Emergency Medical Procedures and Protocols, Exams of Nursing

Download Emergency Medical Procedures and Protocols and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! EMT - Emergency Medical Technician FINAL EXAM STUDY GUIDE 1. What BEST describes the level of EMS training that emphasizes activation of the EMS system and provides immediate care for life-threatening problems? a. Emergency Medical Dispatcher b. Cardiac Care responder c. EMT d. Emergency Medical Responder 2. Which of the following is a personality trait required of EMTs? a. Ability to lift and carry 125 pounds b. Awareness of problems with color vision c. Ability to dominate the patientd. Control of perso l habits 3. In 1966 the National Highway Safety Act charged which of the following agencies with the development of emergency medical service standards? U.S. Department of Transportationa. b. U.S. Department of the Interior c. U.S. Department of Health Services d. U.S. Department of Homeland Security 2. Who is responsible for on-scene safety of EMS providers? a. Traffic director b. Law enforcement c. All crew members d. Triage officer 5. Which of the following is the primary responsibility of the EMT? a. Protect and stabilize the patient b. Communicate with other responders on the scenec. Maintai personal health and safety d. Provide emergency care 6. Upon arrival at the hospital, the EMT advises hospital personnel of the patient’s condition, observations from the scene, treatment rendered, and other pertinent data to assure continuity of care. This process is known as which of the following? Transfer of carea. b. Breach of duty c. Definitive care d. End of tour 7. What BEST describes the level of EMS training that emphasizes use of advanced airway devices and some prehospital medication administration? Advanced EMTa. b. Paramedic c. Emergency Medical Responder d. EMT 8. Centralized coordination or emergency medical access, transportation, and care most refers to which of the following? a. Emergency preparedness plan b. Trauma system One of the new EMTs asks the training officer why they have to keep taking EMT courses if they already passed the EMT examination. What is the best answer? a. The state requires the training b. EMTs forget everything once they pass the EMT exam c.It looks good to a jury should the service be sued d.EMS is constantly evolving in response to evidence-based research 24. Which of the following is a component of patient advocacy? a. Immobilizing the neck of a patient with a possible spinal injury b. Granting patient wishes and not reporting spousal abuse to the authorities c. Building rapport with the patient during transport to the hospital d. Providing oxygen to a patient that is short of breath 25. What level of emergency medical training provides the most advanced pre-hospital care? a. Advanced EMT b. Emergency Medical Responder c. Emergency Medical Technician d. Paramedic 26. Which one of these groups is at greatest risk of contracting and transmitting tuberculosis? a. Current and former smokersb. Immunosuppressed patients c. Uranium mine workers d. Healthcare practitioners 27. You are treating a patient who has a productive cough and who reports weight loss, loss of appetite, weakness, night sweats, and fever. Which of the following diseases is most likely the cause of these signs and symptoms? a. Hepatitis B b. Pneumonia c. AIDS d. Tuberculosis 28. Which of the following is the form of stress that can cause immediate and long-term problems with an EMT’s health and well-being? a. Megastress b. Hyperstress c. Distress d. Eustress 29. Which of the following is an accurate statement regarding tuberculosis (TB)? a. The incubation period of TB is from 1 to 7 days b. TB is not spread through surface contamination c.The TB pathogen only affects lung tissue d.A tuberculin skin test can detect TB exposure 30. You respond to a laceration call. When you arrive on-scene, you walk into the house and find a person suffering from a severe wrist laceration from a broken window. Without thinking, you immediately grab the wrist and apply direct pressure to the wound. You then realize that, in your hurry to save a life, you forgot to put on your gloves. You look down to see your hand is covered in blood. When practical, you immediately wash your hands thoroughly. What is your next best action? a. Report the exposure incident because it is the law and you could be fined a large sum of money for failing to report the exposure. Report the exposure so you can protect yourself from any accidental infection.b. c. Report the exposure. Failure to report the exposure may result in you not receiving financial compensation for a potential line-of-duty injury d. If your hand had no open wounds, it is not required to report the exposure as there is no risk of infection, and you could get in trouble at work for failure to follow policy. 31. What is the name of the federal act that mandates a procedure by which emergency healthcare providers can find out if they have been exposed to potentially life-threatening diseases while on the job? a. Communicable Disease Notification Act b. EMS Personnel Health Protection Act of 1991 c. Occupational Exposure to Bloodborne Pathogens Act d. Ryan White CARE Act 32. During which of these situations would the EMT be least likely to experience a body substance exposure? Splinting a sprained ankle a. Bandage a laceration b.Childbir th c. d. Glucometry 33. What is a common term used to describe the items needed for standard precautions or body substance isolation precautious? Personnel protective equipment a. Harm-reduction strategy b.Exposure-control equipment c. d. Infection-control plan 34. The CDC recommends using an alcohol-based hand sanitizer in all except which of the following situations(s)? a. The patient has a bloodborne communicable disease b. The patient has a respiratory illness c.The provider is not vaccinated against hepatitis B d. The provider’s hands come into contact with fecal matter. 35. Due to the high risk of an unstable work environment, EMTs responding to a motor vehicle crash may consider using in addition to standard PPE. Heavy-duty gloves a. N-95 masks b. c. d. Face shields Level B hazmat suits 36. Which of the following terms is best defined as “a state of physical and/or psychological arousal to a stimulus?” a. Homeostat b. Distress c. Stress d. Eustress 37. What are the minimum Standard Precautions an EMT should take when transporting a patient infected with Middle East Respiratory Syndrome (MERS)? a. Gloves, N-95 mask, and goggles b. Gloves c.Gloves and N-95 mask d.Gloves, N-95 mask, goggles, and gown 38. What mode of transmission most accurately describes the route of spreading hepatitis A? a. Respiratory droplet b. Unproteced sex c. Fecal-ora l d. Bloodborne 39. Which of the following pathogens can live in dried blood for days and should be a major concern for EMS providers even while cleaning contaminated equipment? a. Tuberculosis b. Hepatitis B c. Hepatitis A d. AIDS 40. Which of the following statements about HIV/AIDS is true? HIV positive needlesticks have less than a 0.05 percent infection rate a. HIV positive needlesticks have a 30 percent infection rate b.The HIV virus lives longer outside the body than Hepatitis B c. d. Drugs are not available that slow HIV from progressing into AIDS41. You are called to an assault on a homeless male. Dried blood from the trauma is visible around the patient’s mouth and nose. During the assessment you note the patient has a productive cough. The patient says, “Don’t worry, I’m not contagious. I’ve had this cough for a year.” Describe the best approach regarding respiratory isolation. a. Isolate the patient with a nonrebreather mask b. Mask yourself and the patient c. Mask yourself only d. Use gloves for PPE, as that is all needed 42. Which of the following descriptions BEST defines the term pathogen? a. An immunity developed after an exposure b. A study of the origins of infection and disease c.A medication with a harmful effect d. An organism that causes infection and disease 43. Which of the following is true regarding proper hand cleaning? a. Soap and water should be used following any patient contact if the EMT does not wear gloves b. If the EMT’s hands are visibly dirty, an alcohol-based hand cleaner is not sufficient. c. In cases where soap and water and alcohol-based hand cleaners are not immediately available, bleach wipes should be used. d. Three: two lifting and one spotting 58. Which of the following best describes an urgent? Moving a patient from a car directly to a long spine board a. b. Dragging a patient from a burning house using his shirt c. Using a sheet to move a patient from a bed to the stretcher d. Pulling a patient by her feet across a parking lot59. When placing all fing rs and the palm in contact with the object being lifted, you are using which of the following? a. Lock grip b. Power lift c. Power grip d. Vise grip 60. Which of the following patients should NOT be transported in a stair chair? Patient with a suspected spinal injury a. Patient with difficulty breathing b.Patient who is nauseat d c. d. Patient found lying in bed 61. How far apart should your hands be when using a power grip? a. 24 inchesb. 10 inches c. 6 inches d. 15 inches 62. Which of the following should you do when reaching for something? a. Keep your back in a locked-in position b. Avoid twisting c. Avoid reaching more than 20 inches in front of your body.d. All are correct 63. What is the main benefit of using a stair chair with a track-like system over a traditional stair chair? a. A stair chair with a track-like system can be manipulated to lift into an ambulance using a hydraulic system. b. A stair chair with a track-like system prevents the patient from having to be lifted downstairs c. There is no benefit of a track-like stair chair over a traditional stair chair d. Only one EMT is required to operate a stair chair with a track-like system. 64. Which of the methods listed below is best described as moving a patient from the floor to a stretcher by having two or more rescuers knee, curl the patient to their chest, stand, and then reverse the process to place the patient on the stretcher? Direct ground lift a. Direct carry b. c. d. Power lift Draw-sheet method 65. Which of the following devices is best suited for maneuvering a patient through a narrow hallway? a. Long backboard b. Flexible stretcher c. Wheeled stretcher d. Basket stretcher 66. Which of the following is NOT correct when performing a log roll? a. Keep your back straight b. Lean forward from the hips c.Use your shoulder muscles d.P ace both feet flat on the ground 67. If the weight being pulled is below the level of the EMT’s waist, he should be in a(n) position. Squattinga. b. Kneeling c. Feet-together d. Overhead 68. Which of the following factors should be considered before lifting any patient? a. The weight of the patient b. Your physical limitations c. Communicationsd. All are correct 69. When lifting a patient, a basic principle is to: a. Lift with your lower back b. Extend your arms to maximize your lift c. Rush your lift to minimize tour lift time d. Know your lifting limits. 