EMT FINAL EXAM PRACTICE TEST 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS 2024/2025 CORRECT STUDY SET, Exams of Health sciences

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EMT FINAL EXAM PRACTICE

TEST 100% VERIFIED

ANSWERS 2024/

CORRECT STUDY SET

Which of the following is an example of a primary prevention strategy? Select one: A. The construction of a guardrail on a dangerous curve following a fatal motor vehicle crash B. Community awareness programs that emphasize the dangers of drinking and driving C. Protecting a patient's spine from further injury after a fall from a significant height D. Teaching a group of new parents how to perform one- and two-rescuer infant CPR B. Community awareness programs that emphasize the dangers of drinking and driving What should you do before attempting to access a patient trapped in a vehicle? Select one: A. Ensure the vehicle is stable. B. Check for other patients. C. Request another ambulance. D. Contact medical control. A. Ensure the vehicle is stable. When decontaminating the back of your ambulance after a call, you should: Select one: A. allow surfaces to air dry unless otherwise indicated in the product directions. B. clean all surfaces and patient contact areas with a mixture of alcohol and water. C. use a bleach and water solution at a 1:2 dilution ratio to thoroughly wipe all surfaces. D. spray the contaminated areas and then immediately wipe them dry with a towel. A. allow surfaces to air dry unless otherwise indicated in the product directions.

Which of the following infectious diseases confers no protection from reinfection after exposure? Select one: A. Mumps B. Rubella C. Syphilis D. Chickenpox C. Syphilis Which of the following is the most significant factor in determining whether a person will become ill from certain germs? Select one: A. Race B. Immunity C. Gender D. Age B. Immunity You have been working at the scene of a major building collapse for eight hours. Many injured people are still being removed, and everyone is becoming frustrated and losing focus. This situation is most effectively managed by: Select one: A. providing large amounts of caffeine to the rescue workers. B. allowing each worker to sleep in 15- to 30-minute increments. C. requesting a CISM team to provide on-scene peer support. D. conducting a critical incident stress debriefing the next day. C. requesting a CISM team to provide on-scene peer support. Which of the following scenarios most accurately depicts abandonment? Select one: A. An EMT gives a verbal report to an emergency room nurse. B. An AEMT transfers patient care to a paramedic. C. A physician assumes patient care from an EMT. D. A paramedic transfers patient care to an EMT.

B. Dependent lividity Which of the following incidents does not require a report to be filed with local authorities? Select one: A. Cardiac arrest B. Gunshot wounds C. Animal bites D. Spousal abuse A. Cardiac arrest Which of the following statements regarding communication with a child is correct? Select one: A. Unlike adults, children cannot see through lies or deceptions. B. Standing over a child often increases his or her level of anxiety. C. Most children are intrigued by strangers wearing uniforms. D. The EMT should give the child minimal information to avoid scaring him or her. B. Standing over a child often increases his or her level of anxiety. Which type of communications equipment functions as a radio receiver and searches across several frequencies? Select one: A. Simplex station B. Duplex station C. Scanner D. Mobile repeater C. Scanner You are caring for a 52-year-old man who complains of chest discomfort. The patient is a retired paramedic and is very anxious because he thinks he is having a heart attack. Which of the following statements would be appropriate? Select one: A. "This is nothing to worry about. Please try to stay calm. The physician at the hospital will probably not find any signs of a heart problem." B. "I notice that you are a retired paramedic, so I'm sure you will understand all of the things that

we will be doing to you." C. "We need to take you to the ED stat. We will give you ASA and NTG en route and then reassess your vitals. Do you have any questions?" D. "It is possible that you are experiencing a heart attack. I am going to give you four baby aspirin to chew and swallow." D. "It is possible that you are experiencing a heart attack. I am going to give you four baby aspirin to chew and swallow." You could be sued for ___________ if your radio report to the hospital describes the patient in a manner that injures his or her reputation. Select one: A. assault B. slander C. libel D. negligence B. slander The term "pericardiocentesis" means: Select one: A. a surgical opening made in the heart. B. the removal of fluid from around the heart. C. narrowing of the arteries supplying the heart. D. surgical repair of the sac around the heart. B. the removal of fluid from around the heart. The term "supraventricular tachycardia" means: Select one: A. a slow heart rate that originates from above the ventricles. B. a rapid heart rate that originates from within the ventricles. C. a rapid heart rate that originates from above the ventricles. D. a slow heart rate that originates from within the ventricles. C. a rapid heart rate that originates from above the ventricles.

