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Emergency Medical Procedures and Terminology, Exams of Medicine

A wide range of emergency medical topics, including safe parking distance at an accident scene, cleaning and disinfection processes, scope of practice and standard of care, cultural considerations, emergency response systems, objective and subjective patient information, anatomy and physiology, childbirth procedures, cpr guidelines, triage protocols, communication best practices, and the autonomic nervous system. The comprehensive coverage of these critical emergency medical concepts makes this document a valuable resource for healthcare professionals, students, and anyone interested in emergency preparedness.

Typology: Exams

2024/2025

Available from 10/24/2024

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correct answers

What is the Parkland formula? - Correct answer Fluids for first 24hrs : 4ml x pt weight in kg x %BSA= 50% over first 8hrs 50% over next 16hrs Hemothorax and S/S - Correct answer A hemothorax is an accumulation of up to 1,500mL of blood within the pleural space S/S: Flat neck veins, decreased lung sounds on the affected side, increased RR, increased HR, hypotension first, hyporresonant, loss of blood, hypoxia Pneumothorax - Correct answer Air in pleural cavity (also known as pleural space) S/S: JVD, decreased lung sounds on affected side, increased RR, increased HR, SOB first, hyperressonant, can lead to tension pneumo and tracheal deviation, hypoxia 4 M's of pregnancy - Correct answer - Multiplicity (multiple babies)

  • Maturity
  • Medication
  • Meconium Definition of libel - Correct answer written defamation (Making a false statement in written form that injures a person's good name) Definition of Slander - Correct answer spoken defamation (Making a false verbal statement that injures a person's good name) What is diffusion - Correct answer The movement of particles/solute from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration. What is osmosis - Correct answer movement of solvent (water) from area of lower solute concentration to higher concentration

What is filtration? - Correct answer passage through filter or through material prevents passage of certain molecules What is a hypotonic solution - Correct answer solution has less osmotic pressure than body fluids - "hippo" - solvent concentration inside cell higher, larger cell eventually bursts Negligence - Correct answer Failure to provide the same care that a person with similar training would provide in the same or similar situation Gross negligence - Correct answer Conduct that constitutes a willful or reckless disregard for a duty or standard of care Malfeasance - Correct answer Occurs if you perform an act that you are not authorized to do Misfeasance - Correct answer Occurs if you perform an act that you are legally permitted to do but you do so in an improper manner Nonfeasance - Correct answer Occurs if you fail to perform an act that you are required to expected to perform What 4 elements must be present for negligence to apply - Correct answer 1. Duty

  1. Breach of duty
  2. Damages
  3. Proximate cause Duty - Correct answer Is an obligation to provide patient care in a manner that is consistent with the standard of care established by training and local protocols Breach of duty - Correct answer Occurs when the person accused of negligence failed to act as another person with similar training would have acted under the same circumstances Damages - Correct answer When a patient is physically or psychologically harmed in some noticeable way

Proximate cause - Correct answer Legal term, essentially considers whether the alleged harm to the patient would have occurred "but for" the negligent act Abandonment - Correct answer Form of negligence that involves the termination of emergency medical care without the patients consent Assult - Correct answer Threatening a person or causing a person fear or immediate bodily harm without the persons consent - regardless of whether the threat or harm is actually carried out Battery - Correct answer unlawful touching of another person without consent Kidnapping - Correct answer The seizing, confining, abducting, or carrying away of a person by force, including transporting a competent adult for medical treatment without his or her consent. False Imprisonment - Correct answer unauthorized confinement of a person that lasts for an appreciable period of time Slander - Correct answer false verbal statements about others that harm their reputation Libel - Correct answer false written statement that harms a persons reputation expressed consent - Correct answer Type of consent given when the pt. acknowledges that they want you to provide care or transport Informed consent - Correct answer Consent given after the potential risks, benefits and alternatives to treatment have been explained Implied consent - Correct answer Type of consent in which a patient who is unable to give consent is given treatment under the legal assumption that he or she would want treatment. Minors consent - Correct answer Consent given by the parent or legal guardian for treatment or transport

