Emergency Medical Technician (EMT) Knowledge Assessment, Exams of Health sciences

Download Emergency Medical Technician (EMT) Knowledge Assessment and more Exams Health sciences in PDF only on Docsity! lOMoAR cPSD|46020670 NREMT Test Bank Exam 2024 Actual Exam Questions And Answers A+ Graded Which of the following is an example of an unsafe scene for an EMT-Basic to enter? A. Fifty-four-year old male with difficulty breathing B. Twenty-three-year old female with abdominal pain C. Eighteen-year old adolescent with a gunshot wound to the chest D. Four-year old child with leg pain correct answer C. Eighteen-year old adolescent with a gunshot wound to the chest Reason: Any dispatch to a call with violence involved, such as a gunshot wound, must be secured by police prior to EMS involvement. The other calls do not give any inidication of being unsafe. The arterioles connect the and the capillaries. A. Veins B. Venules C. Arteries D. Vena cavae correct answer C. Arteries Reason: The path of blood flow goes from the heart to the aorta to the arteries to the arterioles to the capillaries to the venules to the veins to the vena cavae to the heart. Which of the following patients is at greatest risk for hypothermia? A. Thirty-year old firefighter B. Twelve-year old skier C. Forty-five year old EMT D. Seventy-year old librarian correct answer D. Seventy-year old librarian Reason: The very young and very old are greater rsk for hypothermia The zygomatic bones are located in the lOMoAR cPSD|46020670 A. Chest B. Lower leg C. Back D. Face correct answer D. Face Reason: The zygomatic bones are the cheekbones Which of the following federal laws was created to prevent "patients dumping" and the practice of denying treatment to patients with no insurance? A. Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Act (EMTALA) B. The White Paper Act C. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) D. The Medical Practice Act of 1988 correct answer A. Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Act (EMTALA) Reason: The EMTALA was enacted by Congress in 1986 to ensure public access to emergency services regardless of their ability to pay. This act was also created to prevent hospitals from dumping their patients on other hospitals because of the patient's financial status. The White Paper (A) was not an act, but was a paper published in 1966 addressing the inadequacy of pre-hospital emergency medical care. The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) (C) was created to protect the provacy of healthcare information. There is no such act as the Medical Practice Act of 1988 (D). When using air transport, the EMT-Basic should approach a helicopter A. From the uphill side B. From the rear C. Only when instructed by a helicopter crew member D. Under no circumstances, but instead allow the crew to come to them Correct answer C. Only when instructed by a helicopter crew member Reason: Helicopters are dangerous vechicles, and safety rules include never approaching from the uphill side because of the danger of the rotors, or from the rear because of the tail rotor. In addition, EMT-Basics should never approach until instructed by a helicopter crew member so that the patient loading can be coordinated safely. Not approaching the helicopter at all may be impractical due to patient care concerns. Which of the following should be noted as insignificant in conducting the patient assessment? lOMoAR cPSD|46020670 The letter "G" in the APGAR score stands for A. Grating B. Grimace C. Guarding D. Gurgling correct answer B. Grimace Reason: The baby's ability to make facial expressions is indicative of its ability to function in the outside world. Grating refers to rubbing of two organs together, guarding is when one protects a portion of the body with one's hands, and gurgling is the sound one makes when there is fluid in the oropharynx. None of these are indicators in the APGAR score You are dispatched to an auto accident on a local city street. You respond priority and arrive on scene with suitable precautions. The police are on scene. There is one victim, a woman seated in the car. Her car backed into another car as she was pulling out of her driveway at low speed. As you approach the car, she advises you that she is 36 weeks pregnant with her first child. She advises you that she has no injuries and no hemorrhaging and is not in any pain; however, she wishes to be checked out at the hospital. In what position should she be transported? A. Trendelenburg B. Fowler C. Left lateral recumbent D. Right lateral recumbent correct answer C. Left lateral recumbent Reason: Unless contraindicated by some other condition, women in their third trimester of pregnancy should be transported on their left side to prevent the weight of the child from compressing their vena cavae and causing circulatory problems, which could lead to impairment of consciousness and other complications. Trendelenburg is when the legs are elevated to help combat hypotension, and Fowler position is seated upright You respond to a 18-year old male patient who is threatening suicide. The fire department states that before you arrived, the patient told them that he wanted to kill himself. Now, the patient is telling you that he does not want to hurt himself and he just wants to be left alone. