Emergency Medical Procedures and Protocols, Exams of Biology

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CMAS Certification Exam/BQA Certification

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questions with answers

_____ requires standardized electronic data interchange when protected health information is involved. It includes standards concerning the protection and security of personal health data. A) Title I B) Title III C) Title II D) None of these answers - -CORRECT ANS- -C The presence of hemoglobin in the urine is most likely indicative of: A) UTI B) hydronephrosis C) UTI or glomerulonephritis D) glomerulonephritis - -CORRECT ANS- -C In the gram stain procedure, the medical assistant would flood the slide with crystal violet and allow it to sit on the slide for how long? A) 60 seconds B) 5 seconds C) 10 seconds D) 30 seconds - -CORRECT ANS- -D A financial statement that summarizes revenue and expense for a specified period is the: A) statement of retained earnings

B) trial balance C) balance sheet D) income statement - -CORRECT ANS- -D What area of the body is used to perform a scratch allergy test? A) Arms and legs B) Back and arms C) Abdomen and arms D) Back and abdomen - -CORRECT ANS- -B HCG is produced by the: A) ovaries B) uterus C) placenta D) pituitary gland - -CORRECT ANS- -C Which one of the following would not be grounds for revocation of licensure? A) Fraud B) Intoxication in a professional encounter C) Falsifying information in a patient's chart D) Reporting a patient's attempted suicide - -CORRECT ANS- -D Federal and state tax may exceed _____ of the wages paid to employees. A) 15% B) 10%

C) 12%

D) 18% - -CORRECT ANS- -B

All of the following urinary constituents are reported EXCEPT: A) casts B) artifacts C) leukocytes D) erythrocytes - -CORRECT ANS- -B The _____ safeguards individual privacy from misuse of federal records and provides personal access to records maintained by federal agencies such a medical records maintained by VA hospitals. A) HIPAA B) CLIA ' C) The Patient Self-Determination Act D) The Privacy Act of 1974 - -CORRECT ANS- -D Which of the following is a true statement? A) A dun message is a reminder regarding the payment of a debt. B) Collection letters should be signed by the provider. C) All are false statements. D) It is acceptable to use postcards for collection purposes. - -CORRECT ANS- -A In what type of filing system can records be tracked by computer software? A) All filing systems B) Electronic

C) Numerical D) Subject - -CORRECT ANS- -B Working within the parameters of a health professional's training and experience is called: A) Scope of Practice B) Duty to Act C) Limited Contract D) Good Samaritan Act - -CORRECT ANS- -A Excessive hair where electrodes are applied can cause: A) somatic tremors B) AC interference C) wandering baselines D) None of these answers - -CORRECT ANS- -C Which of the following is considered a peripheral? A) Read access memory B) Read only memory C) Monitor D) Central processing unit - -CORRECT ANS- -C Which of the following is a reason for clinics to receive less than the total charge for patient services? A) Charity B) All of these answers C) Contractual allowance

D) Courtesy - -CORRECT ANS- -B Which of the following is a true statement? A) It is acceptable to call neighbors about the patient's whereabouts. B) When tracing skips, do not call the patient's employer. C) It is illegal to contact a third party. D) None of these statements are true - -CORRECT ANS- -A Directory assistance for out-of-state phone numbers is: A) 911 B) 1-800- C) 1-800-555- D) 411 - -CORRECT ANS- -C In which of the following circumstances is it appropriate to show sympathy towards a patient? A) A patient is diagnosed with terminal cancer. B) A patient has recently lost a loved one in a tragic car accident. C) A patient is unable to pay her medical bill. D) None of these answers - -CORRECT ANS- -D Which of the following charting situations may create a liability? A) Scribbling out errors B) All of these answers C) Failing to properly document care D) Altering a medical document - -CORRECT ANS- -B

Which of the following are important attributes of an effective receptionist? A) Proper etiquette B) All of these answers C) Professional appearance D) Positive attitude - -CORRECT ANS- -B _____ is given to an infant between one to two months of age. A) PCV B) Hib C) DTaP D) Hep B - -CORRECT ANS- -D Which of the following words best describes a muscular disorder? A) Polymyositis B) Metrorrhagia C) Tendonitis D) Emphysema - -CORRECT ANS- -A The small gland located in the posterior hypothalamus is the: A) pituitary B) adrenal C) thymus D) pineal - -CORRECT ANS- -D

