EMT Exam Preparation, Exams of Banking Law and Practice

Download EMT Exam Preparation and more Exams Banking Law and Practice in PDF only on Docsity! 1 / 75 EMT Basic Final Exam Test Bank 1. Most EMT training programs are based on standards developed by the: A. American Red Cross (ARC) B. American Heart Association (AHA) C.National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA) D.National Institutes of Health (NIH) ANS: C 2. An EMT can inspire patient confidence and cooperation by: A.Transporting the patient from the scene to a hospital B. providing patient care without regard for the EMT's own personal safety C.Telling the patient that everything will be okay D.Being pleasant, cooperative, sincere, and a good listener ANS: D 3. If an on-duty EMT fails to provide the standard of care and this failure causes harm or injury to the patient, the EMT may be accused of: 2 / 75 A. assault B. abandonment C. negligence D.breach of promise ANS: C 4. You are treating a conscious and mentally competent adult patient who wants to refuse your care and transport to the hospital. This refusal must be and documented. A. implied B. actual C. Involuntary D. informed ANS: D 5. The EMT is authorized to treat and transport an unconscious patient be- cause of the legal consideration known as consent A. applied B. implied C. triage D. immunity ANS: B 6. A child fell off the ladder of a sliding board at a park and twisted her ankle. The parents are not present, but the child agrees to care. The child's consent is: 5 / 75 11. An emergency move is required in all of the following situations EXCEPT when: A. the scene is hazardous B. care of life-threatening conditions requires repositioning C. other patients who have life threats must be reached D.The patient is unconscious ANS: D 12. A method of lifting and carrying a patient in which one EMT slips his or her hands under the patient's armpits and grasps the wrists while another EMT grasps the patient's knees is called the: A.Direct ground lift B. Extremity lift C.Draw-sheet method D.direct carry method ANS: B 13. Your patient is a medical patient with a suspected drug overdose. He is lying supine on your stretcher, and you have been maintaining his airway. When moving him from the ambulance stretcher to the hospital stretcher, you will probably use the: A. cradle carry B.modified draw-sheet method 6 / 75 C.Direct ground lift D. extremity lift ANS: B 14. You are treating a 28-year old diabetic who has an altered level of con- sciousness. She is lying on the floor at the moment. To move her from the floor to a stair chair, use the: A. Indirect Carry B. Extremity Lift C. Slide Transfer D.Chair Lift ANS: B 15. To maintain balance when lifting a patient-carrying device, it is best to use rescuers to carry the device A. three B. an even number of C. an odd number of D.bystanders and ANS: B 16. You are treating the driver of a vehicle that was involved in a collision. He is a 22-year old male who requires immediate airway and bleeding control.You are unable to provide this treatment in the vehicle. You should: A. check the patient's vital signs 7 / 75 B. use an urgent move C. remove the patient on a short backboard D.do all of these ANS: B 17. The carry must be performed in one unbroken sweep A. pack strap B. front piggyback C. firefighter's D. four-rescuer ANS: C 18. A canvas or rubberized stretcher that can be used to move a patient through a narrow hallway or restricted area is called a stretcher. A. basket B. portable C. flexible D.wheeled-ambulance ANS: C 19. A patient with obvious spinal injuries is found on the floor of a burning building. The EMT rates the situation hazardous but not yet dire. Alone and without special equipment, the EMT should use the: A. cradle carry B. clothes drag 10 / 26. While you are treating a patient with a severely bleeding forearm, the patient's pet dog comes into the room. The patient states "He won't hurt you. He's very friendly." Your best course of action would be to: A. have your partner observe the dog closely while you treat the patient B. quickly control the bleeding, then have the dog locked in another room C. ignore the dog because the patient assures you that the dog is friendly and will not harm you ANS: B 27. An advantage of the advance directive is that: A. the patient is not involved in making a decision about her treatment B. the patient's expressed wishes may be followed C. no matter what the family says, CPR is not given D. it protects the EMT from charges of negligence ANS: B 28. Some EMTs participate in activities that attract legal actions, but most EMTs are rarely involved in legal entanglements. You can prevent most law- suits if you: A. provide care within the scope of practice B. properly document your care C. are courteous and respectful to all of your patients D.do all of the above ANS: D 29. Which of the following is NOT a function of the musculoskeletal system? 