C) support operations. D) law enforcement. - Answer- C
125. When arriving at the scene of a cave-in or trench collapse, response vehicles should be parked at least _____ away from the scene. A) 50 feet (15 m) B) 150 feet (46 m) C) 250 feet (76 m) D) 500 feet (152 m) - Answer- D
126. When functioning at the scene of a motor vehicle crash in which a patient will require complex extrication, you should enter the vehicle and provide care to the patient: A) only if the patient has experienced a major injury. B) after rescue personnel have cut the battery cables. C) after receiving approval from the incident commander. D) only after you believe the vehicle has been stabilized. - Answer- C
127. Trench collapses usually involve large areas of falling dirt that weigh approximately _______ per cubic foot. A) 50 lb B) 100 lb C) 150 lb D) 200 lb - Answer- B
128. You are standing by at the scene of a hostage situation when the incident commander advises you that one of his personnel has been shot. The patient is lying supine in an open area and is not moving. As the SWAT team escorts you to the patient, you should: A) limit your primary assessment to airway and breathing only.

B) treat only critical injuries before moving him to a safe place. C) grab him by the clothes and immediately move him to safety. D) perform a rapid assessment and move him to a place of safety - Answer- C

129. Once entrance and access to the patient have been provided, you should: A) allow extrication to commence. B) perform a primary assessment. C) administer high-flow oxygen. D) begin treating his or her injuries. - Answer- B
130. The rescue team is in the process of extricating a 40-year-old male from his truck. The patient's wife, who was uninjured in the crash, is calmly observing the extrication and asks you if her husband will be all right. You should: A) ensure that she is in a safe area, away from the scene. B) allow her to observe the extrication and keep her calm. C) ask her follow-up questions about the details of the crash. D) allow her to talk to her husband during the extrication. - Answer- A
131. Upon arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you can see three patients, one who is entrapped in his car and two who have been ejected from their vehicle. You should: A) begin triage to determine injury severity. B) call medical control for further direction. C) immediately request additional resources. D) request law enforcement for traffic control. - Answer- C
132. The EMT's responsibility during search-and-rescue operations is to _________. A) assist in the search on foot B) direct other incoming EMS units C) assume medical command D) wait at the staging area until the patient is located - Answer- D
133. At a scene with downed electrical lines, the EMT should _________. A) remain outside the danger (hot) zone B) enter the danger (hot) zone for patient removal only C) stabilize the patient in the danger (hot) zone D) relocate the danger (hot) zone away from the patient - Answer- A
134. When removing a critically injured patient from his or her vehicle, you should: A) remove him or her using a short backboard. B) move him or her in one fast, continuous step. C) protect the cervical spine during the entire process. D) release c-spine control to facilitate rapid removal. - Answer- C

135. A 33-year-old restrained driver of a motor vehicle crash is awake and alert, complaining only of neck pain and left leg pain. The vehicle is stable and no hazards are present. When removing this patient from his vehicle, you should: A) use the rapid extrication technique. B) immobilize him with a vest-style device. C) maintain slight traction to his neck area. D) apply a full leg splint prior to extrication - Answer- B
136. When victims involved in a multiple-casualty incident are moved to the treatment area: A) definitive care is provided and preparations for transport will be made. B) secondary triage is performed and the appropriate treatment is rendered. C) they will be rapidly assessed and prioritized according to their injuries. D) all uninjured patients are placed in a holding area and closely observed. - Answer- B
137. During a HazMat incident, you are working in the treatment area. As patients are removed from the danger zone, you should: A) remain where you are and have the patients brought to you. B) quickly decontaminate the patients and begin assessing them. C) perform a rapid assessment and then have them decontaminated. D) retrieve patients from the decontamination area and begin treatment. - Answer- A
138. Which of the following questions is of LEAST pertinence when the EMT is determining whether or not to declare a multiple-casualty incident and activate the incident command system? A) What will happen if there are more than two patients that require emergency care? B) How long will it take for additional resources to arrive at the scene once requested? C) How many paramedics are able to respond to the scene and provide advanced care? D) How many seriously injured patients can be effectively cared for in my ambulance? - Answer- C
139. You are at the scene of multiple-casualty incident when your partner slips and falls, injuring his leg. He is alert and responds appropriately to your questions. His respirations are 20 breath/min and his radial pulses are strong. What triage category should you assign your partner? A) Minimal B) Delayed C) Expectant D) Immediate - Answer- D
140. A patient who has experienced a back injury, with or without spinal cord damage, would be triaged with a __________ tag during a mass-casualty incident. A) red B) green C) black