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment? A. Explain the risks of staying at home with suicidal thoughts, and then have the patient sign a refusal form if he appears mentally competent. B. Inform the patient that because he told the fire department that he wants to hurt himself that he will have to go to the hospital. Have the police department assist you with ensuring that the patient is transported to the hospital. lOMoAR cPSD|46020670 C. Find out if the patient can make an appointment with his personal doctor, and then confirm that he has does have an appointment before you clear the scene and return to the station. D. Since the patient did not tell you personally that he wants to kill himself, you must allow him to make his own decisions. Explain to him that he needs to get mental health assistance. – correct answer B. Inform the patient that because he told the fire department that he wants to hurt himself that he will have to go to the hospital. Have the police department assist you with ensuring that the patient is transported to the hospital. Reason: Because the patient has already expressed the desire to harm himself to a public safety official, the patient must be evaluated by a physician. If the patient refuses to go with you, the police may have to place the patient in protective custody to have him transported to the hospital You respond to call for a female acting strangely. You respond nonpriority and are met by the police, who request you transport the patient to a hospital for a psychological evaluation. The patient is a twenty-year old female who is ballet dancing in the supermarket, bowling, and throwing kisses to an imaginary dancing partner, Rudolf Nureyev. You should next A. Pretend to shake Mr. Nureyev's hand B. Wrap your arms around the patient and force her to the stretcher C. Gently explain to her that there is no Mr. Nureyev dancing with her D. Tackle the patient and assist the police in handcuffing her hands behind her back correct answer C. Gently explain to her that there is no Mr. Nureyev dancing with her Reason: The patient is not exhibiting a behavior that requires you to respond with overly aggressive technique, such as tackling her or wrestling her to the stretcher. She is having delusions, and it is not wise to give these delusions credence by acknowledging them, such as by shaking Mr. Nureyev's hand. She might protest when you tell her that Mr. Nureyev is not right there dancing with her, but your confidence and gently demeanor will more often than not win her over to doing what you would like her to do A neonate will normally have pulse rates and respiratory rates than an infant A. Highe r B. Lower C. More irregular D. Less irregular correct answer A. Higher Reason: Neonates have higher pulse rates and respiratory rates than infants. There is no change in regularity between neonates and infants lOMoAR cPSD|46020670 Most EMTs are injured at which of the following types of calls? A. Domestic violence calls B. Motor vehicle accidents C. Workplace injury calls D. In-station accidents correct answer B. Motor vehicle accidents Reason: Most EMT's are injured while treating injured patients at motor vehicle accidents and thus should be more alert to the dangers posed by being on the streets and highways. The other situations also present dangers of which the EMT must be aware, but the MVA is the leading cause of injury . Veins are blood vessels that carry deoxygenated blood the heart A. Into B. Away from C. Toward C. From the lungs to – correct answer C. Toward Reason: Veins carry blood toward the heart. The vessels that carry blood away from the heart are the arteries Which of the following is NOT a type of muscle? A. Voluntary B. Involuntary C. Cardiac D. Regulatory correct answer D. Regulatory Reason: The three types of muscles are voluntary, involuntary, and cardiac. There is no such thing as a regulatory muscle Which of the following is NOT a component of the SAMPLE history? lOMoAR cPSD|46020670 *multiply by 1.8 and then add 32* Reason: A core body temperature of 33 degrees Celsius indicates mild hypothermia. A temperature of 28-32 degrees Celsius indicates moderate hypothermia, and a temperature less than 28 degrees Celsius indicates severe hypothermia. Irreversible hypothermia (D) is not considered a stage of hypothermia. You are dispatched to a residence for a man down. You respond priority and arrive on scene wearing suitable precautions. The scene is safe. You enter the bedroom, and the patient's wife advises you that he is being treated for lung cancer and is undergoing chemotherapy. The patient presents on the primary assessment as unresponsive with no gag reflex. His airway is open, he is breathing spontaneously at a rate of 12, and he has a weak thready pulse rate of 100. You insert an oropharyngeal airway and administer supplemental oxygen via a nonrebreather mask at a flow rate of 12 lpm. Your transport time to the nearest hospital emergency room is 30 minutes, but there is an ALS unit 15 minutes out. You should next A. Call for an ALS intercept B. Begin priority transport C. Administer .3 mg epinephrine subcutaneously D. Request an air transport correct answer A. Call for an ALS intercept Reason: This patient may benefit from an ALS intervention depending on his underlying medical problem. Since ALS is within half the time that it would take to get him to an emergency department, this would be the most correct solution. The administration of epinephrine (C) would be used only if the assessment gave some indication that his level of consciousness was due to an allergic reaction. The helicopter (D) is not really appropriate in this situation since the amount of time spent taking off and landing would delay arrival of the patient at the emergency department. The letter "Q" in the acronym OPQRST stands for A. Quantity B. Quality C. Quasi D. Quick correct answer B. Quality Reason: OPQRST stands for Onset, Provocation, Quality, Radiation, Severity, and Time. This question also reinforces the need to read the question carefully, since the words "quality" and "quantity" are very close. After the focused trauma assessment is completed on a trauma patient, the assessment should be rechecked every lOMoAR cPSD|46020670 A. Two min B. Five min C. Ten min D. Fifteen min correct answer B. Five min Reason: Good patient assessment requires that vital signs and assessment observations be checked and tended every five min since patient condition can change very rapidly. Which of the following best describes an indirect force injury? A. When a force is applied to one region of the body but cause an injury to another region of the body B. When an object strikes a person and transfers all of its energy to the point of impact C. When a patient has a medical condition that causes weekend