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EMR Final Exam Questions and Answers, Exams of Community Corrections

A comprehensive set of 100 multiple-choice questions and answers for the emergency medical responder (emr) final exam. The questions cover a wide range of topics, including patient assessment, emergency care procedures, anatomy and physiology, trauma management, and emergency vehicle operations. Designed to help emr students prepare for their final exam by providing them with a thorough review of the key concepts and skills required for the emr certification. The questions are structured in a clear and concise manner, with detailed explanations for the correct answers. This resource can be used as study notes, lecture notes, or a summary to help students review the material and identify areas that require further study. Likely to be most useful for university students enrolled in emr or related healthcare programs, as well as high school students interested in pursuing a career in emergency medical services.

Typology: Exams

2024/2025

Available from 10/26/2024

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Download EMR Final Exam Questions and Answers and more Exams Community Corrections in PDF only on Docsity! EMR final exam (1-100) questions with correct answers As an Emergency Medical Responder, which of the following should you set as your top priority at the scene of an emergency? A. CPR B. Patient care C. safety D. traffic control - correct answer -safety An Emergency Medical Responder possesses all of the following skills EXCEPT: A. defibrillation. . B. medication administration. C. oxygen administration D. bleeding control. - correct answer -medication administration Emergency Medical Responder care is usually authorized by: A. the National Registry. . B. the patient's physician C. state laws .D. department bylaws. - correct answer -state laws A careful and deliberate walk around a scene, scanning for dangers or hazards, is known as a: A. 360-degree assessment. B. 180-degree assessment. C. 270-degree assessment. D. 90-degree assessment. - correct answer -360-degree assessment The highest level of EMS provider is: A. Advanced EMT. B. Emergency Transport Technician. C. Emergency Medical Technician. D. Paramedic. - correct answer -paramedic An Emergency Medical Responder who flees a scene because of potential violence and positions himself behind a brick retaining wall is using which technique? A. Cover B. Concealment C. Distraction D. Misdirection - correct answer -cover 8. A patient with a terminal illness has an outburst where she yells "Why is this happening to Me!?!" This patient is exhibiting what stage of the grieving process? A. Bargaining B. Depression C. Denial D. Anger - correct answer -anger 9. Disease-causing agents are called: A. Venoms B. Toxemias C. Pathogens D. Amoebas - correct answer -C. Pathogens Practice to prevent exposure to disease during patient contact is called: A. Infection Precautions B. Universal Isolations C. Disease Control Methods C. 6 D. 7 - correct answer -5 How many pairs of ribs are attached anteriorly to the sternum? A. 9 B. 10 C. 11 D. 12 - correct answer -9 The ____________________ is the longest and strongest bone in the body. A. femur B. humerus C. tibia D. ulna - correct answer -femur The shoulder girdle consists of: A. the clavicle and the humerus. B. the humerus and the ischium C. the scapula and the humerus. .D. the clavicle and the scapula. - correct answer -the clavicle and the scapula After _____ minutes without a pulse, irreversible damage occurs to the patient's brain. A. 1 to 2 B. 2 to 3 C. 4 to 6 D. 8 to 10 - correct answer -C. 4 to 6 To determine pulselessness in an adult patient, palpate the _____ pulse. In an infant, palpate the _____ pulse. A. carotid, brachial B. tibial, cartotid C. pedal, carotid D. brachial, tibial - correct answer -carotid, brachial Your patient is a 58-year-old male. He is unresponsive, breathless, and pulseless. You should perform CPR at the rate of _____ compressions per minute. A. 100 B. 60 C. 80 D. 120 - correct answer -100 In CPR, the rate of compressions for adult, child, and infant is how many per minute? A. 60 B. 80 C. 100 D. 120 - correct answer -C. 100 A patient is receiving CPR and has had an endotracheal tube inserted by an advanced provider. Which of the following is correct? A. The compression rate is 80 per minute. B. Pause compressions to perform ventilations. C. Defibrillations can no longer be performed. D. The ventilation rate is 8 to 10 per minute. - correct answer -the ventilation rate is 8 to 10 per minute Which one of