Which of the following glands regulates the function of all other endocrine glands in the body? Select one: A. Parathyroid B. Adrenal C. Thyroid D. Pituitary D. Pituitary Which of the following is not a facial bone? Select one: A. Zygoma B. Mastoid C. Mandible D. Maxilla B. Mastoid Which of the following organs or structures lies within the retroperitoneal space? Select one: A. Kidneys B. Gallbladder C. Spleen D. Ascending aorta A. Kidneys White blood cells, which are also called leukocytes, function by: Select one: A. protecting the body from infection. B. producing the body's erythrocytes. C. carrying oxygen and other nutrients. D. producing blood-clotting factors. A. protecting the body from infection. Which of the following statements regarding an infant's vital signs is correct? Select one:

A. An infant's normal body temperature is typically higher than a preschooler's normal body temperature. B. An infant's heart rate generally ranges between 70 and 110 beats/min. C. By six months of age, an infant's normal tidal volume is 2 to 4 mL/kg. D. An infant's normal heart rate increases by 10 beats/min each month. A. An infant's normal body temperature is typically higher than a preschooler's normal body temperature. Which of the following statements regarding middle adults is correct? Select one: A. Increased cholesterol levels in the middle adult age group often do not respond to exercise and diet. B. Cardiovascular health becomes an issue in this age group, as does the greater incidence of cancer. C. Significant impairments in hearing and vision begin to occur in persons between the ages of 41 and 44 years. D. Women in the middle adult age group typically experience menopause in their late 50s or early 60s. B. Cardiovascular health becomes an issue in this age group, as does the greater incidence of cancer. Which of the following statements regarding psychosocial development in the adolescent age group is correct? Select one: A. Because they think rationally, adolescents are at the lowest risk for suicide. B. Family conflict decreases as the adolescent gains control of his or her own life. C. Antisocial behavior and peer pressure peak around 14 to 16 years of age. D. Adolescents are less fixated on their public image than younger children. C. Antisocial behavior and peer pressure peak around 14 to 16 years of age. Which of the following statements regarding toddlers and preschoolers is correct? Select one: A. Toddlers and preschoolers commonly experience upper respiratory infections because of the loss of passive immunity. B. The normal respiratory rate in toddlers and preschoolers is between 12 and 20 breaths/min.

Which of the following statements regarding patient weight distribution is correct? Select one: A. The EMT at the patient's head will bear the least amount of weight. B. The majority of a horizontal patient's weight is in the torso. C. Most of the patient's weight rests on the foot end of the stretcher. D. A semi-sitting patient's weight is equally distributed on both ends. B. The majority of a horizontal patient's weight is in the torso. Which of the following statements regarding the scoop stretcher is not correct? Select one: A. A scoop stretcher will provide adequate immobilization of a patient's spinal column. B. You must fully secure the patient to the scoop stretcher before moving him or her. C. Both sides of the patient must be accessible for a scoop stretcher to be used. D. The construction of the scoop stretcher prohibits X-rays while the patient is on it. A. A scoop stretcher will provide adequate immobilization of a patient's spinal column. You should not attempt to lift a patient who weighs more than 250 pounds with fewer than _______ rescuers, regardless of individual strength. Select one: A. six B. three C. five D. four D. four Which comes first in EMS decision making? Select one: A. Team communication B. Planning C. Data interpretation D. Data gathering D. Data gathering

Which of the following would MOST likely facilitate an accurate and effective verbal handoff report at the hospital? Select one: A. Use of a mutually agreed-upon handoff format. B. Providing the handoff report only to a physician. C. Brief pause in care to provide the verbal report. D. Clearly identifying your EMS certification level. A. Use of a mutually agreed-upon handoff format. Which of the following would the EMT MOST likely be asked to do when assisting a paramedic with endotracheal intubation? Select one: A. Visualization of the vocal cords B. Suction under direct laryngoscopy C. Preoxygenation with a BVM D. Placement of the endotracheal tube C. Preoxygenation with a BVM Which step in EMS decision making comes after a patient has been transferred? Select one: A. Planning B. Data gathering C. Outcome evaluation D. Team communication C. Outcome evaluation While caring for a patient, the EMT states to her partner, "Why even splint the patient's leg if they're only going to remove it in the ED?" This statement indicates that: Select one: A. the patient's leg does not require splinting. B. the EMT is being realistic in her thinking. C. the EMT does not trust the hospital staff. D. the EMT's focus is not on the common goal.