Negligence requires the following elements EXCEPT: A) damage B) causation C) inconvenience D) duty - -CORRECT ANS- -C The alphabetical indexing rules are used with respect to which of the following? A) Businesses B) Persons C) Organizations D) All of these answers - -CORRECT ANS- -D An insurance company that sells or administers an insurance contract is also known as the: A) carrier B) provider C) beneficiary D) policy - -CORRECT ANS- -A The difference in concentration between solutions on either side of a cell membrane is: A) gradient pressure B) coagulated pressure C) osmotic pressure D) plasma pressure - -CORRECT ANS- -C A commercial fee-for-service insurance policy is called a(n):

A) indemnity plan B) restitution plan C) quittance plan D) compensation plan - -CORRECT ANS- -A Which of the following would be indexed first? A) William Y. Arms B) Marc Abrahams C) Dumbledore Albus D) Jane Austin - -CORRECT ANS- -B A restrictive endorsement is when: A) the payee directs how the check is to be made payable B) the drawer signs the back of the check C) the drawee signs the back of the check D) the payee signs the back of the check - -CORRECT ANS- -A The means by which a pathogen escapes the infected person: A) Susceptible host B) Mode of exit C) Mode of transmission D) Reservoir host E) Mode of entry - -CORRECT ANS- -B The individual giving a vaccination does not need to record a/an:

A) name B) title C) phone number D) address - -CORRECT ANS- -C Which of the following is considered an appendage of the skin? A) Dermis B) Sudoriferous glands C) Subcutaneous D) Epidermis - -CORRECT ANS- -B UPS stands for: A) United Parcel Service B) United Postal Service C) United Package Service D) United Pallet Services - -CORRECT ANS- -A _____ is the strongest form of professional regulation. A) Registration B) Certification C) Licensure D) Examination - -CORRECT ANS- -C The _____ requires written disclosure regarding fee payments in more than four installments. A) EPA--Equal Pay Act of 1963

B) NLRA--National Labor Relations Act of 1935 C) FLSA--Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938 D) Truth in Lending Act of 1969 - -CORRECT ANS- -D An instrument used to test hearing is a(n): A) stethoscope B) tuning fork C) ophthalmoscope D) otoscope - -CORRECT ANS- -B Minutes for a meeting should include which of the following? A) Kind of meeting B) Signature of the recorder C) All of these answers D) Time of adjournment - -CORRECT ANS- -C The abbreviation PRN means: A) nothing by mouth B) as needed C) after meals D) by mouth - -CORRECT ANS- -B In an emergency situation, which of the following indicates the most correct action steps? A) Activate EMS, look to see if the victim has a medical alert tag, determine what happened, determine if the scene is safe, observe to see if there are other victims, check to see if anyone knows what happened, observe the victim for life-threatening conditions.

B) Check to see if anyone knows what happened, activate EMS, observe the victim for life- threatening conditions, look to see if the victim has a medical alert tag, determine what happened, determine if the scene is safe, observe to see if there are other victims. C) Observe the victim for life-threatening conditions, activate EMS, determine what happened, look to see if the victim has a medical alert tag, determine if the scene is safe, observe to see if there are other victims, check to see if anyone knows what happened. D) Determine if the scene is safe, determine wh - -CORRECT ANS- -D Which of the following would be a barrier to effective communication? A) Socioeconomic status B) All of these answers C) Noise D) Language - -CORRECT ANS- -B There is a stream that runs through one of your pastures that you do not want cattle using as a water source. How might you keep cattle out of this area? - -CORRECT ANS- -C) Fence off the stream. Having more and smaller pastures increases forage management flexibility. - -CORRECT ANS- -A) True When working cattle through a chute, stop cattle by moving __________ point of balance. - - CORRECT ANS- -A) in front of Cattle have a tendency to move from _______ areas to _______ areas. - -CORRECT ANS- -A) dark, lighter Providing adequate space on a trailer and utilizing trailer partitions benefits ____________. - - CORRECT ANS- -B) trailer stability