Ethics - Correct answer the principles of right and wrong that guide an individual in making decisions Morality - Correct answer A code of conduct that can be defined by society, religion, or a person, affecting character, conduct, and conscience. Applied ethics - Correct answer The manner in which principles of ethics are incorporated into professional conduct. breach of confidentiality - Correct answer Disclosure of medical information without proper authorization dependent lividity - Correct answer Blood settling to the lowest point of the body, causing discoloration of the skin Rigor Mortis - Correct answer stiffness of the body that sets in several hours after death (2-12 hours after death) putrefaction - Correct answer Decomposition of body tissues. Safe parking distance at an accident - Correct answer Upwind and uphill, 100ft (30m) from scene on same side of the road Cleaning - Correct answer The process of removing dirt, dust, blood, or other visible contaminants from a surface or equipment Disinfection - Correct answer The killing of pathogenic agents by directly applying a chemical made for that purpose to a surface or equipment High-level disinfection - Correct answer The killing of pathogenic agents by using potent means of disinfection Sterilization - Correct answer A process such a use of heat, which removes all microbial contamination what is the cushion of safety? - Correct answer the distance you must keep between your vehicle and the vehicles around you (about 4 seconds) Landing zone soze - Correct answer 100x100 feet (30x30m) No less than 60x60 feet (18x18m)

The proper positions to approach a helicopter - Correct answer 10 o'clock and 2 o'clock as the pilot faces forward How to approach helicopter on a hill - Correct answer From the downhill side Acute stress reaction - Correct answer Reaction to stress that occurs during a stressful situation. Delayed stress reaction - Correct answer Reaction to stress that occurs after a stressful situation. cumulative stress reactions - Correct answer Prolonged or excessive stress General Adaptation Syndrome - Correct answer Body's response to stress that begins with an alarm response, followed be a stage of reaction and resistance, then recovery or if the stress is prolonged the exhaustion stages of stress response - Correct answer 1. Alarm response

  1. Reaction and Resistance
  2. Recovery
  3. Exhaustion When are debriefing sessions usually held - Correct answer Within 24- hours after a major incident When are defusing sessions usually held - Correct answer During the event or immediately afterward Stages of grief - Correct answer 1. Denial
  4. Anger
  5. Bargaining
  6. Depression
  7. Acceptance (these stages may follow each other in sequence, occur simultaneously or a person may jump back and forth between stages and each stage may last a different span of time)

Scope of practice - Correct answer outlines the boundaries of care you are able to provide for the patient Standard of care - Correct answer The manner in which an individual must act or behave when giving care Ethnocentrism - Correct answer When you consider your own cultural values more important than others Cultural imposition - Correct answer When one person imposes or forces his or her beliefs, values, and practices on another because he or she believe his or her ideals are superior Enhanced 9-1-1 - Correct answer An emergency response system in which much of the call information, such as the phone number and location of the caller, is recorded automatically and viewed by the dispatcher on a computer screen Objective - Correct answer Signs that you observe and record such as blood pressure Subjective - Correct answer Information that is told to you but can't be seen (symptoms, degree of pain) Oamosis - Correct answer Passive movement of a solvent from an area of low solute concentration to and area of higher solute concentration through permeable membrane Tendon - Correct answer Connects muscle to bone Ligament - Correct answer Connects bone to bone Cartilage - Correct answer Cushion between bones Joint - Correct answer Where ever 2 long bones come in contact ball and socket joint - Correct answer shoulder and hip (flexion, extension, abduction, adduction, rotation, circumduction)

hinge joint - Correct answer Joint between bones (as at the elbow or knee) that permits motion in only one plane axial skeleton - Correct answer skull, rib cage, and vertebral column appendicular skeleton - Correct answer Arms, legs, pelvis, shoulder How many bones are in the body? - Correct answer 206 Spinal column has how many vertebrae? - Correct answer 33 How many vertebrae are in the cervical spine - Correct answer 7 (C1-C7) How many vertebrae are in the thoracic spine - Correct answer 12 (T1- T12) How many vertebrae are in the lumbar spine - Correct answer 5 (L1-L5) How many vertebrae are in the sacrum - Correct answer 5 fused vertebrae How many vertebrae are in the coccyx - Correct answer 4 fused vertebrae Smooth muscle - Correct answer Involuntary muscle found inside many internal organs of the body Cardiac muscle - Correct answer Muscle of the heart skeletal muscle - Correct answer A muscle that is attached to the bones of the skeleton and provides the force that moves the bones. voluntary muscle - Correct answer A muscle that is under conscious control Upper airway - Correct answer nose, mouth, nasopharynx, oropharynx, pharynx, larynx, epiglottis Lower airway - Correct answer trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, alveoli