70. When a stretcher with a patient secures to it is elevated, what occurs? a. The patient feels more comfortable being at near normal height b. The center of gravity is raised, and this causes a tip hazard c. The stretcher is more stable and easily pushed d. The EMTs lessen the possibility of injury from being bent over the patient 71. Where should you position the weight of the object being lifted?a. As far fr m the body as possible b. An arm’s length away from the body c.To one side or the other d.As close to the body as possible72. While of the following is the correct position of an EMT’s feet when lifting? a. Shoulder-width apart b. As close together as possible c. As wide apart as possible d. Two feet apart 73. Which of the following devices should be used to carry a patient down the stairs whenever possible? a. Stair chair b. Scoop stretcher c. Basket stretcher d. Wheeled ambulance stretcher 74. The term body mechanics describes the proper use of your body to lift without injury. What are the three considerations to review before any lift? The object, your limitations, and communications a. Equipment, patient injury, and communication b.The object, patient injury, and communication c. d. Environment, physical limitations, and communication 75. Which of the following is another name for the squat-lift position? a. Power grip b. Power lift c. Weight-lifter technique d. Direct carry 76. Sharing information about a patient’s medical history with your neighbor after you hear a call on a radio scanner would constitute which of the following? a. Slander b. Violating of patient privacy c. Breach of confidentiality d. Libel 77. You are providing care to a 54-year-old male patient complaining of chest pain. The patient asks to speak to you privately. He tells you he is taking Cialis for erectile dysfunction and his wife does not know he is taking it. He does not want his wife to find out. As you are putting the EMS bags back in the ambulance, the wife corners you and insists that you tell her what her husband said. What should you do? a. You should tell her. As his spouse she is legally entitled to know his medical information b. You should not tell her, there is no reason to humiliate your patient by disclosing his embarrassing condition. c. You should tell her. He may be having an affair without her knowledge and she needs to be tested for sexually transmitted diseases. d. You should not tell her. By law, your conversion with your patient is confidential 78. You are on the scene with a 72-year-old make patient with chest pain. The patient is complaining of shortness of breath but also refuses to go to the hospital, even after multiple attempts urging him to go. Which of the following should you do next? Fully inform the patient about his situation and the implications of refusing care a. Stay with the patient until he loses conscious ess b. c. Inform the patient that he is having a “heart attack” and must be taken to the hospital for evaluation. d. Contact medical direction for orders to restrain the patient. 79. Which of the following is NOT required to prove a claim of negligence against an EMT? a. The EMT has a duty to act. b. Proximate causation existed c.The EMT failed to act according to the standard of care d.The patient was in fear of bodily harm at the time of the incident. b. Slander c. Degradation of character d. HIPAA violation 93. Which of the following refers to the set of regulations that defines the legal actions expected and limitations placed on the EMT? Protocols and standing orders a. Scope of practice b.Legal standards of practice c. d. Professional standards 94. Your patient is a 45-year-old man who is suffering from chest pain. Upon arrival, the patient is pale, sweaty, and seems short of breath. The patient is angry with his daughter for calling 911. He says that he had some spicy sausage for breakfast and has indigestion. Which of the following is an appropriate means of getting the patient the care he needs? Try to find out why the patient does not want to go to the hospital. a. b. Call the patient's neighbors and tell them that you have been called to the patient's house but he is now refusing care. c. Inform the patient that if he does not agree to treatment, you will have to take him against his will because he has a potentially life-threatening problem. d. Tell the patient that his chest pain is most likely caused by his diet, have him take an antacid, and go to bed. 95. You respond to the report of an unconscious female patient. You can acquire important medical information about the patient through which of the following? Medical identification devicea. b. Driver's license c. Medical history identifier d. On-call Medical Director 96. Which of the following refers to the care that would be expected to be provided by an EMT with similar training when caring for a patient in a similar situation? a. Scope of practice b. Standard of care c. Protocols and standing orders d. Professional standards 97. Your patient is a 10-year-old boy who suffered a possible fractured arm while rollerblading at a friend's house. Which of the following is the BEST way to obtain consent for treatment? a. Act on implied consent. b. Get consent from the patient's 15-year-old sister, who is at the scene. c. Call the patient's mother at work. d. Allow the patient to consent as an emancipated minor. 98. In which of the following situations is it legal to share information about treatment you provided to a patient? a. The triage nurse at the emergency department asks about the care you provided to thepatient. b. The patient gives verbal consent to release information to a friend. c. The patient's lawyer requests the information over the phone. d. You are asked by a coworker who knows the patient. 99. Which of the following statements is true concerning protection by Good Samaritan laws? a. A Good Samaritan law allows an EMT to exceed the scope of practice, if necessary, when providing emergency care off-duty b.An EMT is expected to act as a lay person when providing emergency care off- duty. c.The purpose of Good Samaritan laws is to protect people who are trying to help in anemergency. 100. d. An EMT cannot be sued for negligence if the state in which he works has a Good Samaritan law. Two EMTs respond to the scene of a syncopal episode. They evaluate a 50-year-old malepatient who passed out and cut his upper lip. The EMTs examine the patient and his vital signs are normal. The EMTs talk the patient out of an expensive ambulance ride and suggest he will save money by driving himself to the urgent care clinic for stitches for his lip rather than waiting all night in the emergency department as a nonemergency patient. The patient signs the EMS refusal form. The patient decides to see his own doctor the next morning but dies at his house from sudden cardiac arrest an hour later. Which of the following statements is true? The EMTs are not negligent because the patient signed the refusal form. a. b. The EMTs are negligent because the patient died. c. The EMTs are negligent because there was proximate causation. d. The EMTs are not negligent because the EMTs have no control over the patient's medical condition What is the distinction between anatomy and physiology? e. Anatomy is the study of physical body structures, whereas physiology is the study of emotions and behavior. f. The terms are synonymous. g. Anatomy is the study of body components and systems, and physiology is the study of injuries and disease processes. 101. d. Anatomy is the study of body structures, and physiology is the study of body function.102. With regard to medical terminology, a prefix is: added to the beginnings of roots or words to modify or qualify their meaning 103. Right medial a. b. th foundation of a word or term. c. the combination of any two or more whole words. d. a modifier that indicates if a term is singular or plural. The abdominal quadrants include all of the following except the: e. Right upper f.Left lower c. d. Left upper The term lateral is best defined as: a. Under the arms b. Toward the middle of c. To the back of 104. d. To the side 105. What is the primary reason for an EMT to use specific and proper medical terminology? a. People may think that an EMT is not intelligent or professional unless she uses medical terms. Medical communication needs to be exact and consistent. 106. b. c. It will make patients and family members trust in the EMT's abilities more. d. EMS providers can't bill for services unless the correct terminology is used in all documentation. While transporting a patient with a traumatic wound to the back, you call in report tothe receiving hospital over the radio. Due to radio static and background noise in the Emergency Department, the physician has had to ask you twice to repeat if the wound was superior or inferior. Why would this distinction be important? a. The physician is just trying to determine if the wound is deep or not so she knows what to prepare for. b. The answer is not necessarily important. The physician is just focusing on getting her standard questions answered while dealing with an inadequate radio system.c. The location of the wound is important in determining which types of resources to haveavailable when the patient arrives. d. It is a triage question to determine if the patient is critical or not so the hospital can prioritize. What word would be used to refer to a patient's rapid breathing? a. Tachycardia b. Dyspnea 107. c. Tachypnea d. Dyseffusion A patient with bilateral femur fractures would have which of the following? a. Two fractures in the same femur b. A femur fracture occurring with little or no trauma c. A femur fracture in which the bone ends have punctured the muscle and skin of the thigh 108. d. Fractures of both femurs 109. You and your EMT partner are responding to a medical aid call in the rural West Countyarea. The dispatcher advises that the caller is reporting the patient as having a history of "plegia." Why would it be beneficial to have the dispatcher clarify a prefix for the word plegia?a. Without a clarifying prefix, it is difficult for the EMTs to effectively prepare for the type ofpatient they may encounter. b. Because a dysplegiac patient generally requires an EMT-Paramedic level of care, and it may change the level of response. c. A patient with plegia is potentially contagious, and the EMTs need to know what precautions are required. d. There is actually no need to clarify the word. Why should an EMT avoid the use of acronyms and abbreviations when communicating? e. They should only be avoided in verbal communications, where they can be misunderstood; they are expected in written patient care reports. 