Once cattle are loaded, it is the driver's responsibility to ensure successful delivery, including specific drop-off locations, drop off times, head counts, and unloading instructions. At this time, the owner is no longer responsible for the animals. - -CORRECT ANS- -B) False The _______ of a pen should facilitate proper drainage such that water runs away from the feed bunks and does not pool. - -CORRECT ANS- -C) slope Expiration dates are irrelevant in animal vaccines. - -CORRECT ANS- -B) False What elements of the animal's health record should be transferred with the animal to the next production unit? - -CORRECT ANS- -D) A complete history including all of the above You've recently purchased three newborn calves from your neighbor to foster onto animals in your herd that have lost their calves. You notice the newly purchased calves have scours, and begin to treat them immediately. Which record will you use to record this treatment? - - CORRECT ANS- -D) Animal health record Food additives can be an efficient way to administer antibiotics to an entire herd for the treatment or control of disease. What is the written order a producer must acquire prior administering the antibiotic in this way? - -CORRECT ANS- -D) Veterinary feed directive (VFD) You are preparing to fence line wean your calves. The veterinarian suggested you use preconditioning techniques to minimize stress in the animals. When a producer fails to precondition, calves may experience which of the following? - -CORRECT ANS- -D) Decreased health and nutrition You are preparing to wean your calves and intend to precondition your calves to minimize stress and maximize their immune system. How many days prior to shipping on to a stacker/backgrounder should you begin preconditioning? - -CORRECT ANS- -B) At least 45 days

In most cow/calf operations, ______________ is the first limiting nutrient and often must be supplemented. - -CORRECT ANS- -D) protein You are administering a vaccination to an animal when the needle breaks inside the muscle. After an immediate evaluation and a surgical recovery attempt by your veterinarian, you are not successful in locating the broken needle. Which of the following is true? - -CORRECT ANS- -B) This animal can only be harvested at a custom packer that is able to responsibly harvest the animal. The animal should be immediately transported for harvest and cannot be distributed into the public food supply. When administering vaccinations to cattle, all needles are considered equal. - -CORRECT ANS- -B) False Modified Live (MLV) and Chemically Altered (CA) vaccines should be mixed just before they are administered and must be disposed of after ______________. - -CORRECT ANS- -A) one hour During a pregnancy ultrasound, a cow in your herd tests 'open' for the third year in a row. Overall, the cow appears to be in good health. Which of the following is the most economical option for your herd? - -CORRECT ANS- -A) The cow should be given a finishing ration and sent for harvest After releasing bulls into your heifer pasture the day prior, you notice one of the bulls is now walking with a limp. The veterinarian assesses the animal and determines he has a fractured hip, can no longer breed, and is not treatable. What is the most economic option for your herd? - - CORRECT ANS- -A) Have the bull humanely, and immediately, harvested if possible, otherwise euthanize the animal. You notice an old cow with a fractured leg that is not able to access the feed bunk or her water source. The animal is in obvious pain and distress. The veterinarian has assessed the animal and determined she is not fit for transportation nor treatment. Together you determine euthanasia is the most humane option. Which of the following options is the best method of euthanasia for this animal? - -CORRECT ANS- -C) Firearm followed by exsanguination

You notice a pregnant cow aborted her calf. According to biosecurity management practices, you should: - -CORRECT ANS- -A) Schedule blood sample collection with your veterinarian. A written biosecurity plan, or SOP, is the most economic and effective means of disease control available for a specific facility or location. - -CORRECT ANS- -A) True Introduction of cattle who are diseased, carriers of the disease, incubating a disease, or vectoring a disease agent may spread disease in your herd. - -CORRECT ANS- -A) True When integrating a new group of cattle into your herd, it's important to first locate ______________________ ones to house the new livestock prior to integration. - -CORRECT ANS- -C) quarantine Meat quality is audited for quality assurance. Beef quality defects can decrease the value of meat. A commonly discounted defect is a dark cutter (dark meat). This is likely not caused by which of the following? - -CORRECT ANS- -D) Injections Which of the following is true about access to your operation's Emergency Action Plan (EAP)? - - CORRECT ANS- -A) EAP should be posted at various locations throughout the operation. Which Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) is recommended to be worn at all times when in direct contact with cattle? - -CORRECT ANS- -A) Non-slip, steel-toed boots It is not necessary to clean Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) after use as it will become dirty after the next use. - -CORRECT ANS- -B) False Which of the following statements about pesticide use is not true? - -CORRECT ANS- -C) Unapproved products may be used if they are new to the market.

Pesticide products applied to the land and animals should be closely monitored. Which approach should you use to optimize product use? - -CORRECT ANS- -D) Integrated Pest Management (IPM) You are working with a cow that has been in your herd for several years. Due to previous positive handling experiences, she is rather calm and tame. You could say her flight zone size is small. - - CORRECT ANS- -A) True Gaps between the ramp and transportation vehicle create which of the following? - -CORRECT ANS- -C) Possibility of injury As a cattle producer you are searching for an identification method to track birth-to-finish data on your cattle. You work efficiently with computers and software programming and prefer electronic data storage. Which identification method best suits the needs of your cow/calf herd?