bones to fracture D. When a penetrating injury leads to a fracture or other musculoskeletal injury correct answer B. When an object strikes a person and transfers all of its energy to the point of impact Reason: Answers (A) and (C) describe a direct force injury. Answer (D) describes a pathological fracture In the mnemonic DCAP-BTLS, the letter "B" stands for A. Bruising B. Brittleness C. Burns D. Bradycardia correct answer C. Burns Reason: The mnemonic DCAP-BTLS is used in the focused assessment of a trauma patient and stands for Deformity, Contusions, Abrasions, Punctures, Burns, Tenderness, Lacerations, and Swelling. A patient viewed from the side is bisected by the A. Midaxillary line B. Midclavicular line C. Midsternal line D. Horizontal plane correct answer A. Midaxillary line Reason: The midaxillary line runs through the underarm of the patient, dividing the anterior plane from the posterior plane. lOMoAR cPSD|46020670 You are dispatched to a man who has fallen from a garage roof. You respond priority and arrive on scene wearing suitable precautions. The scene is safe. The patient is a thirty-two year old male who is conscious, but confused as to events. You are holding stabilization while your partner completes the focused trauma assessment. Which device should be applied following the focused assessment of the head and neck? A. Halo traction device B. Har traction device C. Hale splint D. Cervical collar correct answer D. Cervical collar Reason: This is the type of question that challenges your knowledge. The tendency is to choose one of the "H" answers since the correct answer seems out of place, and there is such a thing as the hare traction splint. The Good Samaritan Act is a A. Religious doctrine B. Statue that minimizes liability for certain acts C. Good deed done by an EMT C. Play put on by EMTs to entertain children correct answer B. Statue that minimizes liability for certain acts Reason: The Good Samaritan Act was passed to encourage people to render aid by minimizing the liability for such acts While en route to the hospital with a critically ill patient, how often should you repeat vital signs as part of ongoing assessment? A. Every one min B. Every three min C. Every five min D. Every ten min correct answer C. Every five min Reason: While five min is the standard, vital signs should be retaken anytime there is any change in the patient's condition. Changes in the patient's condition will only be noted if the patient's ongoing assessment is constant and not just a predetermine interval The "U" in the mnemonic AVPU means lOMoAR cPSD|46020670 Hypertension (D) is not seen in shock. A competent patient may refuse which of the following procedures? A. Cervical stabilization with a cervical collar B. Spinal immobilization with a spine board C. Intravenous fluid administration D. All of the above correct answer D. All of the above Reason: A competent and conscious patient may refuse any medical procedure or transport Which of the following oxygen delivery devices normally provides between 24-44 percent oxygen when attached to supplemental oxygen? A. Nasal cannula B. Simple face mask C. Nonrebreather mask C. Bag-valve mask correct answer A. Nasal cannula Reason: The nasal cannula provides between 24-44 percent oxygen. The simple face mask (b) provides 40-60 percent oxygen. The nonrebreather mask (C) provides 90-100 percent oxygen, and the bag-valve mask (D) provides nearly 100 percent oxygen. SIDS normally occurs between the ages of A. 0 and 1 B. 1 and 3 C. 2 and 3 D. - correct answer A. 0 and 1 Reason: SIDS normally occurs in the neonate and infant populations, although toddlers are also occasionally at risk An impaled object should never be removed unless lOMoAR cPSD|46020670 A. Ordered to do so by police on scene B. Requested by patient C. It interferes with airway management D. It is longer than 12 inches – correct answer C. It interferes with airway management Reason: An impaled object should never be removed unless it interferes with managing the airway or performing chest compressions An EMT-Basic must check which of the following when administering pharmaceuticals? A. Temperature of drug B. Contraindications C. Side effects D. Expiration date correct answer D. Expiration date Reason: The expiration date must always be checked. The other answers should also be checked, but answer (D), right date, is one of the "Five Rights" to be checked in drug administration Your patient is experiencing severe respiratory difficulty due to pulmonary edema. In which of the following positions would you expect see this patient? A. Semi-Fowler position B. Trendelenburg position C. Tripod position D. Reverse Fowler position correct answer C. Tripod postion Reason: A patient with severe respiratory difficulty due to pulmonary edema would most likely present in the tripod position. A patient with respiratory difficulty due to pulmonary edema would don't find any relief in the Trendelenburg or revere Fowler position and would generally only find moderate relief in the semi-Fowler position. The contraction of the ventricles produce the pressure in the arteries. A. Systolic B. Diastolic C. Arterial D. Static correct answer A. Systolic Reason: The systolic pressure in the arteries occurs when the ventricles contract and force the blood through the circulatory system. Diastolic pressure occurs when the heart lOMoAR cPSD|46020670 is relaxing between contractions. Arterial pressure is the general pressure in the arteries. On a cold winter day, you respond to a local pond for an ice fisherman who fell through the ice. You arrive on scene and you observe a male lying supine in cold and wet clothes; the patient has no pulse or respirations. A scuba diver advises that your patient has been underwater for the 30 minutes it took the diver to suit up and effect the rescue. You should next A. Pronounce the patient dead B. Immediately begin CPR C. Place the patient in the truck, remove his wet clothes and begin to warm him D. Request an ALS intercept correct answer B. Immediately begin CPR Reason: The patient may still be resuscitated, since his vital signs may have been suppressed by sudden immersion in cold water, a condition referred to as the mammalian diving reflex. EMS personnel cannot normally pronounce people dead, although state protocols do usually allow EMT's to assume death has occurred if certain signs and symptoms, such as rigor mortis and postmortem lividity, are present. You will want to warm the patient by cutting away his clothing and placing him in a warm truck, but your priority should be beginning CPR. You may request an ALS intercept, but it is imperative that basic life support begin immediately. You are dispatched to a local health club for a male with difficulty breathing. You respond priority and arrive on scene. The scene is safe and you are wearing suitable precautions. You observe a 30-year old male patient with obvious dyspnea who is pale and mildly diaphoretic. He had a history of asthma, blood pressure of 150/80, pulse of 110, and respiratory rate of 24. His pulse oximetry saturation is 88 percent on room air. Which of the following oxygen delivery devices should you apply? A. Nasal cannula B. Simple face mask C. Partial nonrebreather D. Full nonrebreather correct answer D. Full nonrebreather Reason: The patient is hypoxic and needs high-flow oxygen and the device that will provide the most flow is the full nonrebreather, which delivers between 80 and 100 percent oxygen to the patient. The other devices deliver less: the nasal cannula (A) delivers 20 to 40 percent, the simple face mask (B) 40 to 60 percent, and the partial nonrebreather (C) 60 to 80 percent. In the scenario in question 54, what flow rate will you set your oxygen regulator to? A. 4 L per min lOMoAR cPSD|46020670 The preferred method of ventilating a patient in respiratory arrest in the prehospital setting is a A. Manual ventilator B. Face mask C. Bag-valve mask D. Bag-valve mask with oxygen reservoir correct answer D. Bag-valve mask with oxygen reservoir Reason: A bag-valve mask with oxygen reservoirs the most effective method of ventilating a patient in the prehospital setting. A manual ventilator (A) is unwieldy in the prehospital setting, and a face mask (B) is not as effective in ventilating as a bag-valve mask . The oxygen reservoir also makes the percentage of oxygen much higher than the other prehospital devices do. You are dispatched to a local restaurant for a man down. You arrive on scene and observe a male in full cardiac and respiratory arrest. You and your partner perform CPR for one minute and then convert his heart rhythm with the AED; he then has a pulse of 65 and a blood pressure of 90/60. After two minutes he begins to have spontaneous respirations and his gag reflex returns, so you remove the oropharyngeal airway. You finish your assessment and begin transport to the nearest emergency department 15 minutes away. At ten minutes from the hospital, he suddenly lapses into unconsciousness and again has no pulse or spontaneous respirations. Your next procedure should be A. Begin rescue breathing B. Begin chest compressions C. Analyze with the AED D. Request an ALS intercept correct answer B. Begin chest compressions Reason: The sequence for a second resuscitation following an arrest is identical: ABC (airway, breathing, and circulation), then AED. You are dispatched to a residence for an unconscious male. You respond priority with suitable precautions and the scene is safe. You find a male subject lying on the kitchen floor with spontaneous respirations, and a carotid and radial pulses. He is conscious and responsive to verbal stimuli with a patent airway and no difficulty swallowing. You take his blood sugar with a glucometer and he has a blood sugar of 45. He is probably suffering from A. Postictal seizure B. Hypoglycemia lOMoAR cPSD|46020670 C. Hyperglycemia D: Hypovolemia – correct answer B. Hypoglycemia Reason: This patient is having a diabetic emergency caused by low blood sugar, or hypoglycemia. Normal blood sugar is 80 to 120. Postictal seizure (A) meets the symptoms except for the low blood sugar; hyperglycemia (C) is high blood sugar, which is definitely not the case here, and hypovolemia (D) would be caused by loss of blood volume, of which there's no indication in the signs given in the question. The patient is question 65 should be given A. Insulin B. Epinephrine C. Glucose D. Activase correct answer C. Glucose Reason: The patient's blood sugar must be elevated. This is done by administering sugar or glucose. Insulin (A) is not a drug that is indicated in this case. Epinephrine (B) is for an allergic reaction, and nitroglycerin (D) is for chest pain. Presentation of the cord from the vagina before delivery of the baby is called A. Presenting cord B. Prolapsed cord C. Breech cord D. Premature cord correct answer B. Prolapsed cord Reason: When the cord presents first, there is great danger that the cord will be compressed between the vaginal walls and the baby's head, cutting off circulation and oxygen to the baby. This is also technically a breech delivery, but "prolapsed cord" is the more correct terminology. You are dispatched to a local clinic for a child convulsing. You respond priority wearing suitable precautions and arrive on scene. The nurse on scene advises that the mother brought her two-year old male child in for not feeling well and as she began to examine him he began to seize. His vital signs are BP 100/60, pulse rate of 80, respirations of 18 prior to the seizure, and a rectal temperature of 105 degrees Fahrenheit. You suspect the patient is having a seizure. A. Tonic/clonic B. Postictal lOMoAR cPSD|46020670 C. Febrile D. Anaphylactic correct answer C. Febrile Reason: Most infant seizures are caused by a high temperature, or fever. Tonic/clonic (A) refers to the extremely jerky movements of full-blown seizure, poetical (B) is the state of unconsciousness that follows the tonic/clonic portion of the seizure, and anaphylactic (D) refers to allergic reaction. Which of the following indicates the normal blood glucose range in adults? A. 