11 / A. it gives the body shape B. it protects the internal organs C. it provides for body movement D. it regulates body temperature ANS: D 30. The superior portion of the sternum is called the: A. xiphoid process B. sternal body C.manubrium D. clavicle ANS: C 31. A young girl fell while ice skating and injured the protrusion on the inside of one of her ankles. The medical term for this location is the: A. acromion B.medial malleolus C. lateral malleolus D. calcaneus ANS: B 32. The heart muscle has a property called . This means that the heart has the ability to generate and conduct electrical pulses on its own. A. contractility B. automaticity 12 / C. involuntary contraction D. conductibility ANS: B 33. A division of the peripheral nervous system that controls involuntary motor functions is called the nervous system. A. autonomic B. central C. sensory D.motor ANS: A 34. When in the anatomical position, a person is facing: A. away from you B. the observer C. face down D. face up ANS: B 35. An anatomical term that is occasionally used to refer to the sole of the foot is: A. calcaneus B. ventral C. dorsal D.plantar ANS: D 36. The bones of the cheek are called the bones. A. calcaneus B. ventral C. zygomatic 15 / parents or a legal guardian present, the EMT should: A. seek a physician's approval before beginning care B. consider consent to be implied and begin care C. ask the child for consent and begin care D. consider consent to be applied and begin care ANS: B 45. The legal concept of negligence requires that three circumstances must be demonstrated. Which of the following is NOT one of the three circumstances? A.The EMT had a duty to act B.The EMT committed a breach of duty C.The EMT had a local duty D.The breach of duty caused harm ANS: C 46. What are the 5 stages of grief in order? A. depression, bargaining, denial, acceptance, anger B. acceptance, rage, depression, acceptance, bargaining 16 / C. denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance D.bargaining, acceptance, anger, denial, depression ANS: C 47. In 1970, the was founded to establish professional standards for EMS personnel. A. American Medical Association B.National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians C.National Highway Traffic Safety Administration D.U.S. Department of Transportation ANS: B 48. A continuous self-review with the purpose of identifying and correcting aspects of the EMS system that require improvement is called: A. standing orders B. quality improvement C. protocols D.medical direction ANS: B 49. A physician who assumes the ultimate responsibility for the patient-care aspects of the EMS system is called the: A.Designated Agent B.Medical Director C.Off-Line Director D.Primary Care Physician ANS: B 50. There are high risks of a lawsuit against an EMS agency in cases of: A. patients who refuse care B. on-scene deaths 17 / C. cardiac arrest cases D.pedestrians struck by cars ANS: A 51. The legal extent or limits of the EMT's job are formally defined by the: A. patient B.DOT curriculum C. state D. scope of practice ANS: D 52. Which is NOT generally considered a sign or symptom of stress? A. decisiveness B. guilt C. loss of interest in work D.difficulty sleeping ANS: A 53. All of the following are types of calls that have a high potential for causing excessive stress EXCEPT: A. calls involving infants and children B. patients with severe injuries 20 / C. typhoid D.hepatitis ANS: D 61. A disease that is spread by inhaling or absorbing droplets from the air through the eyes, nose, or mouth is considered: A. bloodborne B. noncommunicable C. airborne D. viral ANS: C 62. The communicable disease that kills the most health workers every year in the United States is: A. tuberculosis B.HIV/AIDS C.meningitis D.hepatitis B virus ANS: D 63. Always assume that any patient with a: A. cold has a bloodborne disease B. productive cough has TB C. fever has typhoid D. rash has measles ANS: B 64. Which of the following is NOT true about the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)? A. it attacks the immune system B. it doesn't survive well outside the human body C. it can be introduced through puncture wounds D. It is an airborne pathogen ANS: D 21 / 65. Your patient has HIV.You are accidentally stuck with a needle that has some infected blood on it. Your chance of contracting the disease is about: A. 0.5% B. 5% C. 10% D. 15% ANS: A 66. If you think your patient has TB, you should wear the usual personal protective equipment plus a: A. surgeon's mask B. gown C.HEPA or N-95 respirator D.Tyvek suit ANS: C 67. Instead of providing mouth-to-mouth ventilations to the nonbreathing pa- tient, the EMT when acting alone should use: 22 / A. a pocket mask with a one-way valve B. a one-way valve C. a bag-valve mask D. an endotracheal tube ANS: A 68. An act that establishes procedures through which emergency response workers can find out whether they have been exposed to life-threatening infectious diseases is called: A. OSHA 1910.1030 B. the Ryan White CARE Act C. the AIDS Protection Act D. OSHA 1910.120` ANS: B 69. Every employer of EMTs must provide free of charge: A. a yearly physical examination B. a life insurance policy C. universal health insurance D.hepatitis B vaccination ANS: D 70. Engineering controls that prevent the spread of bloodborne diseases in- clude: A. pocket masks B. needle containers C. disposable airway equipment D. all of these ANS: D 71. Which of the following is NOT required by the OSHA bloodborne pathogen standard? A. postexposure evaluations and follow-up 25 / a sign of: A. complete airway blockage B. snoring C. shortness of breath D. respiratory arrest ANS: C 79. The procedures by which the EMT initially treats life- threatening respira- tory problems include all of the following EXCEPT: A. opening and maintaining the airway B. inserting an endotracheal tube immediately C. providing supplemental oxygen to the breathing patient D. ensuring a clear airway with frequent suctioning ANS: B 80. You are assessing the airway of an unconscious