• -CORRECT ANS- -C) Radio frequency identification (RFID)/Electronic identification devices (EID) You've recently purchased three newborn calves from your neighbor to foster onto animals in your herd that have lost their calves. You notice the newly purchased calves have scours, and begin to treat them immediately. Which record will you use to record this treatment? - - CORRECT ANS- -B) Pesticide use record You see an advertisement for a group of commercial cows for sale from a local ranch. You are interested in buying the group, but would like to assess their Body Condition Score (BCS) in person. The Body Condition Score is a useful method to determine the nutritional status of an animal by evaluating and estimating body ___________ and ___________. - -CORRECT ANS- -A) fat and muscling You evaluate a cow with a Body Condition Score of 3 (on the beef scale 1-9). Which of the following is likely a true statement with this score point? - -CORRECT ANS- -C) The cow is very thin with no fat cover on ribs. Vaccinations should be administered in front of the ____________ to minimize injection site lesions and trim in high-priced cut areas. - -CORRECT ANS- -A) shoulder

When managing your health products inventory, all of the following are true except: - -CORRECT ANS- -A) Use newer products first A veterinarian should be involved in developing protocols and standards of procedure when making euthanasia, culling, and fitness for transport decisions. - -CORRECT ANS- -A) True Rather than euthanasia, treatment should be considered for each of the following situations except: - -CORRECT ANS- -C) Animal's quality of life is not recoverable You are working two groups of calves over the next two days. The groups are separated into two different pastures, but you will be working them through the same working corral and chutes in a central location. One group of calves has been overcome by pinkeye. You plan to vaccinate this entire group. The other group appears healthy, and you will not need to vaccinate. According to best practices for biosecurity disease containment, you should work the group of calves with pinkeye first. - -CORRECT ANS- -B) False Your family member raised three bottle calves as pets from an unknown producer. The calves do not have health records. Now that the calves are older, your family member asked you to purchase the calves from their herd to integrate into your herd. If you choose to purchase the calves, which of the following should you do? - -CORRECT ANS- -B) Temporary quarantine Newborn calves should be vaccinated and castrated within the first three months of their lives. - -CORRECT ANS- -A) True During a lightning storm, your hay yard catches fire. You are the first to arrive at the scene. According to your emergency action plan (EAP), who do you call first? - -CORRECT ANS- -A) Fire department You are cleaning out manure in a barn with limited airflow. What PPE should you have on? - - CORRECT ANS- -C) Dust mask/respirator

Branding serves as a permanent identification method for animals. Brands should be placed before calves reach which age? - -CORRECT ANS- -B) Three months A crowd pen can provide comfort to the animals as they are worked through an alleyway and chute. Never fill the crowd pen more than __________ full. - -CORRECT ANS- -B) 2/ Having more and smaller pastures increases forage management flexibility. A) True When working cattle through a chute, stop cattle by moving __________ point of balance. - - CORRECT ANS- -A) in front of Animals with a poor body condition should not be transported. Generally, on the beef or dairy scale, animals with a body condition score of less than __________ should not be transported. - -CORRECT ANS- -B) 2 If hauling during extremely __________ weather conditions, consider covering the slats of the trailer and avoiding stops. - -CORRECT ANS- -A) cold Gaps between the ramp and transportation vehicle create which of the following? - -CORRECT ANS- -C) Possibility of injury Mud accumulation on cattle should be monitored as it is a measure of pasture/pen condition. - - CORRECT ANS- -A) True You've recently purchased three newborn calves from your neighbor to foster onto animals in your herd that have lost their calves. You notice the newly purchased calves have scours, and begin to treat them immediately. Which record will you use to record this treatment? - - CORRECT ANS- -D) Animal health record

When administering an antibiotic, a vaccine, or parasite control to an animal, the producer must consider __________ prior to harvesting the animal. - -CORRECT ANS- -B) withdrawal period The Body Condition Score is a useful method to determine the nutritional status of an animal by evaluating and estimating body __________ and __________. - -CORRECT ANS- -A) fat and muscling Feed additives can be an efficient way to administer antibiotics to an entire herd for the treatment or control of disease. What is the written order a producer must acquire prior to administering the antibiotic in this way? - -CORRECT ANS- -D) Veterinary feed directive (VFD) Energy requirements vary depending on the frame size and condition of the animal, stage of production, and environmental conditions. - -CORRECT ANS- -A) True When administering vaccinations to cattle, all needles are considered equal. - -CORRECT ANS- -B) False Vaccinations should be administered in front of the ____________ to minimize injection site lesions and trim in high-priced cut areas. - -CORRECT ANS- -A) shoulder Modified Live (MLV) and Chemically Altered (CA) vaccines should be mixed just before they are administered and must be disposed of after ______________. - -CORRECT ANS- -A) one hour You notice a heifer in your herd showing signs of pregnancy. An ultrasound confirms she is bred and due in one month. Overall, the heifer appears to be in good health. Which of the following is the most economic option for your herd? - -CORRECT ANS- -D) The heifer should be separated to be monitored and given proper birthing conditions. A veterinarian should be involved in developing protocols and standards of procedure when making euthanasia, culling, and fitness for transport decisions. - -CORRECT ANS- -A) True