0-40 mg/dl B. 40-80 mg/dl C. 80-120 mg/dl D. 120-160 mg/dl correct answer C. 80-120 mg/dl Reason: Normal blood glucose ranges from 80-120 mg/dl in adult patients. Another term for heart attack is A. Myocardial infarction B. Congestive heart failure C. Mitral valve defect D. Left bundle branch block correct answer A. Myocardial infarction Reason: A heart attack occurs when a coronary artery is blocked and in turn a portion of the heart muscle becomes ischemic from lack of oxygen, or infarcts. The other answers are all cardiac conditions, but not literally a heart attack. You are dispatched to a call for a possible allergic reaction. You are directed to a restaurant table where a male in his twenties is clutching his throat in severe respiratory distress. His partner tells you that he is allergic to nuts and nut products, but he has not had anything other than grilled steak with sauteed vegtables. Which drug do you want to adminster following your intial assesment? A. Ephedrine 5 mg tablet B. Epinephrine 1:1000 .3 mg intramuscular C. Ephedrine spray sublingual D. Oxygen 2-6 lpm via nonrebreather correct answer B. Epinephrine 1:1000 .3 mg intramuscular Reason: This patient is exhibiting symptoms of an allergic reaction and needs the immediate intervention of epinephrine, an intervention allowed by many state protocols. Even if he has not knowingly ingested any known allergen, the food he has eaten may lOMoAR cPSD|46020670 On a very warm summer day you are dispatched to a road race site for a runner down. You respond priority and arrive on scene to find a 25-year old male lying unconscious on his back in his running clothes. His skin is red and dry and he is very hot to the touch. His pulse is 120, his respirations are 20, and his blood pressure is 100/60. Which condition should you suspect? A. Heat cramps B. Heat exhaustion C. Heatstroke D. Heat overdose correct answer C. Heatstroke Reason: The patient's condition indicates that his sweating mechanism has been compromised and his temperature is dangerously high. This condition is called heatstroke. Heat cramps (A) are muscle aches caused by hyperthermia, and heat exhaustion (B) is impaired consciousness brought on by hyperthermia, but without the disruption of the sweating mechanism. Which should you immediately do for the patient in question 78? A. Transport priority B. Request an ALS intercept C. Administer oxygen 6 lam via nasal cannula D. Transfer the patient to a cooler location and apply wet cloths to his head correct answer D. Transfer the patient to a cooler location and apply wet cloths to his head. Reason: This patients needs to be cooled immediately and then transported. Oxygen should be administered in high low quantity. An ALS intercept is possibility, but the priority has to be to get the patient cooled down to prevent seizures, possible brain insult, and death. A phobia is A. A feeling of sadness or worthlessness B. An alternate feelings of euphoria and depression C. An irrational fear D. A mistrust of everyone and everything correct answer C. An irrational fear Reason: Phobias are irrational fears. A feeling of sadness or worthlessness is often the result of clinical depression: the alternating feelings of euphoria and depression are symptomatic of bipolar disorder: and a mistrust of everyone and everything is paranoia. Tuberculosis is an example of a(n) pathogen A. Airborne lOMoAR cPSD|46020670 B. Bloodborne C. Fluidborne D. Stillborn correct answer A. Airborne Reason: Tuberculosis is transmitted by an airborne bacteria Which of the following poisons could be vomited without danger? A. Bleach B. Alcohol C. Kerosene D. Sodium hypochlorite - correct answer C. Kerosene Reason: Petroleum products, such as kerosene, should never be vomited back up, as there is the danger of aspiration of the petroleum into the lungs. Bleach and sodium hypochlorite are caustic and may not be vomited. You are dispatched to a person in the water at a local reservoir. You respond priority and arrive on scene before the police and fire units and observe a male yelling for help 100 yards from shore. You should immediately A. Jump into the water and swim to the victim B. Throw a life preserver to the victim C. Check and see if there is a boat nearby that you can use to row to the victim D. Advise dispatch that you will need a rescue boat correct answer C. Check and see if there is a boat nearby that you can use to row to the victim Reason: The victim is too far to reach with a life preserver, and you should never attempt to swim to a victim unless you are confident in your own swimming ability and in your ability to actually rescue a drowning person. If there is no boat, then you will want to notify dispatch to send one. The EMT-Basic should ask the patient to do which of the following prior to administration of a bronchodilator? A. Hold his breath for five seconds B. Exhale deeply C. Inhale rapidly three times D. Pant correct answer B. Exhale deeply Reason: Prior to the administration of a bronchodilator, the EMT-Basic asks the patient to exhale deeply to remove as much air from the lungs as possible, and then to inhale the vapor deeply into the lungs for maximum effect. lOMoAR cPSD|46020670 Which of the following definitions describes potentiation of a drug? A. Psychological dependence on a drug or drugs B. Enhancement of the effect of one drug by another drug C. Physiologic adaptation to the effects of a drug such that increasingly larger doses of the drugs are required to achieve the same effect D. The action of two drugs in which the total effects are greater than the sum of the independent effects of the drugs. correct answer B. Enhancement of the effect of one drug by another drug Reason: Answer A describes habituation, answer C describes tolerance, and answer D describes synergism. Answer B is the correct definition of potentiation You respond for a patient who is having a behavioral emergency. The patient cannot leave her house until they check each door to make sure that it is locked five times before leaving. This demonstrates which of the following types of behavior? A. Schizophrenia B. Psychosis C. Impulse control disorder D. Somatoform disorder - correct answer C. Impulse control disorder Reason: Patients who lack the ability to resist a temptation or who cannot avoid acting on an impulse have an impulse control disorder. Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is a form of an impulse control disorder. Which of the following is the most common mental illness experience in the United States? A. Depression B. manic-depressive illness C. Obsessive-compulsive disorder D. Bipolar mood disorder correct answer A. Depression Reason: Depression is the leading cause of disability in people between the ages of 15 - 44 years of age, and it is the most common mental illness of the four listed in the question. Anxiety disorders are not listed as an answer, but are the second most common mental illness in the United States. At which stage of hypothermia does loss of consciousness normally occur? A. First stage B. Second stage C. Third stage lOMoAR cPSD|46020670 A. Transport of a critical patient B. Transport of a mother and child postpartum C. Unfamiliarity with the location of the hospital D. Transport of a police officer injured in the line of duty correct answer C. Unfamiliarity with the location of the hospital Reason: The use of police escorts has been shown to be more dangerous than not having one. Therefore, the only time one should be used is when the ambulance crew is uncertain of the route to the hospital. The normal gestation period for a human fetus is A. 12 weeks B. 24 weeks C. 40 weeks D. 52 weeks correct answer C. 40 weeks Reason: The normal gestation period is nine months from conception, or 40 weeks. The liquid component of the blood is called A. Hemoglobin B. Leukocytes C. Plasma D. Platelets correct answer C. Plasma Reason: Plasma is the liquid part of the blood that carries the other components through the circulatory system. The other components are hemoglobin, or red blood cells; leukocytes or white blood cells; and platelets. Obstetrical crowning is when A. The mother's brow begins to perspire B. The baby's head becomes visible in the birth canal C. Labor pains are less than five minutes apart and last longer than one minute D. The baby cries for the first time correct answer B. The baby's head becomes visible in the birth canal Reason: Crowning is when the baby's head becomes visible. The mother's perspiration and the baby's crying have nothing to do with this term. When pains are less than five lOMoAR cPSD|46020670 minutes apart and last longer than one minute, this usually indicated that delivery is imminent. Which of the following is NOT one of the primary general staff roles in the indigent command system (ICS)? A. Triage B. Operations C. Logistics D. Finance correct answer A. Triage Reason: The four primary general staff roles in the ICS structure are Finance, Logistics, Operations, and Planning (spells out FLOP). Triage would fall under the Operations branch. A patient who exhibits multiple personalities during the assessment may be assumed to have A. Bipolar disorder B. Dissociative identity disorder C. Manic-depressive syndrome D. Panic disorder correct answer B. Dissociative identity disorder Reason: Dissociative identity disorder can be seen when a patient presents with multiple personalities, such individuals may have been victims of severe abuse. Bipolar disorder (A) is the same as manic-depressive syndrome (C); symptoms are feelings that change from extreme euphoria to extreme depression. Panic disorder (D) is when the patient becomes overly anxious about a situation that does not warrant that sort of response. You are dispatched to a call for a "possible heart attack" to a residence along with an ALS rescue that is ten minutes out. You respond priority and arrive on scene four minutes after being dispatched. The scene is safe and you are wearing appropriate universal precautions. You observe a male in his seventies lying supine on the living room floor, cyanotic, with his eyes open. You open his airway and note that he is not breathing. You administer two breaths, which inflate his lungs. You check for a carotid pulse and there is none. You advise your partner to begin chest compressions. What is your next step? A. Continue rescue breathing and compressions pending arrival of ALS. B. Administer epinephrine 1:1000 1 mg bolus C. Apply the AED and follow the directions lOMoAR cPSD|46020670 D. After one minute of CPR, place the patient on a backboard and transport priority correct answer C. Apply the AED and follow the directions Reason: Application of the AED may diagnose a dysrhythmia, which may then be treated by a countercheck and restore a normal heartbeat, or it may advise to continue CPR. Administration of epinephrine in this instance is an ALS intervention and since ALS has already been dispatched, you should maintain your patient with CPR pending their arrival, but your first step is to apply the AED. Which of the following vehicles have the right of way over an ambulance? A. Police cars with flashing lights operating B. Fire trucks with flashing lights operating C. School buses with flashing lights operating D. Utility trucks with flashing yellow lights operating correct answer C. School buses with flashing lights operating Reason: School buses with flashing lights have the right of way over all other vehicles, including ambulances. Police cars and fire trucks have the same rights of way as ambulances, but no additional privileges. The ulna is located in the A. Lower arm B. Lower leg C. Chest D. Face correct answer A. Lower arm Reason: The ulna is one of the two bones in the lower arm. You are dispatched to a woman in labor. You observe a woman in her twenties lying in bed with her knees drawn up and her upper body supported by pillows in a semi-Fowler position. She advises you that this is her third pregnancy, that her water has broken, and that the pains are less than a minute apart. You examine her vaginal area and as she experiences another contraction you see