110. b. There is a chance that they can lead to errors in co tinu d care for the patient 124. b. A line drawn diagonally from the outer end of the clavicle to the navel c. A line drawn horizontally from one armpit to the other, across the front of the body d. A line drawn vertically from the xiphoid process to the pubic bone To check the distal pulse of a patient with an injury to the forearm, the EMT would checkfor a pulse in which location? a. Armpit b. Wrist c. Upper arm d. Throat Which of the following describes the Fowler position? e. Lying flat on the back f. Lying on the side g.Lying on the stomach d. 125. Sitting upright with the legs straight 126. Physiology is the study of: a. Body structures b. Muscles and movement c. Body systems d. Exercise and nutrition In relation to anatomy, the term topography means:127. external landmarks of body structures. a. the study of the skin. b. c. d. 128. A state of inadequate tissue perfusion blood pressure fluctuations key elements of the central nervous system. Which of the following BEST describes the medical condition of shock? a. Hypotension b. c. d. An extreme emotional reaction to a stressful event Delayed capillary refill Which of the following structures or tissues is NOT part of the musculoskeletal system? a. Ligaments b. Acetabulum 129. c. Fat d. Tendons Which of the following structures do NOT form part of the thorax?130. a. Sternum b. Ribs c. 8th through 19th vertebrae d. Ischium 131. What are the two most easily injured portions of the spine? a. Sacral and coccygeal b. Cervical and thoracicc. r i l lumbar d. Lumbar and sacral 132. Which of the following terms describes the heart muscle's ability to generate its ownelectrical impulses? a. Contractility b. Conductivity c. Automaticity d. Irritability Which of the following respiratory processes requires the active use of muscles?133. a. Inhalation b. Bifurcation c. Exhalation d. Gas exchange What type of muscles control the size of the bronchioles in the lungs? e. Voluntary f. Striated g. Skeletal 134. d. mooth 135. Which of the following organs functions as a reservoir for blood that can be used in caseof blood loss? a. Liver b. Spleen c. Thyroid gland d. Heart An artery is a blood vessel that only: e. returns blood to the heart. f. carries oxygenated blood. g.carries deoxygenated blood. d. 136. carries blood away from the heart 137. The cardiac muscle receives its supply of oxygenated blood by which of the followingmechanisms? 138. 139. a. Coronary arteries that branch off the aorta b. Coronary veins that branch off the pulmonary vein as it returns oxygenated blood to the heart c. Absorption of oxygen from the blood returning from the lungs d. None are correct A clot cannot form without which of the following blood components? e. Plasma f. Corpuscles g. Platelets h. White blood cells You are caring for a 47-year-old male patient with classical chest pain suggestive of a myocardial infarction. Based on your understanding of the cardiovascular system, you know he could be suffering from damage, narrowing, or blockage of what arteries? a. Pulmonary arteries b. Coronary arteries 140. c. Brachial arteries d. Femoral arteries Which of the following types of blood vessels allow the exchange of substances directlybetween the blood and the cells of the body? 141. 142. a. Veins b. Alveoli c. Capillaries d. Arterioles Which of the following makes up more than half of the volume of blood in the body? e. Platelets f. Plasma g. Red blood cells h. White corpuscles You have been dispatched to the site of a construction accident where a 36-year-oldmale patient was moderately cut by some machinery. His left arm has a 4" d ep lacer ti n that appears to have stopped bleeding with the gauze and direct pressure applied by his coworkers. Your knowledge of physiology suggests that which component of blood was partially responsible for forming clotting factors to stop the bleeding? 143. a. Platelets b. White blood cells c. Plasma d. Red blood cells What condition of immediate concern results from a loss of red blood cells due tohemorrhage? 144. a. Decreased ability to fight infection b. Decrease in pulse rate c. Decreased oxygen delivery to the tissues d. Decreased production of carbon dioxide The pressure against the walls of the blood vessels as blood is ejected from the heartand circulates through the body is the blood pressure. a. Systolic b. Diastolic c. Central venous d. Mean arterial The pulse palpated on the top of the foot is called the pulse. e. phalanx proximalis f. tibialis posterior g. dorsalis pedis h. suprametatarsal In which of the following locations is the femoral pulse palpated? i. At the groin j. Behind the knee k. On the medial side of the ankle, posterior to the tibia l. On the medial side of the upper arm 145. 146. 162. You are on the scene at a local park where a 51-year-old male is reported to be confusedand having difficulty walking. Your partner notes that the patient is wearing a bracelet indicating he is diabetic. Upon questioning, the patient is able to report that he has not eaten in 8 hours. Your knowledge of pathophysiology suggests that the patient may be suffering from a diabetic emergency. Glucose is a building block for what form of energy in the cell? 163. 164. 165. a. Mitochondria b. Electrolytes c. ATP d. Endoplasmic reticulum Which of the following BEST defines adenosine triphosphate (ATP)? e. It is the form of energy produced in the mitochondria and is the cell's engine responsible for all cell function. f. It is the form of energy produced in the endoplasmic reticulum and is the cell's engine responsible for all cell function. g. It is the form of energy that is produced in the nucleus from glucose and other nutrients. h. It is the form of energy that is produced in the mitochondria from glucose and DNA. The cellular structure that is responsible for synthesizing proteins is: i. mitochondria. j. endoplasmic reticulum k. nucleus. l. sodium pump The movement of ions across the cell membrane is needed to accomplish repolarization. What cell structure is used to prepare for d polarizatio ? a. Mitochondria b. Nucleus c. Endoplasmic reticulum d. Sodium potassium pump The most vulnerable part of the cell is the: e. mitochondria. f. DNA g. Membrane h. Nucleus Cells make up tissues, tissues make up organs, and organs make up: i. Organelles j. Sections k. systems. l. Groups What substances, when dissolved, separate into charged particles? m. ATP n. Electrolytes o. Cations p. Ions The basic nutrient of the cell and the building block for energy is: q. Glucose 166. 167. 168. 169. 170. 171. 172. b. Protein c. Oxygen d. Water What element does the cell need in order to NOT dehydrate and die? e. Glucose f. Proteins g. Water h. Oxygen The process by which glucose and other nutrients are converted into energy is called: i. catabolism. j. Respiration k. Metabolism l. Depolarization What is the type of metabolism that occurs when energy is created with a balance ofadequate oxygen and nutrients? 173. a. Anaerobic b. Aerobic c. Hypoxic d. Homeostatic The metabolism that creates large amounts of carbon dioxide and lactic acid butgenerates little energy is called: 174. a. homeostatic. b. hyperoxic. c. aerobic. d. anaerobic. Our blood transports oxygen from the lungs to the cells and returns with whatbyproduct of metabolism? 175. a. Lactic acid b. Carbolic acid c. Carbon dioxide d. Carbon monoxide The respiratory system moves air in and out; however, to cells, the air that isinhaled must meet up with the circulatory system. 176. a. Defuse b. Hyperoxygenate c. Register d. Perfuse You have been called to a private residence where a 16-year-old female patient is reported by her parents to be "acting strangely" and possibly "on something." Upon your arrival, the patient is locked in her bedroom refusing to open the door. The patient refuses to speak to you and will only come out if her best friend is present. Your knowledge of life-span development indicates that the following characteristics are common with a patient of this age. a. Depression and suicide b. Preoccupation with body image c. Self-destructive behaviors such as tobacco, alcohol, and drug used. All are correct 177. What is the stage of development where there are several physiological and psychosocial changes, second only to infancy or adolescence? Late adulthood 178. a. b. Middle adulthood c. Toddler d. Preschool age When you place your finger in an infant's palm, she grasps it with her fingers. This is anexample of which reflex? a. Sucking b. Palmar c. Rooting d. Moro At which of the following stages is toilet-training most likely to begin? e. Preschool age f. Infant 179. c. Toddler 180. d. School age Which of the following is the term used to describe an infant's reaction to hisenvironment? a. Attitude b. Bonding c.Personali ty d.Temperament 181. You have been dispatched to a shopping mall to assess a 1-month-old female patient that tumbled out of her stroller while her mother was shopping. Upon your arrival, the baby is awake, alert, and happily smiling and cooing at her mom. The mother reports that the child did not appear to suffer any injuries as a result of the fall. As you assess the patient and place your finger in her hand, she grasps it tightly. This is known as the: a. sucking reflex. b. Moro reflex. c. palmar reflex 182. d. rooting reflex. You are assessing a 6-month-old female patient who, according to the parents, is notacting normally. At this stage of development, the patient should be able to do which of the following? Sit upright in a high chair a. Sit alone on the floor b. c. d. 183. Sleep Respond to the word "no" You are assessing a female patient with depression. She tells you that her psychologistsaid that he is dealing with "empty-nest syndrome." What age group is this associated with?a. Middle adulthood Adolescence 199. b. c. Middle adulthood d. Early adulthood Your 89-year-old male patient has called for help because he almost passed out afterbringing in his garbage cans from the curb. The patient lives alone and says that he became panicked when he started feeling so lightheaded and dizzy. Patients in this age group often undergo all of the following changes to their health, except: a. blood volume decreases b. increased metabolism c. sleep-wake cycle disrupted. d. deterioration of respiratory system. Which of the following is NOT a common psychosocial challenge of late adulthood? 200. a. Self-destructive behaviors b. Concern about death and dying c. Financial burdens d. Issues of self-worth The high-pitched sound caused by an upper airway obstruction is known as: e. gurgling. 