Which of the following is not a biosecurity best management practice for strategic vaccine use? - -CORRECT ANS- -C) Implement the parts of the vaccination plan that fit your to-do list. You've recently purchased a group of yearlings to add to your herd. You notice several of the yearlings have pneumonia and begin immediate treatment. Which record will you use to record this treatment? - -CORRECT ANS- -(not "Pesticide use record") Any organized rhythm without a pulse is defined as pulseless electrical activity (PEA). - -CORRECT ANS- -True Synchronized cardioversion is appropriate for treating an unknown wide complex tachycardia. - - CORRECT ANS- -True The aorta is the wall that separates the ventricles of the heart. - -CORRECT ANS- -False The most effective treatment for ventricular fibrillation is defibrillation. - -CORRECT ANS- -True An individual should be cleared-Ñ prior to a shock only when convenient. - -CORRECT ANS- -False PEA and asystole are considered non-shockable rhythms and follow the same ACLS algorithm. - - CORRECT ANS- -True Transcutaneous pacing should be used on an individual with bradycardia and inadequate perfusion if atropine is ineffective and the individual is exhibiting severe symptoms. - -CORRECT ANS- -True Low blood pressure may be an indication of hemodynamic instability. - -CORRECT ANS- -True Urgent defibrillation is essential for survival in the management of acute strokes. - -CORRECT ANS- -False

Fibrinolytic therapy within three hours (in some cases 4.5 hours) of first onset of symptoms is the standard when treating ischemic stroke. - -CORRECT ANS- -True 100% oxygen is acceptable for early intervention but not for extended periods of time. - - CORRECT ANS- -True In a suspected acute stroke individual, you must always immediately obtain IV access. - - CORRECT ANS- -False There is never a pulse associated with VF; therefore, you should follow the PEA algorithm with individuals in VF. - -CORRECT ANS- -False If the AED advises no shock, you should still defibrillate because defibrillation often restarts the heart with no pulse. - -CORRECT ANS- -False If transcutaneous pacing fails, there are no other options to consider. - -CORRECT ANS- -False Medication is the only treatment for an unstable tachycardic individual. - -CORRECT ANS- -False For an individiual in respiratory arrest with a pulse, how often should they be ventilated? A) Give two breaths every 8 to 9 seconds, or 13 to 15 breaths per minute. B) Give one breath every 5 to 6 seconds, or 10 to 12 breaths per minute. C) Give one breath every 3 to 4 seconds, or 15 to 20 breaths per minute. D) Give one breath every 8 to 9 seconds, or 6 to 8 breaths per minute. - -CORRECT ANS- -B) Give one breath every 5 to 6 seconds, or 10 to 12 breaths per minute. Which item is NOT a basic airway skill?

A) Placement of endotracheal tube (ET tube) B) Bag-mask ventilation C) Jaw-thrust maneuver without head extension D) Head-tilt-chin-lift maneuver - -CORRECT ANS- -A) Placement of endotracheal tube (ET tube) Which of the following basic airway adjuncts can be used in a conscious or semiconscious indivudual (with an intact cough and gag reflex)? A)Oropharyngeal airway (OPA) B) Endotracheal tube (ET tube) C) Nasopharyngeal airway (NPA) D) Esophageal-tracheal tube (combitube) - -CORRECT ANS- -C) Nasopharyngeal airway (NPA) Blood or secretions in the mouth or upper respiratory tract may threaten the airway. How can they be removed? A) Bag-mask ventllation B) Laryngeal tube C) None of the above D) Suctioning - -CORRECT ANS- -D) Suctioning What item is NOT an example of Advanced Airways? A) Esophageal-tracheal tube (combitube) B) Oropharyngeal airway (OPA) C) Endotracheal tube (ET tube) D) Laryngeal mask airway (LMA) - -CORRECT ANS- -B) Oropharyngeal airway (OPA) The compression-to-ventilation ratio during CPR prior to placement of an advanced airway is: A) 15:02