Ventilation - Correct answer Process of moving of air in and out of the lungs Respiration - Correct answer exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide Acidosis - Correct answer pH below 7. Low pH means high H+ ion concentration Alkalosis - Correct answer pH above 7. High pH mean low H+ ion concentration tidal volume - Correct answer Amount of air that moves in and out of the lungs during a single breath (approx. 500ml) inspiratory reserve volume - Correct answer The deepest breath you can take after a normal breath (3,000ml) expiratory reserve volume - Correct answer Max amount of air that you can forcibly breathe out after a normal breath (1,200ml) residual volume - Correct answer Amount of air remaining in the lungs after a forced exhalation (1,200ml) dead space - Correct answer Portion of the respiratory system that has no alveoli therefore little or no exchange of gas between air and blood occurs Minute volume calculation - Correct answer Resp rate X tidal volume Chronotropic - Correct answer Rate of contraction Dromotropic - Correct answer rate of electrical conduction Inotropic - Correct answer strength of contraction Cardiac output equation - Correct answer CO = HR x SV Normal stroke volume - Correct answer 70 mL What is the largest part of the braun - Correct answer Cerebrum

Adult GCS - Correct answer Eye Opening:

  • Spontaneous -
  • To verbal stimuli -
  • To painful stimuli -
  • No response -
  • Oriented - Verbal:
  • Confused -
  • Inappropriate words -
  • Incomprehensible sounds -
  • No response -
  • Obeys commands - Motor:
  • Localizes pain -
  • Withdrawals from pain -
  • Abnormal flexion (decorticate) -
  • Abnormal extension (decerebrate) -
  • No response -
  • Spontaneous - Child GCS - Correct answer Eye Opening:
  • To verbal stimuli -
  • To painful stimuli -
  • No response -
  • Oriented - Verbal:
  • Confused -
  • Cries -
  • Moans -
  • No response -
  • Obeys commands - Motor:
  • Localizes pain -
  • Withdrawals from pain -
  • Abnormal flexion (decorticate) -
  • Abnormal extension (decerebrate) -
  • No response -

Spontaneous - 4 To verbal stimuli - 3 To painful stimuli - 2 No response - 1 Verbal: Coos, Babbles - 5 Irritable cry - 4 Cries in pain- 3 Moans in pain - 2 No response - 1 Motor: Obeys commands - 6 Localizes pain - 5 Withdrawals from pain - 4 Abnormal flexion (decorticate) - 3 Abnormal extension (decerebrate) - 2 No response - 1 What is HCTZ used for? - Correct answer Used to treat HTN, is under the class of diuretics/water pills O2 tank calculation - Correct answer (Tank PSI - Safe Residual Pressure) x Cylinder Factor / Flow Rate (L/Min) = Tank Life (min) What are the O2 tank PSI? - Correct answer D tank: 350L E tank: 625L M tank: 3000L G tank: 5300L H,A,K tanks: 6900L What are the O2 cylinder factors? - Correct answer D tank: 0. Jumbo D tank: 0. E tank: 0. M tank: 1. What is the safe residual pressure? - Correct answer 200 PSI Trauma triad of death - Correct answer hypothermia, acidosis, coagulopathy

Beck's triad - Correct answer hypotension, JVD, muffled heart sounds Cushing's triad - Correct answer bradycardia, hypertension, and bradypnea, (cheyne-stokes) Parkland formula - Correct answer 4ml x kg x BSA = amount of fluid in 24hrs. Give 1/2 of amt over the first 8hrs and 1/2 amount next 16hrs Opioid overdose triad - Correct answer 1. Consciousness decreased

  1. Pinpoint pupils
  2. Respiratory Depression (remember CPR for the 3 signs of an opioid OD) What is vertex presentation? - Correct answer It is a delivery in which the head comes out first (normal delivery) What is transverse lie? - Correct answer Baby is positioned horizontally across the uterus, rather than vertically. In a transverse lie, the baby's back might be positioned:
  • Down, with the back facing the birth canal
  • With one shoulder pointing toward the birth canal
  • Up, with the hands and feet facing the birth canal What is frank breech presentation? - Correct answer The buttocks is presenting with both hips flexed and both knees extended and the feet are against the face. Breech presentation - Correct answer birth position in which the buttocks, feet, or knees emerge first Spinal injury (C1-C4) - Correct answer - Most severe spinal cord injury
  • Quadriplegic
  • Ability to speak is sometimes impaired or reduced
  • Pt. may not be able to breath in their own, or control bowel/bladder Spinal injury (C5) - Correct answer - Person can raise his or her arms and bend elbows
  • Likely to have some or total paralysis of wrists, hands, trunk and legs
  • Can speak and use diaphragm, but breathing will be weakened

