Download EMT-B Procedures and Responsibilities and more Exams Basics of Data Warehousing in PDF only on Docsity! 1 / 21 EMT BASIC FINAL EXAM STUDY BUNDLE PACK SOLUTION (VERIFIED) TABLE OF CONTENTS EMT Basic Final Exam EMT Basic Final Exam EMT Basic Final Exam Practice Test EMT Basic Final Exam Test Bank - 500 Questions EMT Basic Final Exam Review 2 / 21 EMT Basic Final Exam 1. The basis for most EMT-B training programs is the EMS standards and training developed by the A. American Red Cross (ARC). B. American Heart Association (AHA). C.United Stales Department of Transportation (DOT). D.National Institute of Health (NTH). ANS C. United Stales Department of Transporta- tion (DOT). 2. An EMT-B can inspire patient confidence and cooperation by A. transporting the patient from the scene to a hospital. B. providing patient care without regard for his own personal safety. C. telling the patient that everything will be all right. D.being pleasant, cooperative, sincere, and a good listener. ANS D. being pleasant, 5 / 21 C. implied. D.meaningless. ANS C. implied. 7. help protect the off-duty EMT-B from lawsuits when stopping at the scene of a collision to offer assistance. A. Professional associations B. Blanket insurance policies C.Good Samaritan laws D.Abandonment laws ANS C. Good Samaritan laws 8. Each of the following is the responsibility of an EMT-B at a hazardous material incident except A. entering hazmat scenes with SCBA. B. protecting yourself and others. C. recognizing potential problems. D.notifying hazardous materials response team. ANS A. entering hazmat scenes with SCBA. 9. The form of infection control that assumes that all body fluids should be considered potentially infectious is A. infectious disease. B. body substance isolation. C. immunity. D.universal precautions. ANS B. body substance isolation. 6 / 21 10. When planning to lift, all of the following are important considerations except A. the weight of the object. B. one's physical characteristics. C. communicating with one's partner. D. the distance the object is to be carried. ANS D. the distance the object is to be carried. 11. When lifting, the EMT-B should A. keep the back loose and knees locked. B. twist or attempt to make moves other than the lift. C. use the leg muscles to do the lift. D. try not to communicate with his/her partner. ANS C. use the leg muscles to do the lift. 12. When carrying a conscious patient on the stairs, the EMT-B should A. keep the stretcher as level as possible. B. use a long backboard at all times. C. use a stair chair whenever possible. D.All of the above. ANS C. use a stair chair whenever possible. 7 / 21 13. Ways an EMT-B can avoid a potential back injury include all the following except A. push, rather than pull, a load whenever possible. B. keep back locked-in while lifting. C. keep arms straight when pushing or pulling. D.push or pull from a kneeling position if the weight is below waist level. ANS C. keep arms straight when pushing or pulling. 14. An emergency move is required in each of the following situations except when A. the scene is hazardous. B. care of life-threatening conditions requires repositioning. C. other patients must be reached who have life threats. D. the patient is unconscious. ANS D. the patient is unconscious. 15. Which of the following is the greatest danger to the patient in an emergency move? A. A spinal injury may be aggravated. B. Bleeding may increase after movement. C.The airway may become obstructed. D.There is no clanger associated with an emergency move. ANS A. A spinal injury may be aggravated. 10 / 22. The driver of a vehicle involved in an accident requires immediate airway and bleeding control. You are unable to provide this treatment in the vehicle. You should A. check the patient's vital signs. B.make an urgent move. C. remove the patient on a short backboard. D.All of the above. ANS B. make an urgent move. 23. Which cany is considered very difficult to use with an unconsciousper- son? A. cradle B. three-rescuer C. shoulder D.piggyback ANS D. piggyback 24. Which carry must be performed in one unbroken sweep? A. pack strap cany B. front piggyback carry C. firefighter's carry D. four-rescuer carry ANS C. firefighter's carry 25. A canvas or rubberized stretcher that can be used to move a patient through a narrow hallway or restricted area is called a stretcher. 11 / A. basket B. portable C. flexible D.wheeled-ambulance ANS B. portable 26. A victim with obvious spinal injuries is found on the floor of a burning building. The EMT-B rates the situation hazardous, but not yet dire. Alone and without special equipment, the EMT- B should use the A. cradle carry. B. clothes drag. C. firefighter's carry. D.pack-strap method. ANS B. clothes drag. 27. You wish to transfer a patient without spinal injury. Movement is unrestrict- ed. The patient carrying device of choice is the A. portable ambulance stretcher. B.wire basket stretcher. C.wheeled ambulance stretcher. D. slat stretcher. ANS C. wheeled ambulance stretcher. 