the top of the baby's head in the birth canal. You should next A. Prepare for immediate delivery B. Place the mother on the stretcher left lateral recumbent and transport priority to the nearest obstetrical unit C. Tie the mother's legs together to slow delivery while you do a full assessment D. Boil water correct answer A. Prepare for immediate delivery lOMoAR cPSD|46020670 A. 30-60 mg/dl B. 60-90 mg/dl C. 80-120 mg/dl D. 120-160 mg/dl correct answer C. 80-120 mg/dl Reason: Most texts give 80-120 mg/dl as normal. Answer choices (A) and (B) would be considered hypoglycemia, and answer choice (D) would be considered mild hyperglycemia. Victims of sexual assault should be initially assessed and treated by A. EMT's of the same gender if possible B. Police officers trained in sexual assault C. Registered nurses D. Rape crisis counselors correct answer A. EMT's of the same gender if possible Reason: Victims of a sexual assault may be suspicious of EMTs of the same gender as their attacker, and might prefer to share sensitive information with an EMT of their own gender. Police officers and rape crisis counselors are important in the follow-up treatment of these victims, as a re registered nurses, but initial prehospital care should be done by an EMT, preferably one of the same gender. Which of the following drugs will cause a patient to vomit violently? A. Oxygen B. Morphine C. Ipecac D. Activated charcoal correct answer C. Ipecac Reason: Ipecac may be ordered by medical control to cause a patient to vomit his or her stomach contents if medical control feels that would be the best course of treatment in a poisoning or overdose situation. Morphine and activated charcoal may also cause vomiting as side effects, but the purpose of ipecac is precisely that of an emetic, making it the better answer. Which of the following incidents are the most common EMS trauma call? A. Falls B. Shootings C. Stabbings D. Motor vehicle accidents correct answer D. Motor vehicle accidents lOMoAR cPSD|46020670 Reason: The most common EMS trauma call is for motor vehicle accidents In treatment of severe trauma, what is the recognized time standard from injury to the operating room? The average human has how many liters of blood in his or her circulatory system? A. Two to three B. Three to four C. Four to five D. Five to six correct answer B. Three to four Reason: The average adult human has five to six liters of blood. The most common cause of seizures in the infant population is A. Epilepsy B. High fever C. Poisoning D. Mother's use of illegal drugs while pregnant correct answer B. High fever Reason: A high temperature is the most frequent cause of pediatric seizures, followed by epilepsy, poisoning, and drug exposure to the fetus while in the mother's uterus. You are dispatched to a residence for a man with a lacerated arm. You respond priority and arrive on scene wearing suitable precautions; police are on scene. Your patient is lying on the ground behind the house with a series of lacerations around his lower arm and he is bleeding profusely. He is intoxicated and belligerent. You attempt to control the bleeding with pressure bandages but he continues to hemorrhage. Which procedure should be used next? A. Digital pressure A. 30 minute s B. 60 minute s C. 180 minute s D. 240 minutes correct answer B. 60 minute s Reason: Numerous studies have shown that survivability increases dramatically if a patient with severe trauma can have surgical intervention within the "golden hour," or 60 minutes . lOMoAR cPSD|46020670 B. Tourniquet C. MAST D. IV with Lactated Ringers correct answer A. Digital pressure lOMoAR cPSD|46020670 dressings? A. Head B. Neck C. Abdomen D. Genitals correct answer B. Neck Reason: A wound in the neck that may leak air into the body should be dressed with an occlusive dressing to keep air from entering and contributing to a pneumothorax. Wounds to the genitals, head, and abdomen may be dressed with ordinary dressings. You are dispatched along with the fire department to a report of a person on fire behind a residence. You respond priority and arrive simultaneously with the fire department. A woman tells you her husband was lighting his charcoal grill with gasoline and there was an explosion. The patient is a male subject who is conscious, alert, and oriented times three. He states he was trying to light the grill when the gasoline exploded. He denies any dyspnea. The physical exam reveals second degree burns to both arms and there is no other part of the body burnt. What percentage of the patient's body in burnt? A. Nine percent B. Eighteen percent C. Twenty-seven percent D. Twenty percent correct answer B. Eighteen percent Reason: By the Rule of Nines, each arm is 9 percent of body surface, so both arms would be a total of 18 percent In the scenario in question 127 what priority is this patient? Which of the following radiation waves can be stopped with a piece of paper? A. Alpha waves B. Beta waves C. Gamma waves A. Nonpriori t y B. Moderate C. Critical D. Fatal correct answer C. Critical Reason: Second-degree, or partial-thickness, burns are critical if they involve an entire body part. Normally a second-degree burn would be considered critical only if it involved more than 30 percent of body area . lOMoAR cPSD|46020670 D. X radiation correct answer A. Alpha waves Reason: Alpha radiation is a very heavy short-range radiation that can be stopped by paper, clothing, or skin. The other three forms of radiation can penetrate through paper. You are dispatched to the high school football field for a player injured. You respond priority and arrive on scene wearing suitable precautions. The trainer advises you he suspects the player has a fractured fibula. The patient is conscious, alert, and oriented times three and his only complaint is severe pain in his lower leg. When considering what type of splint you are going to apply, you must always splint the suspected fracture site and the A. Inferior joint B. Adjacent joints C. Adjacent bone D. Superior joint correct answer B. Adjacent joints Reason: A