Spinal injury (C6) - Correct answer - Nerves affect wrist extension

  • Paralysis in hands, trunk and legs, typically
  • Should be able to bend wrists back
  • Can speak and use diaphragm, but breathing will be weakened
  • Little or no voluntary control of bowel or bladder Spinal injury (C7) - Correct answer - Nerves control elbow extension and some finger extension
  • Most can straighten their arm and have normal movement of their shoulders
  • Little or no voluntary control of bowel or bladder Spinal injury (C8) - Correct answer - Nerves control some hand movement
  • Should be able to grasp and release objects
  • Little or no voluntary control of bowel or bladder Spinal injury (T1-T5) - Correct answer - Corresponding nerves affect muscles, upper chest, mid-back and abdominal muscles
  • Arm and hand function is usually normal
  • Injuries usually affect the trunk and legs(also known as paraplegia)
  • Can stand in a standing frame, while others may walk with braces Spinal injury (T6-T12) - Correct answer - Nerves affect muscles of the trunk (abdominal and back muscles) depending on the level of injury
  • Usually results in paraplegia
  • Normal upper-body movement
  • Little or no voluntary control of bowel or bladder
  • Some can stand in a standing frame, while others may walk with braces. Spinal injury (L1-L5) - Correct answer - Injuries generally result in some loss of function in the hips and legs
  • Little or no voluntary control of bowel or bladder
  • Depending on strength in the legs, may need a wheelchair and may also walk with braces Spinal injury (S1-S5) - Correct answer - Injuries generally result in some loss of function in the hips and legs
  • Little or no voluntary control of bowel or bladder
  • Most likely will be able to walk
  • S1 nerves affect the hips and the groin area.
  • S2 nerves affect the backs of the thighs.
  • S3 nerves affect the medial buttock area.
  • S4 nerves affect the perineal area. What does the RUQ contain? - Correct answer - Right lobe of liver
  • Right kidney
  • Gallbladder
  • Portion of pancreas
  • Portions of small and large intestines What does the LUQ contain? - Correct answer - Left lobe of liver
  • Spleen
  • Left kidney
  • Stomach
  • Portion pf pancreas
  • Portions of small and large intestines What does the LLQ contain? - Correct answer - Portions of small and large intestines
  • Left ovary and fallopian tube
  • Left ureter What does the RLQ contain? - Correct answer - Portions of small and large intestines
  • Right ovary and fallopian tube
  • Right ureter
  • Appendix 5 links in chain of survival - Correct answer 1. Recognition and activation of EMS
  1. Immediate high quality CPR
  2. Rapid defibrillation
  3. BLS and ALS care
  4. Advanced life support and post-arrest care Adult chest compression rate - Correct answer 100-120/min Adult chest compression depth - Correct answer 2 inches (5cm)

Adult CPR - Correct answer 1 or 2 rescuer - 30: Children and infant CPR - Correct answer 1 rescuer - 30: 2 rescuer - 15: Child CPR chest compression depth - Correct answer 2 inches (5cm) Infant CPR chest compression depth - Correct answer 1.5 inches (4cm) Rate of ventilation during CPR with an advanced airway - Correct answer 1 breath every 6 seconds (10/min) with continuous chest compressions Stages of labour - Correct answer 1: Onset of contractions to effacement and/or complete dilation of cervix 2: Crowning to delivery of newborn 3: Delivery of newborn to delivery of placenta Normal vital signs for a child - Correct answer HR: 60- RR: 12- BP: low: 2xage + 70, high 2xage + 90 Normal vital signs for an adult - Correct answer HR: 60- RR: 12- BP: 90-140 systolic Normal vital signs for an infant - Correct answer HR: 100- RR: 25- BP:70-95 systolic Normal vital signs for a newborn - Correct answer HR: 100- RR: 30- BP: 50- APGAR - Correct answer Appearance 2: Pink 1: Pink body, blue extremities 0: Blue Pulse 2: Over 100