201. b. Stridor c. Rhonchi d. rales. The trachea branches off at the and forms two mainstem bronchi. e. Bronchioles f. Pleura g. Alveoli 202. d. Carina 203. Which of the following patients should NOT have their airway opened using a head- tilt,chin-lift maneuver? a. A 35-year-old diabetic woman who is in the driver's seat of the car in her driveway, who becomes unresponsive while speaking to her husband b. A homeless person of undetermined age found lying unresponsive in an alley with nobystanders. c. A 50-year-old woman who choked on a piece of food while dining in a restaurant and was lowered to the floor by a waiter d. A 25-year-old man who is still unresponsive after a grand mal seizure. All of the following can result in airway obstructions, except: e. burns. f. infections. 204. c. the tongue 205. d. facial trauma. On which of the following types of calls should you bring your portable suction unit tothe patient's side upon arrival on the scene? a. Motor vehicle collision b. Cardiac arrest c. Seizure d. All are correct 206. You are ventilating an 85-year-old male without difficulty. A nurse tells you that the patient has dentures. To ensure a good mask seal, you should: leave the dentures in place. a. tape the dentures in place. b.remove the dentures c. d. 207. use an infant mask over the nose To be effective, a suction unit must be able to generate air flow of liters per minute and create a vacuum of mmHg. a. 300; 30 b. 30; 30 c. 300; 330 d. 30; 300 208. Which of the following is a sign of an inadequate airway? a. Regular chest movements b. Nasal flaring c. Equal expansion of both sides of the chest when patient inhales d. Typical skin coloration Which of the following is an advantage of using a nasopharyngeal airway (NPA)? e. It eliminates the need for manual positioning of the patient's head to keep the airway open f. It is ideal for patients with a suspected skull fracture. 209. c. It may be tolerated by many patients with a gag reflex.d. All are correct Perhaps the simplest way to determine if a patient has a patent airway is to: 210. a. say "hello." 211. b. check for adequate chest rise. c. determine a respiratory rate. d. auscultate for breath sounds Which of the following is true concerning the procedure for inserting a nasopharyngealairway (NPA)? The bevel should be turned toward the nasal septum 212. Insert the catheter or tip to the desired depth prior to applying suction. a. b. If a water-soluble lubricant is not available, a silicon spray can be substituted. c. It can only be placed in the right nostril. d. The length of the device is not as important as it is with oropharyngeal airways. Which of the following is the correct method of suctioning? e.Suction intermittently, both while inserting and withdrawing the suction tip or catheter. b. c. d. 213. Begin suctioning as you insert the suction tip or catheter into the mouth Suction continuously, both while inserting and withdrawing the suction tip or catheter. What is the sound of the soft tissue of the upper airway creating impedance or partial obstruction to the flow of air? a. Stridor b. Hoarseness c. Snoring 214. d. Gurgling Your patient is breathing 4 shallow breaths per minute due to overdosing on his pain medication but he has a palpable radial pulse. He vomited prior to your arrival and is choking. You should: roll him over onto his side to clear the airway a. insert an oropharyngeal airway and ventilate. b. c. d. 215. perform chest thrusts to clear the lungs. move the patient to the ambulance and suction. When suctioning the airway, suction should never be applied for longer than seconds. 216. a. 10 b. 30 c. 45 d. 60 You have performed a head tilt-chin lift maneuver on a 17-month-old boy and are attempting to ventilate him with a bag-valve mask. You are experiencing a lot of resistance with each breath and the chest is barely rising. Prior to attempting ventilations again, you should: a. finger sweep the airway. b. tilt the head back further. c.perform chest thrusts. d.ease the head forward a little. 217. Which of the following is a disadvantage of oropharyngeal airways (OPAs)? a. They cannot be used in patients with a suspected skull fracture b. They do not come in pediatric sizes. c.They require the use of a water-soluble lubricant. d.They cannot be used in a patient with a gag reflex218. Loss of muscle tone and airway collapse What is the danger that an altered mental status can pose to a patient's breathing? a. Depressed alveolar fu ction b. c. d. Bronchospasms Hyperoxia Which of the following structures is found in the lower airway? 219. a. Br nchi 220. b. Uvula c. Pharynx d. Tonsils Which of the following should be kept in mind when assessing and managing the airwayof a pediatric patient? a. The trachea is easily obstructed by swelling. b. The tongue is not as likely to obstruct the airway as in an adult. c. Due to their short necks, pediatric patients require a greater degree of hyperextension to open the airway than do adults. 234. c. It requires chest muscles to contract and use energy to move, creating a negative pressure d. It uses oxygen to assist chest muscles to contract, creating a negative pressure. The movement of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the alveoli and circulating bloodis called: 235. a. internal respiration. b. osmosis. c. cellular respiration. d. pulmonary respiration. A 21-year-old patient presents with labored breathing and audible wheezes, heart rate of 124, respiration 36; he has significantly altered mentation. What is the treatment for this patient? 236. 237. 238. a. Supplement the breaths with high-concentration oxygen through a nonrebreather mask. b. Use a pocket mask, which will provide adequate oxygen to improve the patient's condition. c. Ventilate with a bag-valve mask with high oxygen or FROPVD d. Give mouth-to-mouth breathing with a nasal cannula, providing the patient with an increase of oxygen. What device is used to perform mouth-to-mask ventilation? e. Pocket face mask f. Bag-valve mask g. Stoma h. Automatic transport ventilator When does respiratory distress change to respiratory failure? i. When the respiratory challenge continues, the systems fail with the demand for oxygen, pupils dilate, and the skin becomes hot and dry. j. When the respiratory challenge continues, the systems cannot keep up with the demand, and skin color and mental status change. k. When the patient who is short of breath, with noisy respiration, presents in the tripod position but then suddenly has the condition clear up and return to normal. l. When the compensatory mechanism is no longer needed and the patient goes into arrest. For life to be maintained, a balance of oxygen and carbon dioxide is needed. The condition when oxygen levels are low is called: 239. a. hypotension. b. hypercarbia. c. hyperventilation. d. hypoxia. The movement of oxygen and carbon dioxide across the cell membranes from thecapillaries is called: a. external respiration. b. dehydration. c. internal respiration. d. oxygenation. 240. You and your EMT partner are preparing to ventilate an elderly non-trauma patient who has a stoma. Your partner performs the head-tilt, chin-lift maneuver and you ask him to return the patient's head to a neutral position. "Why? This is not a pediatric patient!" your partner protests. What would you say? 241. 242. a. Elderly patients should never have their heads tilted back because spinal curvatures are common and can prevent airway positioning. b. It is not necessary to position the airway of a stoma breather when providing ventilations. c. Stoma breathers should only have their airways positioned after placement of the ventilation device. d. Using the head-tilt, chin-lift prior to clearing any mucus plugs from the stoma can cause airway occlusion. Which of the following BEST describes inadequate breathing? e. The respiratory rate is slower than normal. f. The minute volume is less than normal. g. The minute volume is greater than normal. h. The respiratory rate is faster than normal. You are aggressively ventilating an adult patient with a bag-valve mask when you noticethat his previously strong pulse is getting weaker. You should: a. increase the concentration of oxygen. b. reduce the concentration of oxygen. c. reduce the volume of the ventilations d. begin chest compressions. What signs and symptoms would indicate inadequate breathing in a patient? e. Increased effort to breathe, increased depth of respiration, pink dry skin, normal mental status f. Rapid breathing, pale skin, and a normal mental status g. Decreased depth of respiration, decreased rate of breathing, hot clammy skin, normal mental status h. Increased effort to breathe, cyanosis, cool clammy skin, altered mental status What is NOT one of the basic parts of a bag-valve-mask system? i. Self-refilling shell j. Non-jam valve k. Be nonrebreathing l. 15/25 respiratory fitting To calculate the minute volume, you need to multiply what two measurements? m. Tidal volume and respiratory rate n. Alveolar ventilation and respiratory rate o. Respiratory rate and bronchial dilation p. Tidal volume and dead space air The process of air moving in and out of the chest is called: q. tidal volume r. inhalation. s. respiration. 243. 244. 245. 246. 247. d. ventilation. Why does a patient involved in an auto crash who has major internal abdominalbleeding require oxygen to maintain internal respiration? 248. 249. a. The red blood cells have a reduction of hemoglobin that reduces the amount of oxygen that can be transported. b. A lack of oxygen in the air decreases the oxygen diffused into the bloodstream, which creates an increase of carbon dioxide. c. The swelling of the abdominal space causes the diaphragm to be restricted, which will reduce the thorax space. d. A lack of circulating volume decreases the oxygen and carbon dioxide transport capability In assessing a patient's breathing, what is your first question? e. Is he breathing? f. Is he alive or dead? g. Is his breathing adequate or inadequate? h. Is he big sick or little sick? An injury caused by an object that passes through the skin or other body tissue is knownas which of the foll ing? 250. a. Cavitating trauma b. Puncturing trauma c. Penetrating trauma d. Impaling trauma You are on the scene of an explosion at a suspected methamphetamine manufacturing operation. You and your partner are the first to arrive and note two middle-aged men and a woman on the front lawn with burns and cuts on their faces and arms. The fire department is en route. Which of the following resources should be the LEAST important to be requested by the EMT during the scene size-up? 251. 252. a. Gas company b. Law enforcement c. One or two additional ambulances d. Hazardous material clean-up crew A fall is considered severe anytime an adult patient has fallen more than feet. e. 20 f. 15 g. 10 h. 8 When considering the potential for injury from a fall, which of the following is LEASTimportant? a. Height of the fall b. Type of surface onto which the patient fell c. Whether the patient struck anything with his body on the way down d. Patient's weight Which of the following is NOT determined in a scene size-up? e. Chief complaint 253. 