male patient. You recall that most airway problems are caused by: A. the tongue B. asthma C. shock D. the epiglottis ANS: A 26 / 81. You are treating a patient who fell down a flight of metal stairs. Which maneuver is most appropriate for an unconscious patient found lying at the bottom of a stairwell? A.Head-tilt, chin-lift B.Head-tilt, neck-lift C. Jaw-pull lift D. Jaw-thrust ANS: D 82. Artificial ventilation may be inadequate if the: A. chest rises with each ventilation B. heart rate returns to normal C. rate of ventilation is too fast or too slow D. skin becomes warm and dry ANS: C 83. The standard respiratory fitting on a bag-valve mask that ensures a proper fit with other respiratory equipment is: A. 15/22 mm B. 10/14 mm C. 5/20 mm D. 20/26 ANS: A 84. A bag-valve mask should have or be all of the following EXCEPT: A. a self-refilling shell B. a clear face mask C. easily cleared and sterilized D. a pop-off valve ANS: D 85. The proper oxygen flow rate in ventilating a patient with a 27 / BVM is liters per minute A. 5 B. 10 C. 15 D.20 ANS: C 86. According to the American Heart Association guidelines, in ventilating a patient with a bag-valve mask that has supplementary oxygen, the volume administered should be: A. 400 milliliters B. sufficient to achieve visible chest rise C. 800 milliliters D. as much as possible during the 1-second time frame ANS: B 87. The first step in providing artificial ventilation of a stoma breather is to: A. leave the head and neck in a neutral position B. ventilate at the appropriate rate for the patient's age 30 / B. 400 C. 800 D. 1,000 ANS: A 95. When handling oxygen cylinders, the EMT should do all of the following EXCEPT: A. have the cylinders hydrostatically tested every 5 years B. ensure that the valve seat inserts and gaskets are in good condition C. store reserve cylinders in a warm, humid room D.use medical-grade oxygen in all cylinders ANS: C 96. The best way to deliver high-concentration oxygen to a breathing patient is to use a: A. nonrebreather mask B. partial rebreather mask C. bag-valve mask D.nasal cannula ANS: A 97. A nasal cannula provides between percent and percent oxygen concentrations A. 10; 21 B. 24; 44 C. 36; 58 D. 72; 96 ANS: B 98. You are assessing a 54-year-old woman who is unconscious and has a noisy upper airway. If she has dentures, during 31 / airway procedures you should: A. remove them right away B. leave them in unless they are loose C. remove the denture plates one at a time D.hold them in place with a free hand ANS: B 99. When managing the airway of a child, you should remember that: A. the child's mouth and nose are smaller and more easily obstructed B. the chest wall is firmer in a child C. the child's trachea is wider and less easily obstructed D. all of these are airway considerations in a child ANS: A 100. You are dealing with a patient who is in severe distress from a life-threat- ening asthma attack. If breathing stops completely, the patient is in: A. respiratory arrest B. ventilatory reduction C. artificial ventilation D. respiratory failure ANS: A 32 / 101. Which of the following ventilation devices is contraindicated in infants and children? A. bag-valve mask B. pediatric pocket mask C. FROPVD D.nonrebreather mask ANS: C 102. A device that allows the control of oxygen in liters per minute is called a: A. flowmeter B.G tank C. humidifier D. reservoir ANS: A 103. A type of flowmeter that has no gauge and allows for the adjustment of flow in liters per minute and in stepped increments is called a: A. Bourdon gauge flowmeter B. constant flow selector valve C. humidifier D.pressure compensated flowmeter ANS: B 104. Why do some EMS systems use humidified oxygen? A. lack of humidity can dry out the patient's mucous membranes B. it provides a reservoir for the oxygen C. it limits the risk of infection D. it is helpful when transporting patients short distances ANS: A 105. A patient in the end stage of a respiratory disease 35 / A. extremity edema B. an excess of body fluid C. dehydration D. all of these ANS: C 112. You are questioning an elderly man who is sitting on a bench in the park. He has a respiratory complaint, and he speaks in short, two or three word sentences. Is this significant? A. yes, he is probably very short of breath B. no, elderly patients always talk slowly C. no, he is probably always like that D. yes, he probably has a complete airway obstruction ANS: A 113. Why can nasal congestion be a major problem in the first few months of life? A. because the liver is so large in patients in this age group B. because children in this age group are primarily nasal breathers C. because it is an indication of life-threatening airway compromise D.because children in this age group breathe with their diaphragm ANS: B 36 / 114. When the mother strokes the infant's lips and the baby starts sucking, this is a nervous system reflex known as the reflex. A.Moro B. sucking C. palmar D. rooting ANS: B 115. The adolescent years are the beginning of: A. better decision-making skills B. nasal breathing C. self-destructive behaviors D. all of these ANS: C 116. You are treating a patient who was involved in a serious accident. Ac- cording to your knowledge of leading causes of death, what age group is this patient most likely to be in? A. infant B. school age C. adolescent D. young adult ANS: D 117. Serious conflicts occur in families as the issues of control and indepen- dence collide with children in which age group? A. 14 B. 16 C. 