28. If you are an EMT-B with a service that does not provide the appropriate protective equipment, you should serve as an advocate for this equipment because A. your crew members could be injured unnecessarily. B. you could be seriously injured. C. an injured EMT-B is of little 12 / help to the patient. D.All of the above. ANS D. All of the above. 29. During an EMS call a lethal threat is recognized. The EMT-B should first A. retreat to a safe area. B. radio for assistance. C. re-evaluate the situation. D. remedy the situation. ANS A. retreat to a safe area. 30. Of the different types of stress, which is a positive form that helps the EMT-B work under pressure and respond effectively? A. cumulative stress B. eustress C. distress D. critical incident stress ANS B. eustress 31. When responding to a violent situation, observation begins when you A. enter the scene. B. exit the ambulance. 15 / B. properly document your care. C. are courteous and respectful to all your patients. D.All of the above. ANS D. All of the above. 38. The negligent EMT-B may be required to pay for all of the following except A. the patient's lost wages. B. the patient's medical expenses. C. the patient's pain and suffering. D. the patient's health insurance costs. ANS D. the patient's health insurance costs. 39. Which of the following is not a function of the musculoskeletal system? A. It gives the body shape. B. It protects the internal organs. C. It provides for body movement. D. It regulates body temperature. ANS D. It regulates body temperature. 40. The superior portion of the sternum is called the A. xiphoid process. B. sternal body. C.manubrium. D. clavicle. ANS C. manubrium. 41. A young girl fell while ice skating, injuring the protrusion on the inside of the ankle. The medical term for this location is the A. acromion. 16 / B.medial malleolus. C. lateral malleolus. D. calcaneus. ANS C. lateral malleolus. 42. The heart muscle has a property called . This means that the heart has the ability to generate and conduct electrical impulses on its own. A. contractility B. automaticity C. involuntary contraction D. conductibility ANS B. automaticity 43. A division of the peripheral nervous system that controls involuntary motor functions is called the nervous system. A. autonomic B. central C. sensory D.motor ANS A. autonomic 44. When in the anatomical position, the person will be facing A. away from you. B. forward. 17 / C. face down. D. face up. ANS B. forward. 45. In the anatomical position, the person's palms will be facing A. forward. B. backward. C. upward. D.downward. ANS A. forward. 46. An anatomical term that is occasionally used to refer to the sole of the foot is A. calcaneus. B. ventral. C. dorsal. D.plantar. ANS D. plantar. 47. The bones of the cheek are called the bones. A. orbit B.maxillae C. zygomatic D.mandible ANS C. zygomatic 48. The heart is to the stomach. A. distal B.medial C. proximal D. superior ANS D. superior 49. A patient found lying 20 / 55. The cranium consists of the A. facial bones. B.mandible and maxillae. C. top, back, and sides of the skull. D. zygomatic bones. ANS C. top, back, and sides of the skull. 56. The highest point in the shoulder is the A. acromion process. B. humerus. C.metatarsal. D. clavicle. ANS A. acromion process. 57. At the scene of an accident, an off-duty EMT-B provides care to the patient, acting in good faith and to the best of his/her abilities. In many states this EMT-B is protected from care-related lawsuits by A. applied consent B. total immunity C.Good Samaritan D. jeopardy ANS C. Good Samaritan laws. 21 / 58. When confronted with an unconscious minor without parents or a legal guardian present, the EMT-B should A. seek a physician's approval before beginning care. B. consider consent for care to be implied and begin care. C. ask the child for consent and begin care. D. consider consent to be applied and begin care. ANS B. consider consent for care to be implied and begin care. 59. The legal concept of negligence requires that three circumstances must be demon¬ strated. Which of the following is not one of the three circumstances? A.The EMT had a duty to act. B.The EMT committed a breach of duty. C.The EMT had a local duty. D.The breach of duty caused harm. ANS C. The EMT had a local duty. 60. A person lying on his stomach with his face down is in the position. A. supine B. prone C. coma D. recovery ANS B. prone 61. In a trauma center, surgery teams are A. on call 12 hours a day. 22 / B. available most of the time. C. available 24 hours a day. D. supervised by the Medical Director. ANS C. available 24 hours a day. 62. In 1970, the was founded to establish professional standards for EMS personnel. A. American Medical Association B.National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians C.National Highway Traffic Safety Administration D.U.S. Department of Transportation ANS B. National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians 63. Safe, reliable transportation is a critical component of an EMS system. Most patients can be effectively transported by . A. airplane. B. helicopter. C. rescue vehicle. D. ambulance. ANS D. ambulance. 