267. c. Patient's femur d. All are correct As you arrive at the scene of a house fire, a very upset man screams at you to help his young son, who is trapped under a piece of burning wood on the ground. Which of the following should you do first? 268. a. With the father's help, grab the boy by the arms and pull him from underneath the wood. b. Size-up the scene before acting c. Perform an initial assessment on the patient. d. Use a blanket to put out the fire on the piece of wood. When determining possible injuries suffered from a gunshot wound, which of the following is true? 269. a. The EMT must ask the patient or bystanders exactly where the shooter was standing. b. Bullets pass in a straight line through the body from the point of entry to the exit wound. c. The EMT must determine the caliber of ammunition involved. d. The EMT must be aware that bullets cause damage in more than one way Which of the following is NOT a consideration that should be used by the EMT in establishing t e size of the danger zone? 270. a. Presence of hazardous materials b. Wind direction c. Amount of equipment needed d. Fire Which of the following is true concerning the potential for violence at the scene of anEMS call? 271. a. An unusual lack of activity at the scene may signal impending violence against the EMT. b. The chance for violence is very low at emergency scenes. c. You do not need to worry about violence at an emergency scene once the police have secured it. d. Signs of impending violence are obvious if you know what to look for. As you are assessing a 32-year-old asthmatic woman who has called EMS due todifficulty breathing, her husb nd enters the ho e through a back door nd shouts, "Get your hands off her; she doesn't need your help. She needs to be taught a lesson about her smart mouth." Which of the following is the best course of action? a. Attempt to remove the patient from the home and continue treatment en route to the hospital. b. Continue assessment and respond that the patient is sick and needs medical attention. c. Leave the scene and patient, then notify police. d. Let the husband know that his behavior is inappropriate, and if it continues you will call for the police. At what point is the scene size-up complete? e. When crashed vehicles have been stabilized f. At the end of the call g. Upon stabilization of the c-spine h. When the number of patients has been determined 272. 273. Your patient, a 29-year-old female, was the front seat passenger in a vehicle that was struck in the passenger's side door by another vehicle that ran a red light. Which of the following is most likely to have occurred? 274. a. The patient impacted the steering wheel with her chest, causing a fracture of the sternum. b. The patient took the "down and under" pathway, causing trauma to her lower extremities. c. The patient's body was pushed forcefully out from under her head, causing injury to the cervical spine d. The patient took the "up and over" pathway, striking her head on the windshield. You are at the scene where a 19-year-old female college student has been drinking large quantities of alcohol throughout the evening. On your arrival, the patient is lying on her back with no signs of trauma, has vomited, and has slow, wet sounding respirations. Which of the following should you do next? 275. 276. a. Determine the respiratory rate. b. Check for carotid and radial pulses. c. Assist respirations with a bag-valve-mask device. d. Open the patient's airway using a head-tilt, chin-lift maneuver In EMS, which of the following BEST describes the term intervention? e. Determining if there is a problem f. Taking steps to correct a problem g. Creating a permanent record of patient care h. Decreasing the EMT's liability for negligence Which of the following is NOT performed during the "Airway" phase of the primaryassessment? a. Head-tilt, chin-lift maneuver b. Obtaining the respiratory rate c. Suctioning d. Insertion of an oropharyngeal airway 277. Your patient is a middle-aged man who appears to be in distress and is clutching his chest. These observations lead you to suspect which type of problem? a. Choking b. Cardiac c. Anaphylaxis d. Digestive 278. You are approaching a young adult male lying supine on the ground with his eyes closed.You shou d: a. open his airway. b. ask him if he is okay c. expose his chest. d. feel for a pulse. 279. The mnemonic AVPU is used to evaluate which of the following? a. Patient's chief complaint b. Patient's level of responsiveness c. Patient's transport priority d. EMT's general impression of the patient's condition 280. Which of the following is true concerning the primary assessment? a. Manual airway maneuvers must be performed on all patients. b. The EMT should perform a sternal rub on all patients to test for response to painful stimuli. c. External bleeding will be obvious as you enter the room and initially see the patient. d. The primary assessment begins by just observing the patient as you enter the room281. should: You find a middle-aged unresponsive man lying prone on the ground near a ladder. You a. move the ladder out of the way. b. roll him over to a supine position. c. pick him up with a scoop stretcher. d. manually immobilize his head. 282. In EMS, what does mental status refer to? d. All are correct 290. Which of the following is NOT true regarding a patient who has a mental status of lessthan "alert"? a. His brain may not be getting enough oxygen. b. He is in a state of rapid eye movement sleep c. He may not have adequate blood circulation. d. He requires high-concentration oxygen. 291. Your patient is a 72-year-old female who has "twisted her ankle" coming down somesteps. She is alert and complaining of pain in her right ankle, but she jokes about her "clumsiness." Which of the following should you do next? a. Take immediate manual control of the patient's cervical spine. b. Administer high-concentration oxygen by nonrebreather mask. c. Determine the presence of a carotid pulse. d. Ask if the patient has pain anywhere besides her ankle 292. Which of the following represents the correct order of assessment for the EMT duringthe primary assessment from start to end? a. General impression, mental status, airway, breathing, circulation, patient priority b. Mental status, general impression, airway, breathing, circulation, patient priority c. Patient priority, general impression, mental status, airway, breathing, circulation d. None are correct 293. Which of the following describes the chief complaint? e. Reason why the patient summoned EMS f. Events immediately preceding the call for EMS c. Overall impression of the patient's condition d. All are correct 294. Which of the following is the purpose of the primary assessment? a. To detect and treat immediately life-threatening problems b. To find all of the patient's signs and symptoms c. To discover trends of improvement or deterioration in the patient's condition d. To detect dangers to the patient and/or EMS crew 295. A patient whose mental status can be described as "verbal" is able to: a. tell you his or her name, his or her location, and what day it is. b. respond only to a stimulus such as the EMT rubbing his sternum with his knuckles. c. talk spontaneously and respond to the EMT's questions. d. respond to speaking or shouting by opening the eyes. 296. Which of the following is NOT assessed during the "Breathing" phase of the primaryassessment? a. Determining the depth of respiration b. Counting the respiratory rate c. Determining the presence of respirations d. Obtaining a pulse oximetry reading 297. Which of the following BEST describes an EMS provider's "sixth sense"? a. Diagnostic ability b. General impression c. Clinical judgment d. Scene safety 298. What BEST defines the immediate sense of the patient's degree of distress, formulated from the patient's immediate environment, appearance, and chief complaint? a. General impression b. Primary assessment c. Scene size-up d. Secondary assessment 299. You are assessing a 48-year-old male who is unconscious. The scene is safe and you hearthe patient gurgling. What is your next action? a. Suction the airway b. Insert an airway adjunct. c. Open the airway with a head tilt. d. Quickly check the pulse. 300. An oxygen saturation of 97% is considered which of the following? a. Severe hypoxia b. Normal c. Hypoxia d. Significant hypoxia 301. The first set of vital sign measurements obtained are often referred to as which of the following? a. Baseline vital signs a. Yellow b. Blue-gray c. Very pale d. Flushed 310. What is the pressure remaining in the arteries after the pulse wave has passed through? a. Venous pressure b. Systolic blood pressure c. Diastolic blood pressure d. Resting blood pressure 311. Which of the following are the vital signs that need to be recorded? a. Pulse, respiration, skin color, skin temperature and condition b. Pulse, respiration, skin color, skin temperature and condition, pupils, blood pressure, and bowel sounds c. Pulse, respiration, skin color, skin temperature and condition, pupils, and blood pressure d. Pulse, respiration, skin color, skin temperature, pupils, and blood pressure 312. You are assessing a 55-year-old male complaining of chest pain and have determined that his radial pulse is barely palpable. You also determine that there were 20 pulsations over a span of 30 seconds. Based on this, how would you report this patient's pulse? e. Pulse 20, weak, and regular f. Pulse 20 and weak g. Pulse 40 and weak h. Pulse 40, weak, and irregular 313. The abbreviation mmHg indicates that the blood pressure is measured by which of the following comparisons? a. Minimum heart rate b. Millimeters of mercury c. Millimeters of water d. Atmospheric pressure 314. The method of taking blood pressure by using a stethoscope to listen to thecharacteristic sounds produced is called: a. auscultation b. articulation. c. Palpation d. pulsation. 315. You are called to care for a child who has fallen out of a third-story window. You arrive to find the child in his mother's arms. As you approach, you notice the child's skin is pale with dark spots of cyanosis. You would report this uncommon condition of blotchy skin as: a. mottling. b. flushed. c. jaundiced. d. cyanotic. 316. You are unable to find a radial pulse on a patient from a motor vehicle crash. You should: a. listen for heart sounds b. begin chest compressions. c. attempt to find the carotid pulse d. apply the pulse oximeter. 