1: Under 100 0: Absent Grimace 2: Prompt response to stimulus 1: Slow response to stimulus 0: Floppy Activity 2: Active 1: Flexed arms/legs 0: Absent/limp Respirations 2: Strong cry 1: Weak cry 0: Absent Rule of nines for infants - Correct answer Head: 18 Whole Torso: 18 Whole Back: 18 Arms: 9 Legs: 13. Genitalia: 1 Rule of nines for a child - Correct answer Head: 12 Whole Torso: 18 Whole Back: 18 Arms: 9 Legs: 16. Genitalia: 1 Rule of nines for adults - Correct answer Head: 9 Whole Torso: 18 Whole Back: 18 Arms: 9 Legs: 18 Genitalia: 1 4 levels of HAZMAT gear - Correct answer Level A: highest level, reps&splash protection for unknown substanceLevel B: full resp protection, chemically resistantLevel C: air purifying respirator, eye and hand protectionLevel D: firefighter gear, not suitable for HAZMAT

4 Levels of Decontamination - Correct answer ... 3 stages of shock - Correct answer -Compensated -Decompensated -Irreversible compensated shock - Correct answer ... What are the lateral leads? - Correct answer I, aVL, V5, V What are the anterior leads? - Correct answer V3, V What are the inferior leads? - Correct answer II, III, aVF What are the septal leads? - Correct answer V1, V King Tube Sizes - Correct answer Size 3: Under 5ft (Yellow) Size 4: 5ft-6ft (Red) Size 5: Over 6ft (Purple) LMA and Igel sizes - Correct answer Size 3: 30-60kg (Yellow) Size 4: 50-90kg (Green) Size 5: 90+kg (Orange) What are the 3 breaches of duty? - Correct answer - Malfeasance

  • Misfeasance
  • Nonfeasance Pitting Edema Scale - Correct answer 1+ Mild pitting, slight indentation, no perceptible swelling, < 0.5 cm (0.25") 2+ Moderate pitting, indentation subsides rapidly, 0.5-1.25 cm (0.5") 3+ Deep pitting, indentation remains, leg looks swollen, 1.25-2.5 cm (0.75") 4+ Very deep pitting, indentation lasts long time, leg very swollen, > 2.5 cm (> 1.0") What is the ductus venosus? - Correct answer A shunt at the end of the umbilical cord which allows blood coming from the placenta to bypass the liver and empty directly into the IVC

What is the ductus arteriosus? - Correct answer A vessel a growing fetus has that connects the pulmonary artery with the aorta, it carries blood away from the lungs and sends it directly to the body 6 components of the inverted pyramid of taking care of a neonate - Correct answer 1 : (Do What Probably Seems Simple) Dry, Warm, Position, Suctioning, Stimulation 2: oxygen 3: ventilation 4: Chest compressions 5: Intubation 6: medications 3 types of hemorrhage - Correct answer - capillary: oozes from wound, steady bright red blood, clots quick

  • venous: heavy flow, dark red blood, stops in a few mins
  • arterial: pulsating from sound, bright red blood, extreme volume loss may need TQ Depolarization - Correct answer ... Repolarization - Correct answer ... MAP equation - Correct answer (SBP + 2DBP)/ At what point in the cardiac cycle do we see the coronary vessels fill with oxygenated blood? - Correct answer ..... What is the function of basophils? - Correct answer Release histamine and heparin to damaged tissues What is the function of esinophils? - Correct answer Destroy parasites and increase during allergic reactions What is the function of neutrophils? - Correct answer Important for phagocytosis; most numerous of the leukocytes What is the function of monocytes? - Correct answer Important for phagocytosis

What is the function of lymphocytes? - Correct answer Plays several different roles in immune response Which leukocytes are considered granulocytes? - Correct answer neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils Which leukocytes are considered agranulocytes? - Correct answer monocytes and lymphocytes Anticoagulant Action Med examples - Correct answer Action: Substance that prevents blood clot formation (commonly referred to as blood thinners) Ex: Heparin, Warfarin, Xarelto Antiplatelet agents Action Med Examples - Correct answer Action:

  • Substance that interferes with the action of platelets.
  • Prolongs bleeding time
  • Used to prevent heart attacks and strokes Ex: Clopidogrel (Plavix) With Anterior and Lateral ACS what part of the heart is affected? - Correct answer The left ventricle What are the S/S of Anterior and Lateral ACS and why they happen? - Correct answer - HTN: Baroreceptors sense a lack of blood movement so it signals arteries to "squeeze" to get more blood to the heart there for leading to HTN
  • Tachycardia: Because of the blockage the SV decreases and HR increases to improve CO
  • Crushing chest pain: Resulting from the block and infarct happening in the heart
  • SOB: Due to the infarction in the LV the pressure backs up into the lungs (fluid takes path of least resistance) ultimately filling the alveoli with fluid giving you SOB
  • Pulmonary edema: Due to the infarction in the LV the pressure backs up into the lungs (fluid takes the path of least resistance) ultimately filling the alveoli with fluid giving you Pulmonary Edema