18 37 / D.20 ANS: D 118. You are examining an elderly woman sitting on a bench in front of the supermarket. She is sitting forward with her elbows outward and speaking in short, choppy sentences. Is this significant? A.No, she is probably always like that. B.Yes, she is probably out of breath C.No, elderly patients like to sit forward like that D.Yes, she probably has a spinal injury ANS: B 119. You have been called to a restaurant for a patient who collapsed at their table. According to a family member, she did not strike her head as she slid out of the chair when she went unconscious. To open her airway, you should use a maneuver. A.modified jaw-thrust B. head-tilt, chin-lift C. head-tilt, neck-lift D.modified chin-lift ANS: B 40 / 127. If a patient's level of responsiveness is lower than "alert", you should: A. apply a cervical collar B. administer high-concentration oxygen C. place the patient in a recovery position D.bandage all bleeding wounds ANS: B 128. If a patient is talking or crying, assume that the patient: A. is in little pain B. has no life-threatening bleeding C. has an open airway D.has an "A" mental status ANS: C 129. Pale clammy skin indicates: A. nervous system damage B. poor circulation C. an extremely high temperature D. an airway problem ANS: B 130. Which of the following is NOT an example of a high- priority condition? A. difficulty breathing B. nausea and vomiting C. a severed artery D. a mental status of "U" ANS: B 131. The primary assessment takes different forms, which depend on the age of the patient and whether the patient: A. has a medical problem or a trauma problem 41 / B. is alert or conscious C. has a history of diabetes D.has a history of head injury ANS: A 132. When evaluating the circulation in an infant, the EMT should use the: A. femoral pulse B. distal pulse check C. capillary refill test D. radial pulse ANS: C 133. Which is NOT considered a high-priority condition? A. shock B. a fever with a rsh C. a complicated childbirth D. severe pain anywhere ANS: B 134. The EMT documents that the patient with chest pain denies shortness of breath. This is most appropriately termed: A. an informative objective 42 / B. advisory information C. a pertinent negative D. run data information ANS: C 135. When writing the narrative section of a pre-hospital care report (PCR), the EMT should do all of the following EXCEPT: A. use medical terminology correctly B. avoid nonstandard abbreviations C.write legibly and use correct spelling D. state one's personal opinion of the patient's condition ANS: D 136. Which statement best describes an important concept of documenta- tion? A. always fill out a continuation sheet B. If it is not written down, you did not do it C. it should include plenty of medical terms D.document everything you see ANS: B 137. If the patient does not want to go to the hospital, the EMT should: A. document with a refusal-of-care form B. take the patient to the hospital anyway C. end the assessment immediately D. call for another crew to subdue the patient ANS: A 138. An important part of the assessment or care was not performed. This is called an error of: A. submission B. omission 45 / determination of vital signs, the initial pulse rate for patients 1 year of age and older is normally taken at the pulse. A. carotid B. femoral C. pedal D. radial ANS: D 146. When the force of the pulse is weak and thin, it is described as: A. shallow B. full C. partial D. thready ANS: D 147. Normal at-rest respiration for adults vary from breaths per minute. A. 5-10 B. 12-20 46 / C. 15-30 D. 20-32 ANS: B 148. A noisy, harsh sound heard during inhalation that indicates a partial airway obstruction is: A. gurgling B. snorting C. stertorous respirations D. crowing ANS: D 149. The systolic blood pressure indicates the arterial pressure that is created when the: A. artery contracts B. artery relaxes C. heart contracts D.heart relaxes ANS: C 150. Diastolic blood pressure indicates the arterial pressure that is created when the: A. heart contracts B. heart refills C. artery contracts D. artery relaxes ANS: B 151. Determining the blood pressure by palpation is: A. not as accurate as the auscultation method B. used when there is no noise around the patient C. documented as the "palp/diastolic" D.used whenever the patient is hypertensive ANS: A 47 / 152. Information that you can see, hear, feel, or smell is called: A. signs B. sensations C. symptoms D. assessments ANS: A 153. When you ask your patient, "Have you recently had any surgery or in- juries?" you are inquiring about the: A. patient's medications B. patient's pertinent past history C. events leading up to the illness D. allergies that the patient may have ANS: B 154. When you ask the patient, "are you on birth control pills?" you are inquiring about the: A. patient's medications 50 / 161. The best indication of potential injury is the: A. type of accident B. type of injury C.mechanism of injury (MOI) D.position of the patient ANS: C 162. When there are no apparent hazards at the scene of a collision, the danger zone should extend feet in all directions from the wreckage. A. 25 B. 50 C. 75 D. 100 ANS: B 163. In the up-and-over injury pattern, the unrestrained patient is most likely to sustain injuries A. knee B. hip C. head D. leg ANS: C 164. The purpose of the primary assessment is to: A. take the patient's vital signs B. gather information about the collision C. discover and treat life-threatening conditions D.obtain the patient's