D) yellow - Answer- D

141. Which of the following patients should be assigned an immediate (red tag) category? A) 22-year-old male with blunt abdominal trauma, tachycardia, pallor, and diaphoresis B) 29-year-old female with a back injury and numbness and tingling in her extremities C) 31-year-old male with an open fracture of the forearm and minimal external bleeding D) 36-year-old female with an open head injury, agonal breathing, and a slow pulse rate

• Answer- A

142. Which of the following MOST accurately describes a mass-casualty incident? A) An incident that involves more than five critically injured or ill patients B) An incident where patients have been exposed to hazardous materials C) An incident in which at least half of the patients are critically injured D) An incident that greatly taxes or depletes a system's available resources - Answer- D
143. Which of the following statements regarding the unified command system is correct? A) The unified command system is one in which one person is in charge, even if multiple agencies respond to a disaster or mass-casualty incident. B) Ideally, the unified command system is used for short-duration, limited incidents that require the services of a single agency from one jurisdiction. C) In a unified command system, there are separate ICs for fire, police, EMS, and any other agencies that respond to the incident. D) Under the unified command system, plans are drawn up in advance by all cooperating agencies that assume a shared responsibility for decision making. - Answer- D
144. Which of the following statements regarding storage containers and hazardous materials is correct? A) Red phosphorus from a drug laboratory is found in a blue container that is clearly labeled. B) In most cases, there is no correlation between the color of the container and the possible contents. C) Steel utility drums are used to contain acids, bases, and other corrosive chemicals and substances. D) The Emergency Response Guidebook tells you the type and color of container used to store hazardous materials. - Answer- B
145. Burn patients without airway compromise and patients with multiple bone or joint injuries should be marked with a __________ triage tag at a mass-casualty incident. A) red B) yellow C) green D) black - Answer- B

146. In the incident command system, organizational divisions may include sections, branches, divisions, and: A) groups. B) teams. C) platoons. D) squads. - Answer- A
147. Which of the following is considered a priority when determining what needs to be done during the scene size-up? A) Rescue operations B) Incident stabilization C) Notifying hospitals D) Establishing operations - Answer- B
148. The primary duty of the triage division is to: A) begin basic treatment. B) establish zones for categorized patients. C) communicate with the treatment division. D) ensure that every patient receives a primary assessment. - Answer- D
149. Which of the following definitions of a mass-casualty incident is correct? A) Any call that involves three or more patients B) Any situation that meets the demand of equipment or personnel C) Any incident that does not require mutual aid response D) Any call that involves at least one motor vehicle - Answer- A
150. A pediatric patient who is breathing 12 breaths/min would be categorized as: A) immediate. B) delayed. C) minimal. D) expectant. - Answer- A
151. Placards and labels on a storage container are intended to: A) advise responders of the appropriate neutralizing measures. B) broadly classify chemicals as being explosive or nonexplosive. C) provide specific information about the chemical being carried. D) give a general idea of the hazard inside that particular container. - Answer- D
152. Upon arriving at the scene of a possible hazardous materials (HazMat) incident involving several patients, you should: A) retrieve all critical patients. B) rope off the entire perimeter. C) carefully assess the situation. D) divert traffic away from the scene. - Answer- C