the following is NOT part of scene size-up? A. Taking standard precautions B. Determining the number of patients C. Identifying the mechanism of injury D. Establishing an airway and ventilating - correct answer -establishing an airway and ventilating Standard Precautions may include: A. a personal flotation device. B. gloves, eye protection, and mask. C. a rescue helmet with chin strap. D. turnout gear and reflective tape. - correct answer -gloves, eye protection, and mask If you observe potential signs of violence at a scene, what should your first action be? A. Stabilize the patient. B. Contact your medical director C. Turn on your vehicle's siren. . D. Retreat to a position of safety. - correct answer -retreat to a position of safety If you find danger from a threatening person at a scene, do all of the following EXCEPT: A. engage. B. distract. C. retreat. D. conceal. - correct answer -engage Common mechanisms of injury include all of the following EXCEPT: A. a fall from high place. B. infectious diseases. C. a penetrating wound (gun/knife). The Emergency Medical Responder must balance the need for rapid response to emergencies with the avoidance of becoming part of the incident itself, using the concepts of: A. time, retreating, and blockading. B. time, spacing, and protecting. C. time, protection, and avoidance. D. time, distance, and shielding. - correct answer -time, spacing, and protecting The general assessment technique that involves feeling patients with one's hands is called: A. auscultating. B. observation. C. palpating. D. scanning. - correct answer -C. palpating. The "T" in the "DOTS" mnemonic stands for: A. Tenderness. B. Tactile. C. Time of injury. D. Toxic. - correct answer -tenderness Manual _____ is the technique used to keep the head and neck aligned when the patient has a suspected neck injury. A. traction B. stabilization C. repositioning D. blocking - correct answer -stabilization The first part of the head-to-toe examination is: A. palpate. B. auscultate. C. evaluate. D. inspect. - correct answer -inspect . Accessory muscle use in the neck is an indication of: A. high blood pressure. B. blood backing up from the heart. C. neck injury. D. difficulty breathing. - correct answer -difficulty breathing An Emergency Medical Responder should position herself to communicate with a patient: A. above eye level. B. at eye level. C. well below eye level. D. at any level that is comfortable. - correct answer -at eye level The personal space around a patient is _____ feet in all directions. A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6 - correct answer -5 Which of the following is a barrier to communication? A. Good lighting B. Quiet C. Being at patient's eye D. Distractions - correct answer -distractions A sign of respiratory distress known as _____ occurs when abdominal and neck muscles are used for breathing. A. anterior muscle use B. additional muscle use C. ancillary muscle use D. accessory muscle use - correct answer -accessory muscle use The oxygenated blood supply for the heart is provided by which blood vessels? A. The inferior and superior vena cava B. The coronary arteries C. The lymphatic vascular system D. The aortic veins - correct answer -coronary arteries A patient with asthma may make what type of sound when breathing—a sound that sometimes can be heard even without a stethoscope? A. Wheezing B. Rhonchi C. Rales D. Stridor - correct answer -wheezing In the condition known as _____, a patient has difficulty breathing because inefficient beating of the heart causes fluid to build up in the lungs. A. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease B. congestive heart failure C. asthma D. pneumonia - correct answer -C. asthma A _____ occurs when one of the coronary arteries is blocked, preventing blood from getting to heart muscle. The _____ is a general idea of how bad a person's injuries may be, based upon the mechanism of injury. A. resource determination B. scene assessment and evaluation C. index of suspicion D. kinetic energy of trauma - correct answer -C. index of suspicion The primary assessment includes which of the following steps? A. Patient disposition B. SAMPLE history C. ABCs D. Vital signs - correct answer -ABCs The consistent delivery of adequate oxygen to the cells is called: A. circulation. B. contusion. C. perfusion. D. hypoxation. - correct answer -C. perfusion. The type of shock caused by a failure of the heart is referred to as: A. hypovolemic. B. blood loss C. distributive. . D. cardiogenic. - correct answer -cardiogenic Which organ is particularly sensitive to an inadequate supply of