25 / B. patients with severe injuries. C. cases of abuse and neglect. D.motor vehicle accidents. ANS D. motor vehicle accidents. 71. Life style changes that can help the EMT-B deal with stress include all of the following except A. exercise to burn off tension. B. increased consumption of fatty foods. C. decreased caffeine consumption. D.decreased consumption of alcohol. ANS B. increased consumption of fatty foods. 72. Changes in your professional life to reduce and prevent stress could include A. requesting a change of shift or location. B. requesting a busier location to make the shift go faster. C.working additional overtime shifts. D. taking on another part-time position. ANS A. requesting a change of shift or location. 73. After a CISD. A.management investigates the events of the call. B. performance appraisals are initiated. C. the peer team writes a detailed critique. D. a member of the peer team offers 26 / support and referrals. ANS D. a member of the peer team offers support and referrals. 74. Stress after a major EMS incident is A. unusual and unexpected. B. a sign of weakness. C. normal and to be expected. D.part of the grieving process. ANS C. normal and to be expected. 75. Retreating to a world of one's own after hearing one is going to die is a result of the stage of grief called A. bargaining. B. depression. C. denial. D. anxiety. ANS B. depression. 76. All of the following communicable diseases should be of particular concern to the 27 / EMT-B except A. hepatitis B. B. tuberculosis. C.HIV/AIDS. D.PPD. ANS D. PPD. 77. A disease which is spread by exposure to an open wound or sore of an infected individual is caused by a(n) A. universal precaution. B. airborne pathogen. C. bloodborne pathogen. D. infectious pathogen ANS C. bloodborne pathogen 78. An infection that causes inflammation of the liver is called A.meningitis. B. tuberculosis. C. typhoid. D.hepatitis. ANS D. hepatitis. 79. A disease spread by inhaling or absorbing droplets from the air through the eyes, loose, or mouth is considered A. bloodborne. B. noncommunicable. C. airborne. D. viral. ANS C. airborne. 80. The communicable disease that kills the most health workers ever year in the United States is A. tuberculosis. 30 / C. bag-valve mask. D. endotracheal tube. ANS A. pocket mask with a one-way valve. 87. This method of infection control will reduce exposure to yourself, your crew, and your next patient. A.wearing a HEPA respirator B. taking universal precautions C. handwashing after each patient contact D.None of the above. ANS C. handwashing after each patient contact 88. An act that establishes procedures through which emergency response workers can find out if they have been exposed to life- threatening infectious diseases is called A. OSHA 1910.1030. B. the Ryan White CARE act. C. AIDS Protection act. D.OSHA 1910.120. ANS B. the Ryan White CARE act. 31 / 89. Each emergency response employer must develop a plan that identifies and documents job classifications and tasks in which there is the possibility of exposure to potentially infectious body fluids. This is required by A. OSHA 1910.1030. B. The Ryan White CARE Act. C. AIDS Protection Act. D. OSHA 1910.120. ANS A. OSHA 1910.1030. 90. Every employer of EMT-Bs must provide free of charge A. a yearly physical examination. B. a life insurance policy. C. universal health insurance. D.hepatitis B vaccination. ANS D. hepatitis B vaccination. 91. Engineering controls that prevent the spread of bloodborne diseases in- clude A. pocket masks. B. needle containers. C. disposable airway equipment. D.All of the above. ANS D. All of the above. 92. Which of the following is not required by the OSHA bloodborne pathogen standard? A. post-exposure evaluation and follow-up B. personal protective equipment C.HEPA respirator D.housekeeping controls and labeling ANS C. HEPA respirator 32 / 93. Which of the following is not considered a high risk area for TB? A. correctional facilities. B. daycare centers. C. homeless shelters. D.nursing home. ANS B. daycare centers. 94. As you near an emergency scene, you should A. sound your siren to broadcast your arrival. B. go straight to the front door. C. secure the scene as quickly as possible. D. turn off your lights and siren. ANS D. turn off your lights and siren. 