153. After primary triage, the triage supervisor should communicate all of the following information to the medical branch officer, EXCEPT: A) the total number of patients that have been triaged. B) the recommended transport destination for each patient. C) recommendations for movement to the treatment area. D) the number of patients in each triage category - Answer- B
154. While triaging patients at the scene of a building collapse, you encounter a young child who is conscious, alert, and breathing; has bilateral radial pulses; and has a severely angulated leg, which is not bleeding. According to the JumpSTART triage system, you should: A) quickly bind his legs together to stabilize the fracture, and continue triaging. B) assign him a delayed (yellow) category and continue triaging the other patients. C) evacuate him to a designated area and assign him a minimal (green) category. D) apply high-flow oxygen, obtain baseline vital signs, and continue triaging. - Answer- B
155. Which of your senses can be safely used to identify a HazMat incident? A) Sight and sound B) Sound and smell C) Smell and sight D) Sight and touch - Answer- A
156. The development of an incident action plan is the responsibility of the: A) planning section. B) logistics section. C) operations section. D) finance section. - Answer- A
157. In preparing for a disaster, EMS systems should have enough supplies for at least a ______ period of self-sufficiency. A) 24-hour B) 48-hour C) 72-hour D) 96-hour - Answer- C
158. Following proper decontamination, a 30-year-old male is brought to you. He is semiconscious and has rapid, shallow respirations. A quick visual assessment reveals no obvious bleeding. You should: A) begin some form of positive-pressure ventilation. B) ask a firefighter what the patient was exposed to. C) perform a rapid assessment to locate critical injuries. D) administer high-flow oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. - Answer- A
159. The FIRST step in the START triage system is to: A) focus on the patients who are unconscious.

B) scan the area for patients with severe bleeding. C) move all walking patients to a designated area. D) get a quick head count of all the patients involved. - Answer- C

160. Unlike a multiple-casualty incident, a natural disaster: A) often requires personnel to remain on scene for several days. B) exists when there are more than 100 critically injured patients. C) is typically short-lived and does not require as much manpower. D) usually does not require the incident command system process. - Answer- A
161. You are triaging four patients who were involved in a head-on motor vehicle crash. Which of the following patients should be assigned the highest (red) triage category? A) A 50-year-old male with an open head injury and no pulse B) A 49-year-old female with diabetes and difficulty breathing C) A 36-year-old female with back pain and numb extremities D) A 29-year-old male with bilaterally closed femur deformities - Answer- B
162. Which of the following duties or responsibilities does NOT fall within the realm of the medical branch of the incident command system? A) Triage B) Transport C) Treatment D) Extrication - Answer- D
163. According to the START triage system, what should you do if a patient is found to have a respiratory rate of 24 breaths/min? A) Administer high-flow oxygen. B) Triage the patient as delayed. C) Assess for bilateral radial pulses. D) Assess his or her neurologic status. - Answer- C
164. The function of the National Incident Management System (NIMS) is to: A) prepare for, prevent, respond to, and recover from domestic incidents. B) facilitate a standard method of incident command for natural disasters. C) prepare for the potential of a nuclear attack against the United States. D) educate city and county governments regarding foreign terrorist attacks. - Answer- A
165. A supervisor who has more than seven people reporting to him or her: A) is more beneficial to the overall effort than a supervisor with fewer personnel because his or her team can accomplish more tasks. B) should regularly report to the incident commander (IC) to inform him or her of the functions that his or her team is performing. C) has exceeded an effective span of control and should divide tasks and delegate the supervision of some tasks to another person. D) should assign a specific task to each person reporting to him or her and regularly follow up to ensure that the tasks were carried out. - Answer- C