What is the pathopysiology of Anterior and Lateral ACS? - Correct answer .... TX for Anterior and Lateral ACS - Correct answer - O

  • ASA 160mg once
  • Nitro 0.4mg q5min Which part of the heart is affected with Inferior ACS? - Correct answer Either the right coronary artery or the left circumflex artery. What percent of inferior ACS occur in the RCA? - Correct answer 80% What percent of inferior ACS occur in the Left Circumflex Artery? - Correct answer 20% What are the S/S of inferior ACS and why? NOT DONE* - Correct answer
  • Hypotension: Due to the blockage of the RV it will pump less blood being sent to the heart and rest of the body
  • Tachycardia: Because there's a decrease in CO the HR increases to try and compensate
  • Bradycardia: If the block in the RCA is directly in front of the SA node or high enough to affect it you will see bradycardia as a result
  • Crushing chest pain:
  • SOB:
  • Peripheral Edema: TX for Inferior ACS - Correct answer - ASA 160mg
  • IV with isotonic fluids 250-50ml then reassess
  • Nitro (At ACP level ONLY) Which 12 leads are Lateral? - Correct answer 1, V5, V6, aVL Which 12 leads are inferior? - Correct answer II,III,aVF Which 12 leads are septal? - Correct answer VI, V Which 12 leads are anterior? - Correct answer V3, V

START Triage Red (immediate) requirements - Correct answer - Resps

30 or <

  • Absent radial pulse
  • Unresponsive or can't follow commands
  • Cap refil >2sec START Triage Yellow (Delyed) requirements - Correct answer - Resps <30 and >
  • Present radial pulse
  • Follows commands
  • Cap refill <2sec START Triage Green (Minor) requirements - Correct answer - Walking wounded
  • Minor fractures
  • Minor soft-tissue injuries START Trige Black (Dead) requirements - Correct answer - Obvious death
  • Resp arrest
  • Cardiac arrest
  • Open head injury (visible brain matter) Empathy - Correct answer ability to identify and understand what someone is feeling Simplex transmitter - Correct answer Single frequency radio, can occur in either direction but not both simultaneously Duplex transmitter - Correct answer Ability to transmit and receive simultaneously Cellular telephone - Correct answer Low powered portable radio communicates through an interconnected series of repeat stations Important aspects of radio communication - Correct answer - Keep transmissions clear and brief
  • Ensure clear frequency
  • Standard formating
  • Hold microphone 2-3' away from mouth
  • Use clear, calm and monotone voice
  • Clear text, be professional
  • Avoid using slang/abbreviations
  • Patient confidentiality and privacy Beta 1 receptors - Correct answer -Heart -Increases HR (chromotropic), contractility (inotropic), and conductivity (dromotropic) Beta 2 receptors - Correct answer - Lungs
  • Vasodilates bronchioles alpha receptors - Correct answer peripheral vasoconstriction Sympathetic nervous system - Correct answer - "Fight or flight"
  • Increases altertness
  • Increases HR Parasympathetic nervous system - Correct answer - "Rest and DIgest"
  • Conserves energy
  • Slows HR
  • Increases intestinal and gland activity
  • Relaxes sphincter muscles and Gi tract Definition of infancy - Correct answer The first year of life What is a newborn age - Correct answer First month of life 0-2 month old characteristics - Correct answer - Spend most time sleeping or eating
  • Respond mainly to physical stimuli
  • Have limited head control
  • Predisposed to hypothermia
  • Express themselves largely through crying
  • Are not able to tell the difference between parents and strangers
  • Nose breathers 2-6 month old characteristics - Correct answer - More active and social
  • Recognize caregivers
  • May follow bright light or object with eyes
  • 4 months of age: able to hold their heads up
  • increase awareness of surroundings
  • persistent crying, irritability, lack of eye contact: can be sign of significant illness, depressed mental status, delay in development
  • 3-4 months start to breath through mouth 6-12 month old characteristics - Correct answer - Can sit unsupported
  • Reach for objects
  • Become more mobile
  • More aware of surroundings
  • Explore own bodies
  • Begin teething and putting things in mouth
  • Babbling is common What age is a toddler? - Correct answer 1-3 years 12-18 month old characteristics - Correct answer - Begin to walk and explore
  • Imitate behaviours of older children and parents
  • May not be able to fully chew food 18-24 month old characteristics - Correct answer - Minds develop rapidly
  • Begin to understand cause and effect
  • Balance and gait improve rapidly
  • Running and climbing develop
  • Ten to cling to parent/caregiver or special object Preschool age range - Correct answer 3-6 years 3-6 year old characteristics - Correct answer - Can understand directions
  • Much more specific in describing their sensations
  • Identify painful areas when asked School age range - Correct answer 6-12 years 6-12 year old characteristics - Correct answer - Beginning to act more like adults
  • Thinks in concrete terms
  • Responds sensibly to direct questions
  • Helps take care of themselves