317. In a blood pressure reading of 120/80, the 120 is measuring what body process? a. Diastolic blood pressure; when the left ventricles contract and the blood is forced into the arteries b. Systolic blood pressure; when the right ventricles contract and the blood is forced into the veins c. Systolic blood pressure; when the left ventricles contract and the blood is forced into the arteries d. Systolic blood pressure; when the left ventricles contract and the blood is forced into the veins 318. Recording and documenting your patient's first set of vital signs is very important because, when combined with reassessments, it allows you to do which of the following? a. Make an accurate diagnosis of the patient's illness b. Compare your patient's condition with other patients' conditions. c. Discover trends and changes in the patient's condition d. Fill in all of the blanks on the patient care report form. 319. In a conscious adult patient, which of the following pulses should be assessed initially? a. Brachial b. Radial c. Carotid d. Pedal 320. A patient with a pulse rate of 120 beats per minute is considered which of the following? a. Dyscardic b. Normocardic b. Stoma c. Tracheostomy d. Tracheopharyngeal fistula 329. Your patient is a 16-year-old female who is reporting abdominal pain and nausea. She says it came on when she woke up this morning. Her mother says that her daughter has been tired and cranky lately and has not been eating well for a couple of weeks. In fact, every time you ask a question, the patient's mother answers. What should you do next? a. Ask the mother to please be quiet. b. Have your partner interview the mother in the next room c. Tell the mother to leave the room. d. Ignore the mother and continue to try to talk to the patient. 330. When assessing a patient who has been stabbed, which of the following information should the EMT gain first? a. Angle at which the knife entered the patient b. Size and type of the knife c. Owner of the knife d. Make and model of the knife 331. You are assessing a 76-year-old male patient who has been involved in a fall from a standing position. You have completed the scene size-up and primary assessment. What should you do next? a. Focused history assessment b. Ongoing assessment c. Secondary assessment d. Reassessment 332. Your patient has been hit in the arm with a baseball during practice. He is alert and oriented, complaining of pain to his left arm with obvious black discoloration of the skin. What type of assessment is called for in this situation? a. Rapid trauma exam b. Detailed physical exam c. Area exam d. Focused exam 333. Which of the following methods should be used to have a patient rate the amount of pain he is having? a. Have the patient rate the pain on a scale of 1 (least) to 10 (worst). b. Ask the patient to state whether the pain is mild, moderate, severe, or unbearable. c. Use the memory aid AVPU d. Use the memory aid DCAP. 334. When a patient describes how he feels, he is telling you which of the following? a. His syndrome b. His diagnosis c. His signs d. His symptoms 335. Your patient is a 24-year-old female who swallowed a handful of pills of unknown type. Although she was initially alert and oriented with no complaints, you note that she is now beginning to slur her words and is becoming progressively lethargic. What is the highest priority in dealing with this patient? a. Checking the patient's pupil size and reactivity to light b. Finding out exactly what she took c. Maintaining an open airway d. Notifying the receiving facility of the change in mental status 336. What term describes a permanent surgical opening in the neck through which a patient breathes? a. Cricothyrotomy b. Tracheostomy c. Laryngectomy d. Stoma 337. When assessing a 14-year-old male patient that has been involved in a bicycle accident, you notice that he has a small amount of blood coming from his left forearm. This observation is known as which of the following? a. Sign b. Symptom c. Clue d. Indication 338. The ambulance is called for an assaulted patient. While transporting the patient to the hospital, the EMT notes the patient's jugular veins are flat (nondistended). Which of these is most likely the cause of this finding? a. Closed head injury b. Blood loss c. Blood collecting around the heart in the pericardial sac d. High blood pressure 339. While performing a detailed physical exam on a patient involved in a fall from 30 feet, the patient (who had previously been responding to your questions) stops responding. What should you do next? 346. In which of the following patients should you check for the possibility of spinal injury? a. A responsive patient with no history of injury who is complaining of a headache and neck pain b. An unresponsive patient found in her bed with no obvious injury c. An unresponsive diabetic who appears to have fallen down d. All are correct 347. You are called for a patient who is complaining of being weak and dizzy. He reports that he does not have enough money to pay for his medications so he has not gotten them refilled. Your service has an automatic blood pressure machine and you use it to measure the patient's blood pressure while you count his respirations. The blood pressure machine reports a blood pressure of 280/140. What should you do next? a. Call immediately for ALS response. b. Begin transport immediately. c. Continue with vital sign assessment. d. Take a manual blood pressure 348. You have a patient who is unresponsive on the floor. What is the best way to rule in or rule out trauma as a cause of the patient's unresponsiveness? a. Examine the patient for signs of trauma. b. Look for a Glasgow Coma Scale score that is less than 8. c. Check the patient's blood sugar to rule out hypoglycemia. d. Look for bystanders and ask them if they witnessed the incident 349. You have an urgent transmission you need to make to the dispatch center. Which of the following is the appropriate way to communicate this? a. Interrupt less urgent radio traffic to get your message across. b. Speak loudly to convey the urgency of the message c. Listen to the frequency first to avoid stepping on another transmission. d. Use the phrase, "Attention, attention, I have priority traffic." 350. Which of the following information does NOT need to be provided to the dispatcher? a. Estimated time of arrival at the hospital b. Which hospital you are transporting to c. When you depart from the hospital d. When you arrive at the hospital 351. When you arrive at the receiving facility, the nurse asks your partner for a verbal report of the patient's condition. This is in addition to the radio report your partner gave to the hospital en route. Afterwards, you ask your partner why you must give a second verbal report and a written report to the receiving nurse. What is the best reason to provide both reports? e. The nurse may not have heard the first radio report. f. The nurse may have to perform critical interventions on the patient before you complete your written report. g. The patient's condition may have changed since the first radio report h. The nurse may be too busy to read the written report. 352. When giving a radio report to the hospital, which of the following would be the firstpatient-specific information provided? a. The patient is complaining of chest pain. b. The patient has taken nitroglycerin. c. The patient is a 55-year-old male. d. The patient is having a heart attack. 353. Which of the following is NOT part of a medical radio report? a. Estimated time of arrival b. Address at which the patient was located c. Unit identification d. Patient's response to medical care provided 354. How many parts does a standard medical radio report have as described in your textbook? a. 12 b. 8 c. 5 d. 10 355. You are transporting a city councilman to the hospital after he injured his shoulder playing basketball at his gym. His left shoulder is swollen, deformed, and bruised. There is pain and tingling when the patient attempts to use his hand. He has a pulse of 92 per minute, a respiratory rate of 20 per minute, and a blood pressure of 132/88 mmHg. Which of the following should NOT be included in the radio report? a. The appearance of the shoulder b. Notification that extra security is needed for a VIP c. How the injury occurred d. Vital signs 356. Why is it important to notify medical control as soon as practical about your patient's condition? a. It provides legal protection as patient care now becomes their responsibility. b. It allows the receiving facility more time to prepare for your arrival. c. It is common courtesy. d. It minimizes the chance that you will forget to contact medical control. c. Federal Trade Commission d. Federal Communications Commission 365. Which of the following BEST describes a mobile radio? a. A two-way radio that can be carried on a belt clip b. A two-way radio that is mounted in a vehicle c. A two-way radio at a fixed site d. A device that receives and amplifies signals that must be sent over a long distance 366. You have received an order from medical direction that you feel would be detrimental toyour patient. Which of the following should you do? a. Politely question the physician b. Carry out the order but document that you disagreed with it. c. Contact your supervisor for advice. d. Call a different hospital for orders. 367. Which of the following describes the importance of effective communication of patient information in the verbal report? a. Patient treatment can be based on this information. b. Additional information that was not given in the radio report can be provided. c. Changes in the patient's condition can be communicated. d. All are correct 368. Why is it important that your radio report to the receiving facility be concise? e. The emergency department needs to know quickly and accurately the patient's condition b. You do not want to bore the nurse receiving your report. c. You want to make sure the doctor approves your medical order request. d. You want to appear professional. 369. A major tornado has hit the neighboring town, knocking down power lines and injuringseveral people. What will provide the best chance to give your patient report to the receiving facility? a. Cell phone at the scene b. Landline at the patient's house c. Ambulance mobile radio d. Portable radio at the residence 370. Which of the following is NOT considered a principle of proper radio usage in EMS? a. Speak with your lips 2 to 3 inches from the microphone b. Speak as quickly as possible c. Use plain English. d. Make sure the radio is on before speaking. 