166. A disease vector is defined as: A) the spectrum of signs that define a disease. B) any agent that acts as a carrier or transporter. C) the period of time between exposure and illness. D) the ability of a virus or bacterium to be spread. - Answer- B
167. Nerve agents, a class of chemicals called organophosphates, were first discovered while in search of a superior: A) vaccine. B) antibiotic. C) pesticide. D) detergent. - Answer- C
168. When multiple patients present with an acute onset of difficulty breathing, chest tightness, and hoarseness or stridor, you should be MOST suspicious of exposure to: A) a nerve agent. B) sarin or soman. C) a vesicant agent. D) phosgene or chlorine. - Answer- D
169. Symptoms of both inhaled and ingested ricin include: A) fever and headache. B) joint pain and bradycardia. C) liver necrosis and diarrhea. D) dehydration and convulsions. - Answer- A
170. The skin lesions associated with smallpox: A) initially form on the lower trunk. B) are of different shapes and sizes. C) develop early during the disease. D) are identical in their development. - Answer- D
171. _____ is a brownish-yellowish oily substance that is generally considered very persistent. A) Lewisite B) Phosgene oxime C) Sulfur mustard D) Vesicant - Answer- C
172. The most lethal of all the nerve agents is: A) V agent. B) sarin. C) soman. D) tabun. - Answer- A

173. What two medications do DuoDote Auto-Injectors contain? A) Atropine and 2-PAM chloride B) Atropine and epinephrine C) Epinephrine and 2-PAM chloride D) Lidocaine and atropine - Answer- A
174. Which of the following statements regarding anthrax is NOT true? A) It enters the body through inhalation, cutaneous, and gastrointestinal routes. B) It is caused by a deadly bacterium that lies dormant in a spore. C) A vaccine is available to prevent anthrax infections. D) Pulmonary anthrax is associated with the lowest risk of death if left untreated. - Answer- D
175. Which organ is most susceptible to pressure changes during an explosion? A) Liver B) Lung C) Heart D) Kidney - Answer- B
176. __________ rays easily penetrate through the human body and require lead or several inches of concrete to prevent penetration. A) Beta B) Alpha C) Neutron D) Gamma - Answer- D
177. The means by which a terrorist will spread a particular agent is called: A) incubation. B) aerosolization. C) weaponization. D) dissemination. - Answer- D
178. The incubation period for Ebola can be up to: A) 72 hours. B) 1 week. C) 6 months. D) 21 days. - Answer- D
179. The Centennial Park bombing during the 1996 Summer Olympics is an example of: A) domestic terrorism. B) apocalyptic violence. C) an ecoterrorist attack. D) state-sponsored terrorism. - Answer- A
180. Unlike viral agents, bacterial agents: A) are far less infectious. B) respond to antibiotics.

C) are usually not treatable. D) do not replicate in the body - Answer- B

181. Continual reassessment of the scene at a suspected terrorist or weapon of mass destruction incident is MOST important because: A) bystanders may destroy the evidence. B) weather conditions may change quickly. C) a secondary explosive device may detonate. D) terrorists are often at the scene after an attack. - Answer- C
182. In determining the potential for a terrorist attack, you should routinely observe all of the following on every call, EXCEPT: A) the type of call. B) the location type. C) weather conditions. D) victim's statements - Answer- C
183. Multiple people in a small town began experiencing abdominal cramps, excessive salivation and urination, and muscle twitching shortly after a small crop duster plane made several passes over the community. As you are assessing the patients, you further determine that most of them are bradycardic and have miosis. In addition to high-flow oxygen, the MOST appropriate treatment for these patients includes: A) amyl nitrate and naloxone. B) activated charcoal and glucose. C) atropine and pralidoxime chloride. D) epinephrine and hyperbaric oxygen - Answer- C
184. All of the following are vesicant agents, EXCEPT: A) sarin. B) lewisite. C) sulfur mustard. D) phosgene oxime. - Answer- A
185. Points of distribution (PODs) are strategically placed facilities where: A) weapons of mass destruction are distributed. B) chemical and biologic weapons are stockpiled. C) antidotes, antibiotics, and vaccines are distributed. D) chemical weapons are manufactured and distributed. - Answer- C
186. Assisting with endotracheal intubation may include: A) visualization of the vocal cords. B) ventilation and preoxygenation. C) inserting a supraglottic airway should the intubation attempt be unsuccessful. D) providing deep suctioning via the ET tube. - Answer- B
187. In dependent groups:

A) each individual is responsible for his or her own area. B) everyone works together with shared tasks C) each individual is told what to do by his or her supervisor or group leader. D) individuals do not have to wait for their assignment before taking action. - Answer- C