B) 20:01

C) 30:01:00

D) 30:02:00 - -CORRECT ANS- -D) 30:02:00

True statements about AED use in special situations include all of the following EXCEPT: A) Do not use an AED in water. B) Leave medication patches in place and place the AED electrode pads directly over the patch. C) Do not place the AED electrode pads directly over an implanted defibrillator or pacemaker. D) Extra care in placing electrode pads may be needed in individuals with a hairy chest. - - CORRECT ANS- -B) Leave medication patches in place and place the AED electrode pads directly over the patch. Antiarrhythmic drugs to consider for persistent VF/pulseless VT include all of the following EXCEPT: A) Lidocaine B) Amiodarone C) Atropine D) Magnesium - -CORRECT ANS- -INCORRECT: Lidocaine, Magnesium Bradycardia is defined as any rhythm disorder with a heart rate less than: A) 50 beats per minute B) 60 beats per minute C) 70 beats per minute D) 40 beats per minute - -CORRECT ANS- -B) 60 beats per minute Symptoms of bradycardia may include: A) Chest pain

B) Shortness of breath C) Dizziness D) All of the above - -CORRECT ANS- -D) All of the above In the absence of immediately reversible causes, what is the first-line drug given for symptomatic bradycardia? A) Atropine B) Metoprolol C) Nitroglycerine D) Albuterol - -CORRECT ANS- -A) Atropine What is the first step in the treatment of persistent tachycardia (heart rate > 150 bpm) causing hypotension, altered mental status, and signs of shock? A) Defibrillation B) Obtain a 12-lead ECG C) Synchronized cardioversion D) Administer a calcium channel blocker - -CORRECT ANS- -INCORRECT: B) Obtain a 12-lead ECG D) Administer a calcium channel blocker CORRECT: If uncertain whether or not an individual is an appropriate candidate for synchronized cardioversion, the ACLS trained provider should: A) Seek expert consultation. B) Provide increased oxygenation. C) Obtain a coronary CT scan. D) Defer cardioversion until symptoms become irreversible. - -CORRECT ANS- -Seek expert consultation

Which of the following is true concerning ischemic strokes? A) They account for 50% of all strokes and are caused by an occlusion of a vein to a region of the brain. B) They account for 87% of all strokes and are usually caused by an occlusion of an artery to a region of the brain. C) They account for 80% of all strokes and are caused by an occlusion of a vein to a region of the brain. D) They account for 13% of all strokes and are caused by an occlusion of an artery to a region of the brain. - -CORRECT ANS- -B) They account for 87% of all strokes and are usually caused by an occlusion of an artery to a region of the brain. All of the following are found within the 8 D's of Stroke Care EXCEPT: A) Delivery B) Detection C) Decision D) Debilitation - -CORRECT ANS- -D) Debilitation Where is the start of the mechanical movement of the heart generally thought to begin? A) Left atrium B) Right atrium C) Left ventricle D) Right ventricle - -CORRECT ANS- -B) Right atrium You are alone when you encounter an individual in what appears to be cardiac or respiratory arrest. What are the first three steps you should take to stabilize them? Check for danger, check for response, and ____________. A) Insert an advanced airway.

B) Administer an initial shock. C) Send for help. D) Start CPR. - -CORRECT ANS- -INCORRECT: D) Start CPR. CORRECT: You are alone when you encounter an individual in cardiac arrest. They are not breathing, have no pulse, and have no suspected cervical spine trauma. Which maneuver should you use to open the airway? A) Jaw-thrust maneuver B) Blind finger-sweeps C) Head-tilt only D) Head-tilt-chin-lift maneuver - -CORRECT ANS- -D) Head-tilt-chin-lift maneuver According to the 2015 ILCOR update, high-quality CPR is defined as: A) 100 chest compressions per minute at a depth of at least one inch B) 100-120 chest compressions per minute at a depth of at least two inches, but not greater than 2.4 inches C) 80 chest compressions per minute at a depth of at least two inches D) 80 chest compressions per minute at a depth of at least one inch - -CORRECT ANS- -100-120 chest compressions per minute at a depth of at least two inches, but not greater than 2.4 inches This is an example of which type of heart rhythm? A) Atrial fibrillation B) Pulseless electrical activity C) Ventricular fibrillation D) Atrial flutter - -CORRECT ANS- -C) Ventricular fibrillation