371. Which of the following BEST describes a repeater? a. A two-way radio that is mounted in a vehicle b. A two-way radio that can be carried on a belt clip c. A device that receives and amplifies a signal that must be carried over long distances d. A two-way radio at a fixed site 372. Which of the following BEST describes the position you should take when dealing with a cooperative patient who is sitting in a chair? a. Sit or kneel at the same level as the patient b. Stand behind the patient's chair. c. Stand next to the chair. d. Sit on the floor at the patient's feet. 373. Which of the following BEST describes a base station? a. A two-way radio at a fixed site b. A device used to receive and then amplify transmissions that must be carried over long distances c. A two-way radio mounted in a vehicle d. A two-way radio that can be carried on a belt clip 374. Which of the following statements is true concerning oxygen? a. Never give oxygen to a chronic obstructed pulmonary disease (COPD) patient. b. Always document the need for oxygen by pulse oximetry before giving it to the patient c. Only withhold oxygen to anyone who is allergic to it. d. Never withhold oxygen to any patient who needs it 375. What condition must be present before you give oral glucose? a. The patient must not have a history of diabetes b. The patient, if conscious, must be able to swallow; if unconscious, you can apply the gel to a tongue depressor and place it between the cheek and gum or under the tongue. c. The patient must be conscious and able to swallow with an altered mental status and history of diabetes d. The patient must be unconscious and have a history of diabetes. d. Oxygen 384. Which of the following is a commonly accepted list of medications an EMT can assist thepatient in taking or administer under the direction of the Medical Director? a. Prescribed bronchodilator inhalers, prescribed nitroglycerin, and prescribed epinephrine auto-injectors b. Any over-the-counter medication, oral glucose, and oxygen c. Aspirin, acetaminophen, oral glucose, insulin, prescribed bronchodilator inhalers, nitroglycerin, and epinephrine auto-injectors d. Aspirin, acetaminophen, oral glucose, insulin, prescribed bronchodilator inhalers, nitroglycerin, and epinephrine auto-injectors 385. Which of the following BEST describes a contraindication to a medication? a. An unintended action of the drug b. The way in which a drug causes its effects c. A reason why you should a never giving a medication to a patient d. A reason why you should give a medication to a patient 386. Epinephrine delivered by auto-injector may be indicated for patients with which of the following conditions? a. Drug overdose b. Severe allergies to peanut, shellfish, penicillin, or bee stings c. Chest pain d. Chronic pulmonary diseases 387. die? How does aspirin actually reduce the chances that a patient suffering a heart attack will a. It reduces the amount of pain in the heart. b. It prevents a deadly fever from developing. c. It reduces the inflammation in the heart. d. It reduces the ability of the blood to form clots. 388. Which of the following is a potential side effect of nitroglycerin? a. Decreased blood pressure b. Sudden increase in heart rate c. Difficulty breathing d. All are correct 389. You are on the scene of a 44-year-old female patient who has attempted suicide by taking all 30 pills of her antidepressant medication at once. You are ordered by medical control to administer activated charcoal. How will activated charcoal reduce the effects of the medication? a. Activated charcoal will cause the patient to vomit the medication b. Activated charcoal will inactivate the patient's stomach acid. c. Activated charcoal will coat the intestines, preventing absorption. d. Activated charcoal will bind to the medication, reducing absorption. 390. Which of the following is a desired action of epinephrine delivered by auto-injector? a. Constriction of blood vessels b. Constriction of coronary arteries c. Dilation of coronary arteries d. Decrease in blood pressure 391. Albuterol and epinephrine both have bronchodilation properties that improve the amount of oxygen that a person can inhale and absorb. However, Albuterol is administered only for asthma, whereas epinephrine is administered for both asthma and anaphylaxis. Why is epinephrine, and not Albuterol, the first choice for anaphylaxis? a. Albuterol makes the heart rate increase too much. b. Albuterol slows down the heart rate too much. c. Albuterol drops the blood pressure too low. d. Albuterol is not a vasoconstrictor. 392. You respond to a medical call for a 59-year-old female complaining of tightness in her chest. You place her on a high concentration of oxygen and prepare for a short 5-minute transport to the hospital. The patient tells you she is on nitroglycerin, which she has not taken. Your partner tells you that you can give aspirin per protocol. Should you delay the patient transport to give the medication and why? e. No, any delay will cause the patient more heart damage; each delay weakens the myocardium. f. Yes, the nitroglycerin will cause the blood vessels to dilate and restore some blood flow, and the aspirin will slow the clotting process g. Yes, the nitroglycerin will cause the heart to beat stronger and restore some blood flow, and the aspirin will ease the pain. h. No, any delay will cause the patient more stress; she needs to be in a definitive care facility. 393. Why should EMTs study pharmacology? a. As an EMT, you will be trusted to administer medications in emergency situations; many of these may be lifesaving, but there is potential to do harm. b. An EMT must know the manufacturer, sources, characteristics, and effects of every medication that has been prescribed to the patient. c. As an EMT, you will be trusted to administer medications in emergency situations, although many of these may do nothing but give the patient false hope. d. An EMT must know the sources, characteristics, and effects of each medication that the physician may prescribe. b. Have your partner restrain the patient's hands so you can ventilate her. c. Begin transport immediately and contact medical control for advice. d. Wait for the patient's level of consciousness to decrease so that she can no longer resist your attempts to ventilate. 402. child? Which of the following respiratory rates should be cause for alarm in a 2-month-old a. 28 breaths/min b. 40 breaths/min c. 16 breaths/min d. 32 breaths/min 403. Which of the following does NOT occur during inspiration? a. Intercostal muscles contract b. Chest cavity increases in size c. Diaphragm lowers d. Diaphragm relaxes 404. You are called to the scene of a 45-year-old nonsmoker male with a history of asthma in respiratory distress. You find him lying supine on the couch. The patient is lethargic but can answer all your questions appropriately. He is diaphoretic, and complains of being cold, coughing, and having difficulty breathing for the past 3 days. His vital signs are blood pressure of 110/70, heart rate of 116, respiratory rate of 24, oxygen saturation of 93%, and temperature of 100.6°F. You hear rhonchi in the left lobes and he is coughing up yellow-tinged sputum. What condition do you suspect? e. Asthma f. Silent myocardial infarction g. COPD d. Pneumonia 405. Which of the following patients with difficulty breathing should NOT receivesupplem ntal oxygen? a. A patient with a chronic lung disease who may have a hypoxic drive b. An infant whose eyes may be damaged by excessive oxygen administration c. A patient whose oxygen saturation level is 100% on room air d. None of these patients should have oxygen withheld. 406. What is the best way to determine that you are getting adequate ventilation with a bag-valve mask? a. Look for chest rise and fall. b. Push the full amount of the bag into the patient. c. Ensure the pulse oximeter reads 95 to 100%. d. Hyperventilate the patient until the oxygen saturation reaches 100%. 407. You are ventilating a 6-year-old child and note that his heart rate has decreased from 70to 54. Which of the following is NOT appropriate? a. Notify medical control that the patient's condition has improved b. Check the flow of oxygen reaching the bag-valve-mask device. c. Increase the force of ventilations. d. Insert an oropharyngeal airway and continue ventilating. 408. Which of the following is true concerning expiration? e. The chest cavity increases in size. f. The diaphragm moves upward. c. The intercostal muscles contract to force air out of the lungs. d. The ribs move upward and outward. 409. While assessing the airway of a pediatric patient, you will notice that it is different thanthat of an dult. Which of the following is one of those differences? a. The cricoid cartilage is less developed, reducing the possibility that it can be completely occluded. b. The tongue is smaller, taking up less room in the mouth and allowing larger objects to occlude the airway. c. The trachea is smaller, softer, and more flexible, allowing it to be more easily obstructed. d. The chest wall is softer, making it easier for the chest to expand. 410. A patient who has shallow, slow, irregular gasping breaths is said to have respirations. a. Kussmaul's b. Agonal c. central neurogenic d. Cheyne-Stokes 411. Which of the following sounds may be heard in lower respiratory obstruction? a. Crowing b. Wheezing c. Stridor d. Snoring 412. While caring for a 3-year-old child, you should be concerned if his respiratory rate exceeds breaths per minute. 420. Your patient is a 15-year-old male with a history of multiple prior hospitalizations for asthma. Upon your arrival the patient responds only to painful stimuli and is making very weak respiratory effort. Which of the following should you do next? a. Contact medical control. b. Check the patient's oxygen saturation level. c. Assist the patient with his inhaler. d. Assist the patient's ventilations with a bag-valve-mask device and supplemental oxygen 421. Which of the following signs of inadequate breathing is more prominent in children than in adults? e. See-sawing of the chest and abdomen f. Grunting respirations g. Nasal flaring h. All are correct 422. Your patient is a 30-year-old female who may have overdosed on antidepressant medications. On your arrival, she is lying supine on her bed with her head on a pillow. She is unresponsive to painful stimuli and is snoring. She appears to be pale and her skin is cool and clammy. What should you do first? a. Apply oxygen by nonrebreather mask. b. Insert an oropharyngeal airway. c. Check the patient's pulse. d. Remove the patient's pillow. 423. Which of the following may be seen just prior to respiratory arrest? a. Breathing through the nose, not the mouth b. Very deep, rapid respirations c. Agonal respirations d. Accessory respirations 424. What is NOT part of the cardiovascular system? a. Arteries b. Veins c. Venules d. Hormones 425. Which of the following may be a symptom of a problem with the heart? a. Mild chest discomfort b. Severe, crushing pain in the chest c. Nausea, with or without vomiting d. All are correct 426. Assuming your protocol allows the administration of nitroglycerin when certain conditions exist, what is the maximum number of tablets to be administered in the prehospital setting? a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 1 427. Which of the following cardiac dysrhythmias cannot produce a pulse? a. Ventricular dysrhythmia b. Ventricular fibrillation c. Bradycardia d. Tachycardia 428. Which of the following BEST describes a fluttering sensation in the chest? a. Pulseless electrical activity of the heart b. Palpitations c. Dysrhythmia d. Tachycardia 429. Which of the following is the name given to the condition in which fluid accumulates inthe lungs? a. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) b. Pulmonary edema c. Pedal edema d. Dyspnea 430. You are on-scene with a 48-year-old unresponsive male patient. Bystanders state he complained of chest pain and then suddenly collapsed. Vital signs are blood pressure 68/42, pulse 36, and respiratory rate 3. He is unresponsive to painful stimuli. After performing the primary assessment and treating all life threats, what is your next intervention? a. Insert an oral airway. b. Administer high-concentration oxygen at 15 lpm by bag-valve mask. c. Package the patient for rapid transport. d. Apply the AED. 431. A weakened area of an artery that balloons out and may rupture, causing catastrophic bleeding, is called: a. angina. d. Aspirin 439. Your patient is a 44-year-old female who has collapsed while jogging. She has been unresponsive for 4 to 5 minutes by the time you arrive. Her husband appears to be performing high-quality CPR. Which of the following should be your first action? a. Insert an oropharyngeal airway and begin ventilations. b. Load the patient into the ambulance for further assessment. c. Apply the AED. d. Stop CPR and check for a pulse. 440. Which of the following is the result of a portion of the heart muscle dying due to a lack of oxygen? a. Angina pectoris b. Myocardial infarction c. Cardiac arrest d. Heart failure 441. Which of the following is the beneficial action of nitroglycerin in some cardiac emergencies? a. It relaxes blood vessels throughout the body b. It dilates only the coronary arteries. c. It increases the strength with which the ventricles contract. d. It slows down the heart. 442. Which of the following statements regarding the administration of nitroglycerin tablets is true? a. An increase in blood pressure should be expected. b. The patient may complain of a headache following administration. c. If a patient's pulse rate changes following nitroglycerin administration, it indicates an allergic reaction. d. It takes 20 to 30 minutes for nitroglycerin to have an effect. 443. Which of the following is the EMT's role in caring for a patient with chest pain? a. Treat the patient as though he were having a heart attack. b. Provide automatic external defibrillation. c. Make an interpretation of the patient's cardiac rhythm. d. Determine the cause of the patient's chest pain. 444. Which of the following is typical of angina pectoris? a. Does not respond to nitroglycerin b. Lasts 10 to 30 seconds c. Does not present following stress d. Often subsides with rest 445. What is NOT a result of a mechanical malfunction of the heart? a. Cardiac arrest b. Dysrhythmia c. Shock d. Pulmonary edema 446. You suspect that your patient is suffering from angina pectoris. What signs or symptomswould you expect to see with this condition? a. Chest pain that is relieved with nitroglycerin b. Chest pain that is not relieved with nitroglycerin c. Chest pain that is not relieved with rest d. Chest pain that radiates to the leg 447. Which of the following is the beneficial action of a beta blocker medication? a. Causes vasoconstriction, increasing the blood pressure b. Slows the heart rate c. Increases the amount of oxygen needed by the myocardium d. Increases the strength of myocardial contraction 448. true? Which of the following statements concerning heart attacks and cardiac arrest is NOT a. Many patients may mistake their symptoms for other causes such as indigestion. b. Some patients who have heart attacks live active and healthy lifestyles c. Heart attacks present differently among women and men d. The most common initial rhythm in sudden cardiac death is asystole. 449. Which of the following is the role of glucose in the body? a. It assists the pancreas in the manufacture of insulin. b. It provides energy for brain cells and other cells in the body. c. It allows the body to use insulin. d. It is an essential building block for body tissues, such as muscle and bone. 450. For the reticular activating system (RAS) to work correctly, what three substances are needed? a. Oxygen to perfuse brain tissue, insulin to nourish brain tissue, and sodium to keep the brain hydrated b. Glucose c. Water d. Sodium 458. The medical term for fainting is: a. syncope b. altered RAS status. c. Dehydration d. Vertigo 459. Compared to hypoglycemia, which of the following is true of hyperglycemia? a. Its onset is more sudden. b. Its onset is more gradual. c. Its onset is preceded by an aura, such as hallucinations or detecting unusual odors. d. It is more easily treated in the prehospital environment than hypoglycemia. 460. Which of the following blood glucose levels is considered normal for an adult? a. 80 mg/dL b. 40 mg/dL c. 180 mg/dL d. 150 mg/dL 461. Which of the following is characteristic of a patient with hyperglycemia? a. Use of excessive amounts of insulin or lack of adequate food intake b. A "fruity" odor of the breath c. Cool, moist skin, agitated behavior, and increased heart rate d. Sudden onset of altered mental status 462. Which of the following BEST describes status epilepticus? a. A seizure involving convulsions on only one side of the body b. A seizure that occurs without a known cause c. A period of drowsiness following tonic-clonic seizures d. Two or more seizures with tonic-clonic activity without an intervening period of consciousness 463. Your patient is a 25-year-old female with a history of diabetes. She is confused, agitated, and verbally abusive to you, and she is very sweaty. Although she refuses to give a history of the present illness, you should suspect which of the following as the likely cause of the patient's presentation? a. Failure to take her insulin b. A nondiabetic-related problem, such as a head injury or mental illness c. Failure to intake sufficient sugar d. Excessive intake of foods high in sugar, such as soda or candy 464. Your patient is waking up from a seizure; it was the patient's first seizure ever. When you ask what happened, the patient tells you she had the smell of fresh mown grass just before she seized. This sensation is known as a(n): a. tonic phase b. postictal phase. c. clonic phase. d. Aura 465. Most of the diabetic emergencies that you will be called to deal with will be related to hypoglycemia. However, occasionally you will experience an instance of hyperglycemia. In the list below, which item is NOT likely to be a sign or symptom of hyperglycemia? a. Chronic thirst b. Excessive urination c. Reduced rate of breathing d. Nausea 466. The condition in which there is an insufficient amount of sugar in the blood is called: a. diabetic coma. b. Hypoglycemia c. hyperglycemia. d. diabetic ketoacidosis. 467. Which of the following may result in hypoglycemia in the diabetic patient? a. Failure to take insulin or oral diabetes medications b. Lack of exercise c. Vomiting after eating a meal d. Overeating 468. The most common medical emergency for the diabetic is hypoglycemia, or low blood sugar. Which one of the factors below is NOT a cause of hypoglycemia? a. Takes too much insulin b. Reduces sugar intake by eating too much c. Overexercises or overexerts himself 476. Which of the following would you expect to hear when auscultating the lungs of apatient having an anaphylactic reaction? a. Clear, adequate air movement b. Fine, wet crackles or rales c. Coarse-sounding rhonchi d. Wheezing 477. Your patient has eaten a casserole that may have contained seafood. The patient is worried because he has a seafood allergy. Upon assessment, you find no signs or symptoms of anaphylaxis. The patient's vital signs are stable and he has an epinephrine auto-injector prescribed to him. Which of the following actions is most appropriate? a. Assist him with the administration of his epinephrine auto-injector. b. Advise the patient that he does not require treatment and transport at this time. c. Try to find out if the casserole contained seafood. d. Transport the patient rapidly before the onset of anaphylaxis. 478. You are called to the local park on a hot summer day for an 8-year-old child in respiratory distress. The child can barely speak and appears to be getting sleepy. Vital signs are blood pressure 90/60, pulse 120, and respiratory rate 32. Your physical exam reveals a swollen tongue, inspiratory stridor, wheezing, and hives on the neck and chest. What condition do you suspect? a. Asthma b. Heat exhaustion c. Allergic reaction d. Anaphylaxis 479. Which of the following statements concerning severe allergic reactions is true? a. The quicker the onset of symptoms, the greater the likelihood of a severe allergic reaction. b. A severe allergic reaction can be prevented by the use of an epinephrine auto-injector before exposure to the substance. c. Allergies do not develop until a person is in his late teens to early 20s. d. A severe allergic reaction occurs only when the patient has never been exposed to the substance before. 480. As you prepare to enter a patient's room in a nursing home, you see a sign posted on the door indicating that the patient has a latex allergy. Which of the following is the BEST way to care for the patient? e. Only perform a history on this patient, not a physical exam, so you can avoid contacting him with your gloves. f. Ask the nursing staff if the patient has an epinephrine auto-injector available in case of a reaction to your gloves. g. Put on latex gloves anyway; you must protect yourself with BSI. h. Ask the nursing facility staff to find synthetic exam gloves to wear for contact with this patient. 481. Which of the following changes commonly occurs in the cardiovascular system duringanaphylaxis? a. Low blood pressure due to vasodilation b. High blood pressure due to tachycardia c. High blood pressure due to vasoconstriction d. Low blood pressure due to bradycardia 482. Upon delivering a patient to the emergency department, you remove your gloves and find that your hands are red and itchy. Which of the following is most likely? a. You are showing early signs of an anaphylactic reaction. b. You have come into contact with poison ivy in the patient's yard. c. You have been exposed to an infectious disease through contact with the patient. d. You are having an allergic reaction to the latex in the gloves. 483. Which of the following does NOT commonly lead to anaphylaxis? a. Peanuts b. Cat dander c. Wasp stings d. Sulfa drugs 484. Which of the following is a general term for a substance to which the body may have ananaphyl ctic reaction? a. Pathogen b. Allergen c. Antibody d. Pyrogen 485. skin? Which of the following is NOT a sign or symptom of an allergic reaction involving the a. Cyanosis b. Flushing c. Hives d. Itching 486. Which of the following is included in the primary assessment of a conscious patientsuffering from anaphylactic shock? a. Assessing whether the patient is able to speak without difficulty b. Finding out how the patient was exposed to the substance to which she is allergic