oxygen and may, as a result, cause the patient to exhibit such signs as restlessness and anxiety? A. The heart B. The brain C. The lungs D. The liver - correct answer -the brain A sign of the late stages of shock, in which the body can no longer compensate, is: A. a drop in blood pressure. B. very rapid respirations. C. a significant rise in pulse. D. incontinence. - correct answer -a drop in blood pressure Bright red blood that spurts from a wound is called _______________________bleeding. A. venous B. lymphatic C. capillary D. arterial - correct answer -arterial In the condition known as a ______________________________ , air works its way in between the chest wall and the lung, causing the lung to collapse. A. flail chest B. pneumothorax C. thoracic decompression D. negative pressure syndrome - correct answer -pneumothorax Which type of dressing should be applied to an open chest wound? A. Porous B. Absorbent C. Occlusive D. Form-fitting - correct answer -C. Occlusive In a life-threatening condition known as a ______________________________ , a pneumothorax puts pressure on the heart and great vessels of the chest, causing profound shock. A. hemothorax B. spontaneous pneumothorax C. tension pneumothorax D. paradoxical pneumothorax - correct answer -C. tension pneumothorax The grating sound of bone ends rubbing together is called: A. rubbing. B. scour. C. stridulous. D. crepitus. - correct answer -crepitus The force of trauma applied over a large area is referred to as: A. blunt trauma. B. penetrating trauma C. ecchymotic trauma. .D. abrasive trauma. - correct answer -blunt trauma A(n) ______________________________ is a cut to the skin and/or to the layers of the soft tissue beneath the skin, caused by a sharp object. A. puncture B. abrasion C. laceration D. avulsion - correct answer -C. laceration The covering for a wound, designed to control bleeding and to protect the wound, is called a(n): A. dressing. . The skull, rib cage, and spinal column are referred to together as the: A. appendicular skeleton. B. medial skeleton. C. basal skeleton. D. axial skeleton. - correct answer -axial skeleton In a(n) ______________________________musculoskeletal injury, the skin overlying the injured bone perforates the skin from the inside out. A. closed B. osteopathic C. comminuted D. open - correct answer -open _____________ force causes an injury away from the site of impact because the force is transferred to other parts of the body. A. Twisting B. Direct C. Indirect D. Transverse - correct answer -C. Indirect Which type of injury occurs when muscles and tendons are overworked? A. Sprain B. Dislocation C. Strain D. Disruption - correct answer -C. Strain Heat loss involving the transfer of heat to an object without physical contact is known as: A. convection. B. conduction. C. radiation. D. evaporation. - correct answer -C. radiation. Most body heat is lost through which part of the body? A. The chest and back B. The arms and legs C. The head and neck D. The abdomen and pelvis - correct answer -C. The head and neck Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for a patient's response to cold? A. Underlying medical condition B. Age C. Use of alcohol or drugs D. Altitude - correct answer -altitude A sign of mild hypothermia is: A. increased blood pressure. B. decreased pulse rate. C. decreased breathing rate. D. absence of shivering. - correct answer -increased blood pressure Which of the following is NOT a congenital disease? A. Deafness from birth B. Black lung disease C. Cerebral palsy D. Cleft palate - correct answer -black lung disease An acquired disease may result from any of the following EXCEPT: A. birth defect. B. medical condition. C. trauma. D. virus. - correct answer -C. trauma. Which of the following components is NOT part of the daily safety inspection for a response vehicle? A. Communications equipment B. Siren and horn C. Outside of vehicle D. Medical equipment - correct answer -C. Outside of vehicle An Emergency Medical Responder who is ruled at fault in a motor vehicle crash may be held liable for: A. traffic infraction and civil liability only. B. civil liability only. C. civil and criminal liability. D. criminal liability only. - correct answer -civil and criminal liability The EMS vehicle that the Emergency Medical Responder responds in should be inspected: A. daily. B. weekly. C. monthly. D. biweekly. - correct answer -daily When using warning lights and the siren, the driver of an emergency vehicle should exercise: A. the right-of-way in emergencies. B. due regard for the safety of others. C. warning signal rules for emergency vehicles.