188. During the transfer of patient care: A) when possible, the team member giving the patient care report should hand off lifesaving care. B) both the team members giving and receiving the patient care report should focus on their own priorities. C) any lifesaving care should be done first and then any patient care reports can be done after the patient is transported. D) any lifesaving care should be completed quickly and only the relevant documentation of care need be transferred. - Answer- A
189. In order for a team to function effectively: A) all members are trained to the same level. B) only one member of the team speaks and provides direction. C) team member remains committed to their individual goals. D) each member knows what is expected of him or her. - Answer- D
190. Team leaders: A) work to accomplish their individual goals and results. B) should be the only member concerned with situational awareness. C) help individual team members to do their jobs and also work together. D) should make strong decisions in isolation and accept no input from team members. - Answer- C
191. Hyperventilation during the preoxygenation phase of endotracheal intubation: A) will decrease the likelihood of aspiration. B) is acceptable if done for fewer than 2 minutes. C) can cause gastric distention and hypotension. D) provides a better oxygen reserve for the patient. - Answer- C
192. You are attending to a 68-year-old female patient in cardiac arrest. An ALS provider arrives shortly after you do and the transfer of care is made. The ALS provider asks that you assist in the endotracheal intubation. As part of this process, you may be required to: A) ventilate and preoxygenate the patient but not handle any of the equipment required for the intubation. B) visualize the airway and look for any potential complications in advance of the intubation. C) help position the patient for a better view of the airway during the procedure. D) perform the intubation with assistance. - Answer- C
193. The effectiveness of pit crew CPR is dependent on:

A) defining clear roles and responsibilities before the call is received. B) protocols that allow the EMT to function without medical control. C) a team leader who is capable of performing all of the patient care tasks. D) rapidly assessing the patient before assigning roles and responsibilities. - Answer- A

194. EMTs arrive at the scene of an ill person. The EMR, who arrived before the EMTs, advises that the patient had a syncopal episode. The patient is conscious and alert and remains so throughout transport. When transferring patient care to the emergency department nurse, the EMT should advise the nurse that: A) the patient had a reported syncopal episode. B) she should contact the EMR about the incident. C) the EMR was probably mistaken about the episode. D) there is no evidence to support the syncopal episode. - Answer- A
195. If a problem with a team member is not directly or immediately impacting patient care, the team leader should: A) engage the team member at once. B) discuss the problem after the call. C) contact the medical director at once. D) ignore the problem to avoid conflict. - Answer- B
196. You are organizing a group of EMTs to provide triage in a mass-casualty exercise. In order for the group to be successful, it is essential that: A) individual goals are accomplished. B) individuals understand that their roles will all be accomplished the same way. C) individuals understand that this is a one-time exercise and that things will change in the field. D) individuals have an understanding of how the group will accomplish its goals. - Answer- D
197. When the EMT assists a paramedic with an advanced intervention, he or she should recall that the focus of the intervention is on: A) following local protocol. B) solving a clinical problem. C) completing the procedure. D) learning to perform the skill. - Answer- B
198. Which of the following would indicate that the endotracheal tube is NOT in the trachea? A) Decreased resistance when ventilating B) Absence of sounds over the epigastrium C) Steady increase in the oxygen saturation D) Absence of an end-tidal CO2 waveform - Answer- D

199. A team of EMTs is caring for a critically injured patient. The team leader advises the EMT that transport will not begin until the patient's closed forearm fracture is splinted. Utilizing the crew resource management model, the EMT should: A) repeat the request back to the team leader and then splint the patient's arm. B) ensure that the entire team is aware that transport will be delayed for splinting. C) disregard the team leader's request and contact medical control for guidance. D) advise the team leader that immediate transport is more important than splinting. - Answer- D
200. You are at a mass-casualty scene and in the process of organizing a group to be responsible for ongoing patient care. In order for the group to be successful: A) individual goals are accomplished. B) individuals have an understanding of how the group will accomplish its goals. C) individuals see this as a one-time exercise and that the group may change. D) all individuals have the same roles. - Answer- B