Adolescent age range - Correct answer 12-18 years 12-18 year old characteristics - Correct answer - Can think abstractly and participate in decision making

  • Puberty begins
  • Struggling with issues of independence, body image, sexuality, and peer pressure A child's head differs from an adults how? - Correct answer It is proportionally larger than an adults A child's airway differs from an adults how? - Correct answer - Tongue takes up more room
  • Larynx is higher and more anterior
  • Airways is narrower
  • Neck and trachea are shorter Signs of increased respiratory effort - Correct answer - Retraction
  • Nasal flaring
  • Head bobbing
  • Grunting
  • Wheezing
  • Gurgling
  • Stridor FBAO in children - Correct answer Older than 1 year of age perform a series of abdominal thrusts if conscious. If unconscious perform chest thrusts FBAO in infants - Correct answer Less than a year old deliver a series of back blows followed by five chest thrusts. Inspect mouth upon completion of each series. Croup - Correct answer Patho:
  • A viral infection in young children (usually 6 months - 4 years) resulting in edema of the subglottic tissues S/S:
  • harsh barking cough
  • inspiratory stridor
  • nasal flaring
  • Low grade fever Tx:
  • Cool humidified O2 4-6L/min Epiglotittis - Correct answer Patho:
  • Acute bacterial infection in children (usually in children ages 3-7) S/S:
  • High-grade fever
  • Pain with swallowing
  • Sore throat
  • Dyspnea
  • Inspiratory stridor
  • Drooling TX:
  • O2
  • Handle child gently Febrile seizrues - Correct answer - Occur as a result of sudden increase in body temp (they're related to thew rate at which the body temp increases, not the degree)
  • Occur mostly in children ages 6 months to 6 years
  • Often times parents will report a recent onset of fever or cold symptoms What are the most common cause of injury in children? - Correct answer Falls What are the 3 types of fractures in children? - Correct answer - Bend
  • Buckle
  • Greenstick 4 types of child abuse - Correct answer - physical
  • sexual
  • emotional
  • neglect Decorticate posturing - Correct answer - Associated with a lesion at or above the upper brainstem
  • Presents with arms flexed, fists clenched and legs extended

Decerebrate posturing - Correct answer - Associated with a lesion in the brainstem

  • Presents with stiff and extended extremities and retracted head AEIOUTIPS - Correct answer A: Alcohol, Acidosis E: Epilepsy I: Infection O: Overdose U: Uremia T: Trauma, Toxins, Tumor I: Insulin (hypo or hyperglycemia) P: Psychosis, Poison S: Stroke, Seizure Wernicke's syndrome - Correct answer - Condition characterized by loss of memory and disorientation, associated with chronic alcohol intake and a diet deficient in thiamine
  • Acute but reversible brain disease Korsakoff's psychosis - Correct answer - Psychosis characterized by disorientation, muttering delirium, insomnia, delusions, and hallucinations. Symptoms include painful extremities, bilateral wrist drop (rarely), bilateral foot drop (frequently), and pain on pressure over the long nerves.
  • May be irreversible Phases of a seizure - Correct answer - Aura
  • Loss of consciousness
  • Tonic phase
  • Hypertonic phase
  • Clonic Phase
  • Postseizure
  • Postictal phase Aura - Correct answer a sensation experienced by someone right before a seizure, which might be a smell, sound, or general feeling Loss of consciousness (in a seizure) - Correct answer Person becomes unconscious at some point after the aura