properly applied splint always secures the broken bone and both adjacent joints, not just one adjacent joint. In the scenario in question 130, which situation would lead you to attempt to reduce the broken bone? A. Lower leg fracture B. Absence of distal pulse C. Hypovolemic shock D. Femur fracture correct answer B. Absence of distal pulse Reason: If a fracture occludes the artery feeding the distal portion of the extremity, then the cells will die and amputation becomes a real possibility. The goal in realigning the bone is to restore circulation to the extremity. The other fractures should be splinted as they are found. The letter "M" in the acronym SAMPLE stands for A. Menstrual period B. Medications C. Most active symptom D. Morning routine correct answer B. Medications Reason: SAMPLE stands for Signs and symptoms, Allergies, Medications, Past history, Last oral intake, and Events leading up to this situation. lOMoAR cPSD|46020670 The epiglottis in a pediatric patient is in the airway than in an adult patient. A. More sensitive B. Higher C. Lower D. More anterior correct answer B. Higher Reason: The epiglottis is higher in the airway of an infant, an important anatomical difference In which of the following injury citations should you apply a cervical collar? A. Head trauma secondary to a rear-end motor vehicle collision B. Fall from a garage roof C. Neck pain as a result of a football injury D. All of the above correct answer D. All of the above Reason: Cervical spine injury should be considered in all trauma situations unless you can definitely rule it out. Neck pain brought about by sleeping also calls for immobilization until damage to the spinal cord can be ruled out. The narrative section of the prehospital care report should include all of the following EXCEPT A. What the patient looked like on EMS arrival B. What medication the patient is currently taking C. The vital signs of the patient D. The patient's next of kin correct answer D. The patient's next of kin Reason: (A), (B), and (C) are all necessary to the narrative, both to document what the EMT-Basic assessed about the patient for legal purposes and to assist the receiving physician in making his or her diagnosis. You are dispatched to a two-car motor vehicle accident and respond priority. You arrive on scene, the scene is safe, and you are wearing appropriate precautions. Your patient is in a vehicle that was struck broadside by another vehicle traveling at a high rate of speed. He was not restrained and is complaining of dyspnea. His shirt is ripped and bloody and you notice that he has an open wound that is gurgling and foaming. This patient is most at risk for A. Hypovolemic shock lOMoAR cPSD|46020670 Reason: A lacerated eatery will bleed more readily due to the higher pressure in the arteries, as well as due to the pulsing action that makes clotting more difficult. Arterioles are smaller arteries and will clot more readily than a larger vessel, and veins and capillaries flow at lower pressures that facilitate clotting. Aspirin in indicated for which of the following conditions in EMS protocols? A. Headache B. Chest pain C. Abdominal pain D. Leg and arm pain correct answer B. Chest pain Reason: Aspirin is given for chest pain due to its anti-clotting action and is listed in the most state protocols following the American Heart Association guidelines. Aspirin is also indicated for headaches and other pain, but not usually in the emergency setting. Which of the following persons are NOT allowed t routinely access a prehospital care report? A. The patient B. The receiving physician C. The police D. The EMT who wrote the report correct answer C. The police Reason: The police may obtain a copy of the report if they either get permission from the patient or obtain a search warrant from a judge or magistrate. Note that use of the qualifying word roundly in the question. Which of the following is a nerve agent? A. Botulism B. Tabun C. Mark 1 D. 2-Pam correct answer B. Tabun Reason: Tabun is a nerve agent. Botulism (A) is a neurotoxin and is not classified as a nerve agent. Mark 1 (C) is a antidote kit for nerve agent exposure, and 2-Pam (pralidoxime) (D) is one of the drugs in the Mark 1 kit. Which of the following pregnancies will normally have a longer labor period? A. First B. Second lOMoAR cPSD|46020670 C. Third D. Fourth correct answer A. First Reason: A first pregnancy will normally have a longer labor and delivery time than the subsequent pregnancies At the scene of a motor vehicle accident, the ambulance should be parked so as to A. Be downhill and downwind from the scene B. Protect the scene C. Be able to load the patient into the back doors D. Not obstruct the police investigation correct answer B. Protect the scene Reason: The ambulance should be used to protect the scene in order to avoid injury to the EMTs and the patients Once the cervix is fully dilated and the baby "drops" into the birth canal, this is referred to as the A. First stage of labor B. Second stage of labor C. Third stage of labor D. Fourth stage of labor correct answer B. Second stage of labor Reason: The second stage of labor occurs when the baby is forced out if the uterus by contraction down into the mother's vagina and ends with the birth of the baby. The first stage of labor is from the expulsion of the mucus plug through the baby's explosion from the uterus, and the third stage follows the birth of the baby when the placenta is delivered. There is no fourth stage of labor. Which of the following is an example of implied consent? A. Patient who agrees to be transported to the emergency department B. Pediatric patient whose parent allows him to be treated and transported C. Unconscious patient D. Patient who is diagnosed with schizophrenia and refuses transport correct answer C. Unconscious patient Reason: Implied consent means that in the case of a patient who cannot give consent, such as an individual who is unconscious, consent for treatment is implied and constitutes what the average person would want under similar circumstances.