history ANS: C 165. The first step in the history and physical exam for ANY 51 / trauma patient is to: A.make a status decision B. check for an open airway C. reconsider the mechanism of injury (MOI) D. treat life-threatening conditions ANS: C 166. The "S" in OPQRST stands for: A. SAMPLE B. situation C. severity D. size-up ANS: C 167. All of the following are clues that can help you determine the need for cervical immobilization EXCEPT: A.mechanism of injury (MOI) B. level of responsiveness C. location of injuries D.breathing rate ANS: D 52 / 168. Which of the following is TRUE of the rapid trauma assessment? A. it begins with the examination of the posterior body and ends with the examination of the head B. it evaluates areas of the body where the greatest threats to the patient are likely to be C. it is performed on a trauma patient who has no significant mechanism of injury D. It includes careful examination of the face, eyes, ears, nose, and mouth ANS: B 169. On which type of patient is the secondary assessment most often per- formed? A. A trauma patient with a significant mechanism of injury B. A trauma patient with no significant mechanism of injury C. A responsive medical patient D.An unresponsive medical patient ANS: A 170. To obtain a history of a patient's present illness: A. ask the OPQRST questions B. conduct the subjective interview C. ask the SAMPLE questions D.use the look, listen, feel, and smell method ANS: A 171. The "P" in OPQRST stands for: A. punctures B. penetration C. provocation 55 / C. patients who consistently call 911 D. a type of cellular phone that is used in EMS ANS: B 179. Which of the following is an appropriate interpersonal communication technique? A. standing above a patient B. avoiding eye contact C. directly facing a patient D. standing with arms crossed ANS: C 180. What is the FIRST item given to the hospital in your medical radio report to the receiving facility? A. the patient's age and sex B. unit identification and level of provider C. estimated time of arrival D. emergency medical care given ANS: B 181. Which of the following is NOT considered an essential component of the verbal report to the receiving facility? A. the patient's chief complaint 56 / B. additional treatment given en route C. additional vital signs taken en route D. the patient's attitude ANS: D 182. Which of the following is TRUE of the medical radio report? A. the EMT uses codes to communicate patient information B. the EMT makes sure to give his or her patient diagnosis C. the EMT paints a picture of the patient's problem in words D. the EMT speaks rapidly to limit transmission time ANS: C 183. To avoid misunderstanding and miscommunication when speaking with medical direction, you should do all of the following EXCEPT: A.Giving information clearly and accurately B. Repeating back the order you are given word for word C. Asking the physician to repeat the order if it is unclear D.Avoiding questioning the physician about the order ANS: D 184. Any action of a drug other than the desired action is called a(n): A. contraindication B. indication C. reflex D. side effect ANS: D 185. When a drug is administered subcutaneously, it is: A. dissolved under the tongue B. injected into a vein 57 / C. rubbed into a muscle D. injected under the skin ANS: D 186. Which of the following is considered the best method of providing artifi- cial ventilation? A. pocket face mask with supplemental oxygen B. two-person bag-valve mask with supplemental oxygen C. flow-restricted, oxygen-powered ventilator D.one-person bag-valve mask with supplemental oxygen ANS: A 187. The adequate rate of artificial ventilations for a nonbreathing adult patient is breaths per minute. A. 6-8 B. 10-12 C. 14-16 D. 18-20 ANS: B 188. The adequate rate of artificial ventilations for a nonbreathing infant or child patient is breaths per minute A. 8 60 / 195. An irregular heart rhythm is called: A.mechanical pump failure B. dysrhythmia C. cardiogenic shock D. congestive heart failure ANS: B 196. Which of the following terms applies to an adult pulse rate that is slower than 60 beats per minute? A. bradycardia B. ventricular fibrillation C. tachycardia D. atrial fibrillation ANS: A 197. an adult at-rest heart beat that is faster than 100 beats per minute is referred to as: A. bradycardia B. ventricular fibrillation C. tachycardia D. atrial fibrillation ANS: C 198. Which of the following is the name for a condition caused by excessive fluid buildup in the lungs because of the inadequate pumping of the heart? A. congestive heart failure B. acute heart failure C. acute myocardial infarction D. chronic myocardial infarction ANS: A 199. A diabetic with a weak, rapid pulse and cold, clammy 61 / skin who complains of hunger pangs is suffering from: A. hypoglycemia B. cardiogenic shock C. hyperglycemia D.ulcers ANS: A 200. Which of the following conditions frequently results in an acetone smell on the patient's breath? A. stroke B. hyperglycemia C. ulcers D.hypoglycemia ANS: B 201. A conscious hypoglycemic patient who is able to swallow is frequently administered: A. oral glucose B. insulin 62 / C. nitroglycerin D. epinephrine ANS: A 202. You are treating a 25-year-old female diabetic patient. If you cannot ad- minister glucose gel because she is not alert enough to swallow, you should: A.wait until her mental status improves B. contact medical direction immediately C. treat her like any other patient with altered mental status D.place her in a