95. If anyone at the scene is in possession of a weapon, the EMT- B should A. notify the police immediately. B. ask the person to give it to you. 35 / 102. Most airway problems are caused by A. the tongue. B. asthma. C. shock. D. the epiglottis. ANS A. the tongue. 103. Which maneuver is most appropriate for an unconscious patient found lying at the bottom of a stairwell? A. head-tilt, chin-lift B. head-tilt, neck-lift C jaw- pull lift D. jaw-thrust ANS D. jaw-thrust 104. When choosing a means of ventilating a patient, your last choice would be A. flow-restricted, oxygen-powered ventilation device. B. one-person bag-valve mask. C. two person bag-valve mask. D.mouth to mask with high-flow supplemental oxygen. ANS B. one-person bag-valve mask. 105. Artificial ventilation may be inadequate if the A. chest rises with each ventilation. B. heart rate returns to normal. C. rate of ventilation is too fast or too slow. D.patient's color changes from blue to pale. ANS C. rate of ventilation is too fast or too slow. 36 / 106. The standard respiratory fitting on a bag- valve mask that ensures a proper fit with other respiratory equipment is A. 15/22 mm. B. 10/14 mm. C. 5/20 mm. D. 20/26 mm. ANS A. 15/22 mm. 107. A bag-valve mask should have all of the following except A. self-refilling shell. B. a clear face mask. C. be easily cleared and sterilized. D. a "pop-off valve. ANS D. a "pop-off valve. 108. The proper oxygen flow rate when ventilating a patient with a BVM is liters per minute. A. 5 B. 10 37 / C. 15 D. 20 ANS C. 15 109. A ccording to the American Heart Association guidelines, at least milliliters of air must be delivered to the patient when ventilating with a BVM. A. 400 B. 600 C. 800 D. 1000 ANS C. 800 110. The first step in providing artificial ventilation of a stoma breather is to A. leave the head and neck in a neutral position. B. ventilate at the appropriate rate for the patient's age. C. clear any mucus or secretions obstructing the stoma. D. establish a seal using a pediatric-sized mask. ANS C. clear any mucus or secre- tions obstructing the stoma. 111. A flow-restricted, oxygen-powered ventilation device should have all of the following features except A. an audible alarm when ventilation is activated. B. a trigger that enables the rescuer to use both hands. C. a peak How rate of up to 40 liters per minute. D. a rugged design and construction. ANS A. an audible alarm when ventilation is activated. 112. The two most common airway adjuncts for the EMT- B to use are the oropharyngeal airway and the 40 / C. store reserve cylinders in a warm, humid room. D.use medical grade oxygen in all cylinders. ANS C. store reserve cylinders in a warm, humid room. 119. The best way to deliver high concentration oxygen to a breathing patient is to use a A. nonrebreather mask. B. partial rebreather mask. C. bag-valve mask. D.nasal cannula. ANS A. nonrebreather mask. 120. If the patient has dentures, during airway procedures the EMT-B should A. remove them right away. B. leave them in unless they are loose. 41 / C. remove the teeth one at a time. D.hold them in place with his/her free hands. ANS B. leave them in unless they are loose. 121. When managing an airway of a child, an airway consideration you should remember is A. the mouth and nose are smaller and more easily obstructed. B. the chest wall is firmer in a child. C. the trachea is wider and less easily obstructed. D.All of the above. ANS A. the mouth and nose are smaller and more easily obstructed. 122. When breathing stops completely, the patient is in A. respiratory arrest. B. ventilatory reduction. C. artificial ventilation. D. respiratory failure. ANS A. respiratory arrest. 123. Which ventilation device is contraindicated in infants and children? A. bag-valve mask B. Pediatric pocket mask C.flow-restricted, oxygen-powered ventilation device D. nonrebreather mask- ANS C. flow-restricted, oxygen-powered ventilation device 124. A device that allows the control of oxygen in liters per minute is called a 42 / . A. flowmeter B.G tank C. humidifier D. reservoir ANS A. flowmeter 125. A type of flowmeter which has no gauge and allows for the adjustment of flow in liters per minute in stepped increments is called a A. Bourdon gauge flowmeter. B. constant flow selector valve. C. humidifier. D.pressure compensated flowmeter. ANS B. constant flow selector valve. 126. Why do some systems use humidified oxygen? A. Lack of humidity can dry out the patient's mucous membranes. B. It provides a reservoir for the oxygen. C. It limits the risk of infection. D. It is helpful when transporting patients short distances. ANS A. Lack of humidity can dry out the patient's mucous membranes. 127. A patient in the end stage of a respiratory disease may have switched over to