position of comfort ANS: C 203. The first time a person is exposed to an allergen, the immune system: A. reacts violently B. shuts down C. forms antibodies D. ignores the allergen ANS: C 204. To be considered a severe allergic reaction, a patient must have signs and symptoms of shock and/or: A. a history of allergies B.massive swelling C. respiratory distress D. increased blood pressure ANS: C 205. A 21-year-old male patient who has no history of allergies is having his first allergic reaction. What action should you take? A. Consult with medical direction 65 / fluid is: A. continuous cycler-assisted peritoneal dialysis B. continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis C. abdominal dialysis D.primary fluid exchange process ANS: B 213. You are called to the home of a 55-year-old female dialysis patient who has extreme abdominal pain and a high fever. She said that she spent the whole day at the dialysis clinic and has not been feeling well since she got home. What is most likely her problem now? A. diabetes B. an ulcer C. peritonitis D. appendicitis ANS: C 214. Patients who are experiencing psychiatric emergencies commonly pre- sent with any of the following EXCEPT: A. panic or anxiety B. severe pain after falling and striking the head 66 / C. suicidal or self-destructive behavior D.unusual speech patterns ANS: B 215. Emergency care of a patient who is having a behavioral or psychiatric emergency includes all of the following EXCEPT: A. plenty of physical contact B. encouraging the patient to discuss what is troubling him or her C. not lying to the patient D.being prepared to spend time talking to the patient ANS: A 216. In a limited number of situations, you may have to use physical force. The use of force by an EMT is allowed: A. to defend against an attack by an emotionally disturbed patient B.whenever the patient refuses to be transported C. if the patient refuses to follow your care plan D. if the patient has taken any drugs ANS: A 217. The organs that are found outside the peritoneum and between the ab- domen and the back are in the: A. posterior pelvic compartment B. retroperitoneal space C. periumbilical region D.posterior buttocks ANS: B 218. The spleen is located in the quadrant. 67 / A. upper right B. lower right C. upper left D. lower left ANS: C 219. Your 60-year-old male patient tells you that he has a tearing sensation going into the middle of his back. He states that he has no back problems and a history of hypertension. What is possibly wrong with him? A. a kidney stone B. acute pulmonary edema C. acute appendicitis D. an abdominal aortic aneurysm ANS: D 220. Your 32-year-old male patient has a history of alcoholism and is complain- ing of stomach pains and feeling weak and dizzy. He states that he vomited twice and has had very dark, foul-smelling diarrhea all day. What is the likely cause of today's problem? A. he also has diabetes and needs insulin B. he is having a bleeding ulcer 70 / C. consult with medical direction for advice D. just manage the ABCs and forget the rest ANS: C 227. Your 59-year-old patient has slurred speech. She may have had: A. a stroke B. an overdose C. a seizure D. any of these ANS: D 228. A 46-year-old male with chest pain may have any of the following condi- tions EXCEPT: A. angina B. acute myocardial infarction C. seizure D. rib fracture ANS: C 229. A 45-year-old female patient who is vomiting coffee- ground-like material and complaining of abdominal pain probably has: A. internal bleeding B. a seizure history C. gallbladder problems D. ingested a strong acid ANS: A 230. A wheeze is a common breathing sound found in a patient who is having: A. an asthma attack B. an allergic reaction 71 / C. bronchospasm D. any of these ANS: D 231. The conclusion that you make about a patient's condition after assessing that patient is called your: A. presumptive diagnosis B. EMT diagnosis C. EMS diagnosis D. all of these are correct ANS: D 232. The analytical process that assists you in reaching a field diagnosis is referred to as: A. active assessment B. passive assessment C. critical thinking D.detailed assessment ANS: C 233. The basic approach that clinicians use to arrive at a diagnosis includes all of the following EXCEPT: A. gathering information 72 / B. administering many lab tests C. considering the possibilities D. reaching a conclusion ANS: B 234. You are on the scene of a 60-year-old female who is complaining of difficulty breathing and a fever. You draw up a list of conditions that may be the cause of her problems. This is referred to as the: A. admission diagnosis B. presenting problem C. differential diagnosis D. assessment finding ANS: C 235. The signs or symptoms that suggest the possibility of a particular prob- lem that is very serious are referred to as a(n): A. red flag B. black triage tag C. unstable situation D.none of these ANS: A 236. When a highly experienced physician comes to a diagnosis, he or she most likely used: A. heuristics B. pattern recognition C. shortcuts D. all of these ANS: D 237. The traditional approach involves: A. narrowing down a long list 75 / A. administer another bronchodilator treatment per medical control B. remove the CPAP and ventilate the patient with a BVM device C. lower the level of pressure in the CPAP device considerably D. turn up the pressure of the oxygen going into the CPAP device ANS: B 243. You receive a high-priority call to meet an incoming airplane on the tarmac at the regional airport. A 60-year-old female patient with a history of deep vein thrombosis and 35 years of smoking a pack a day of cigarettes is acutely short of breath. This shortness of breath began about 20 minutes ago, and the EMTs are now administering oxygen by nonrebreather mask. The duration of the flight was approximately 6 hours. What do you suspect is the patient's prehospital diagnosis? A. an acute exacerbation of her COPD B. the development of epiglottis C. a pulmonary embolism D. acute pulmonary edema ANS: C 244. You arrive on the scene of a family who is very anxious because the 45-year old father and his 17-year old daughter were taking wood from the 76 / woodpile when they disturbed a beehive. They both have numerous stings. The daughter is experiencing signs of an anaphylactic reaction, while the father is experiencing a simple allergic reaction. You will most likely find that: A. the daughter has hypotension B. the father has hypertension C. the daughter has hives D. the father has swelling of the airway structures ANS: A 245. You respond to a call for a woman who was described as sleeping in her car. The police have arrived and have broken a car window to gain access to the 35-year-old female because the doors were locked and she is unconscious. As you enter the vehicle, there is a strong smell of rotten eggs. What should you suspect happened? A. the exhaust fumes were not well vented on the vehicle, causing a CO2 leak B. she may have attempted suicide by mixing chemicals to produce hydrogen sulfide C. there was a cyanide leak into the vehicle D. she may have taken double dose of a strong sleeping pill ANS: B 246. The complications of sickle cell disease can include all of the following EXCEPT: A. destruction of the pancreas B. acute chest syndrome 77 / C. priapism D. stroke ANS: A 247. Which of the following is NOT a division of the nervous system? A. central B. Peripheral C. autonomic D. voluntary ANS: D 248. The skull is made up of the cranium and the facial bones. The cranium consists of the of the skull. A. temporal, mandible, and maxilla areas B. frontal, parietal, and distal areas C. anterior, forehead, and lateral areas D. forehead and top, back, and upper sides ANS: D 249. The bones forming the face include all of the following EXCEPT: A. vertebrae B. zygomatic C.mandible D.maxillae ANS: A 80 / C. an intracerebral bleed D. any of these ANS: D 257. All of the following make a head injury worse EXCEPT: A. limited room for expansion inside the skull B. increased pressure in the skull C. an increased carbon dioxide level in the brain D.decreased respiration leading to increased cellular perfusion ANS: D 258. An assessment strategy that is used to check an extremity for injury or paralysis in a conscious patient is: A. checking for a proximal pulse B. assessing equality of strength C. checking for foot wave D. confirming sensitivity ANS: B 259. The time between exposure and the appearance of symptoms is referred to as the: a. toxicity period B. incubation period C. transmissibility time frame D. infectivity window ANS: B 260. If a patient has a brain injury with a skull fracture, the patient's pupils tend to be: A. equal B. dilated C. constricted 81 / D.unequal ANS: D 261. Which of the following describes the blood pressure and pulse of a patient with a traumatic brain injury? A. decreased blood pressure, increased pulse B. decreased blood pressure, decreased pulse C. increased blood pressure, increased pulse D. increased blood pressure, decreased pulse ANS: D 262. The spinal column is made up of shaped bones. A. 33 regularly B. 33 irregularly C. 12 regularly D.12 irregularly ANS: B 263. A ny blunt trauma above the clavicles may damage the vertebrae. A. lumbar 82 / B. cervical C. sacral D. thoracic ANS: B 264. Priapism is: A. a persistent erection of the penis B. spasms of the hands and feet C. apparent only in unconscious patients D.uncontrolled muscle twitches of the thighs ANS: A 265. The EMT should consider that any injury of an elderly person could be a sign of: A. a severe fall B. abuse or neglect C. Alzheimer's disease D.depression ANS: C 266. Geriatric patients usually have decreased elasticity of the lungs and decreased activity of cilia, which result in: A. increased risk of heart attack B. diminished activity and tolerance of physical stress C. decreased ability to clear foreign substances from the lungs D.decreased energy and tolerance of hot and cold ANS: C 267. Your patient is a 60-year-old female who was found confused and walking on the side of the highway. The loss of skin elasticity and shrinking of sweat glands in this woman can cause: A. diminished activity and tolerance of physical stress 85 / 274. After ensuring respiration and circulation and controlling life-threatening external bleeding, the first step in caring for possible internal bleeding is: A. administering liquids by mouth to the patient B. applying a bulky dressing C. treating for shock D.placing the patient in a sitting position ANS: C 275. The injury in which flaps of skin and tissue are torn loose or pulled off completely is called a(n): A. laceration B. amputation C. incision D. avulsion ANS: D 276. A 22-year-old female patient has an object impaled in her forearm. After controlling the profuse bleeding, you should: A. remove the object B. place a pressure dressing over the site 86 / C. stabilize the object D. apply firm pressure to a pressure point ANS: C 277. Which of the following is a sign of shock? A. high blood pressure B. constricted pupils C. slowed pulse rate D.pale, cool, clammy skin ANS: D 278. An object impaled in the eye should be: A. stabilized with gauze and protected with a disposable cup B. removed carefully and a pressure dressing applied C. shielded with a cup taped over the orbit D. removed and a dressing applied with minimum pressure ANS: A 279. A lacerated eyelid or injury to the eyeball should be: A. flushed with water B. covered with a cold pack C. covered with folded 4x4's D. covered with dark patches ANS: C 280. Before moving a supine 38-year-old male patient with a suspected spine injury onto your stretcher, you should always: A. align the patient's teeth and tape the jaw in place B. apply a short spine board C. apply a rigid collar D. secure a KED to the patient ANS: C 281. The initial effort to control bleeding from a severed 87 / neck artery should include: A. direct pressure or pinching B. applying tape C. pressure points D.occlusive dressing ANS: A 282. The most reliable sign of spinal-cord injury in a conscious 35-year-old female patient is: A. pain without movement B. paralysis of extremities C. pain with movement D. tenderness along the spine ANS: B 283. When caring for an open abdominal wound with evisceration: A. replace the organ but cover it with occlusive material B. replace the organ but cover it with a bulky dressing 90 / C. stabilizing sandbags placed between the legs D. straps securing the torso and pelvis ANS: A 290. A fractured femur is best immobilized with a(n) splint. A. long padded B. air-inflated C. rigid vacuum D. traction ANS: D 291. Before immobilizing a fractured knee: A. assess distal circulation and sensory and motor function B. straighten the angulation C. apply firm traction D.flex the leg at the knee ANS: A 292. A sprain is an injury in which: A. tendons are torn B. ligaments are torn C. cartilage is crushed D.muscles spasm ANS: B 293. Which of the following is NOT true of open extremity injuries? A. the skin has been broken or torn B. there is increased likelihood of infection C. definitive care is provided in the prehospital setting D. such injuries require surgery at the hospital ANS: C 294. Muscle is attached to bone by: 91 / A. cartilage B. ligaments C. smooth muscles D. tendons ANS: D 295. The entire back of a 40-year old male's right arm and his entire chest has been burned. What percentage of surface burn would you report? A. 13.5% B. 18% C. 27% D. 36% ANS: A 296. Partial-thickness burns cause: A. swelling and blistering B. nerve damage C. slight swelling D. scarring ANS: A 92 / 297. A 25-year old female patient is suffering from chemical burns to the skin caused by dry lime. After you put on your PPE, your next step should be to: A.wash the area with running water B. remove the lime with phenol C. remove the lime with alcohol D.brush away the lime ANS: D 298. Acid burns to the eyes should be flooded with water for at least minute(s). A. 1 B. 5 C. 10 D.20 ANS: D 299. A method for estimating the extent of a burn is the: A. rule of nines B. rule of percentages C. rule of degree D.burn assessment rule ANS: A 300. If a woman is having her first baby, the first stage of labor will usually last an average of hours. A. 4 B. 8 C. 12 D.16 ANS: D 95 / 4. stabilizing the vehicle A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D.4 ANS: D 308. Considerations for size-up of a collision include all of the following EXCEPT: A. potential hazards B. the need for additional EMS units C. the number of patients involved D. the number of ambulances in the region ANS: D 309. To minimize injuries at a collision, the EMT should: A. use a limited number of tools B. deactivate the safety guards on tools 96 / C.wear highly visible clothing D.wait until the police arrive on the scene ANS: C 310. The three-step process of disentanglement described in the text includes all of the following EXCEPT: A. opening the trunk and cutting the battery cable B. creating exits by displacing doors and roof posts C. disentangling occupants by displacing the front end D.gaining access by disposing of the roof ANS: A 311. Which of the following is TRUE about dealing with a collision vehicle's electrical system? A. It should be disabled by cutting a battery cable B. If it must be disrupted, disconnect the ground cable from the battery C. cutting the battery cable can assist in rescue operations D.disconnecting the ground cable produces a spark that can ignite battery gases ANS: B 312. When positioning flares, use a formula that includes the stopping dis- tance for the posted speed plus the: A. angle of the road B. radius of the danger zone C. reaction distance D.margin of safety ANS: D 313. Once the vehicle has been stabilized, the NEXT part of an extrication procedure for patient rescue is to: A. dispose of the vehicle's roof 97 / B. displace the front end of the vehicle C. displace doors and roof posts D.do none of these ANS: C 314. The Emergency Medical Dispatcher (EMD) has told you the exact location of a collision, how many and what kinds of vehicles are involved, and any known hazards. What other information would you like the EMD to provide? A. how many people are injured B. the direction designator C. how to contact the person who reported the collision D. the nature of the emergency ANS: A 315. Which of the following is an UNNECESSARY question for the Emergency Medical Dispatcher to ask when receiving a call for help? A. how old is the patient? B.what is the patient's gender?