C. "Does your mother have diabetes?" Which of the following would the EMT likely NOT perform on a responsive patient with a headache and no apparent life-threatening conditions? Select one: A. Noninvasive blood pressure monitoring B. Assessment of oxygen saturation C. Systematic head-to-toe examination D. Focused secondary assessment C. Systematic head-to-toe examination Which of the following organs or tissues can survive the longest without oxygen? Select one: A. Heart B. Kidneys C. Liver D. Muscle D. Muscle Which of the following oxygen flowmeters is NOT affected by gravity and can be used in any position when attached to an oxygen cylinder? Select one: A. Pressure-compensated flowmeter B. Ball-and-float flowmeter C. Bourdon-gauge flowmeter D. Vertical-position flowmeter C. Bourdon-gauge flowmeter Which of the following patients is breathing adequately? Select one: A. A conscious male with respirations of 18 breaths/min and reduced tidal volume B. An unconscious 52-year-old female with snoring respirations and cool, pale skin C. A conscious male with respirations of 19 breaths/min and pink skin D. A conscious female with facial cyanosis and rapid, shallow respirations

C. A conscious male with respirations of 19 breaths/min and pink skin Which of the following structures is NOT found in the upper airway? Select one: A. Larynx B. Oropharynx C. Bronchus D. Pharynx C. Bronchus With a good mask-to-face seal and an oxygen flow rate of 15 L/min, the nonrebreathing mask is capable of delivering up to ______% inspired oxygen. Select one: A. 90 B. 80 C. 100 D. 70 A. 90 Which of the following statements regarding parenteral medications is correct? Select one: A. Parenteral medications are absorbed more quickly than enteral medications. B. Parenteral medications are absorbed by the body through the digestive system. C. Tylenol is an example of a parenteral medication because it is taken orally. D. Compared to enteral medications, parenteral medications have fewer side effects. A. Parenteral medications are absorbed more quickly than enteral medications. Which of the following statements regarding the epinephrine auto-injector is correct? Select one: A. The adult auto-injector delivers 0.5 to 1 mg of epinephrine. B. The auto-injector delivers epinephrine via the subcutaneous route. C. The epinephrine auto-injector delivers a preset amount of the drug. D. EMTs do not need physician authorization to use the auto-injector. C. The epinephrine auto-injector delivers a preset amount of the drug.

C. Cardiac tamponade Which of the following is the ONLY action that can prevent death from a tension pneumothorax? Select one: A. Early administration of high-flow oxygen B. Rapid administration of intravenous fluids C. Decompression of the injured side of the chest D. Positive-pressure ventilation with a bag-valve mask C. Decompression of the injured side of the chest Which of the following patients is in decompensated shock? Select one: A. A 20-year-old female with absent radial pulses and dilated pupils B. A 28-year-old female with pale skin and rapid, shallow respirations C. A 23-year-old restless male with cool, clammy skin and tachycardia D. A 32-year-old male with anxiety and a systolic blood pressure of 110 mm Hg A. A 20-year-old female with absent radial pulses and dilated pupils Which of the following statements regarding anaphylactic shock is correct? Select one: A. Anaphylactic shock occurs immediately after a person is sensitized to an allergen. B. Subsequent exposure after sensitization often produces a more severe reaction. C. Anaphylactic shock is caused by immune system failure due to a toxic exposure. D. Sensitized people will experience less severe reactions upon subsequent exposure. B. Subsequent exposure after sensitization often produces a more severe reaction. Which of the following would MOST likely result in hemorrhagic shock? Select one: A. Severe vomiting B. Liver laceration C. Repeated diarrhea D. Excessive sweating B. Liver laceration

When performing chest compressions on an adult, the EMT should compress: Select one: A. at least 1 inch B. between 1 inch and 2 inches C. at least 2 inches D. greater than 2.4 inches C. at least 2 inches When performing CPR on a child, you should compress the chest: Select one: A. to a depth of 1 to 2 inches. B. with one or two hands. C. 80 to 100 times per minute. D. until a radial pulse is felt. B. with one or two hands. Which of the following is NOT a BLS intervention? Select one: A. Automated defibrillation B. Chest compressions C. Abdominal thrusts D. Cardiac monitoring D. Cardiac monitoring Which of the following maneuvers should be used to open a patient's airway when a spinal injury is suspected? Select one: A. Jaw-thrust B. Head tilt-chin lift C. Head tilt-neck lift D. Tongue-jaw lift A. Jaw-thrust

B. Ibuprofen Which of the following patients is at greatest risk for complications caused by the influenza virus? Select one: A. 50-year-old woman with moderate obesity B. 68-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes C. 12-year-old child with a fractured arm D. 39-year-old man with mild hypertension B. 68-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes Which of the following will MOST reliably allow you to determine the nature of a patient's illness? Select one: A. Asking questions related to the chief complaint B. Focusing solely on how the call is dispatched C. Refraining from asking open-ended questions D. Trending of the patient's vital signs over time A. Asking questions related to the chief complaint When auscultating the lungs of a patient with respiratory distress, you hear adventitious sounds. This means that the patient has: Select one: A. abnormal breath sounds. B. normal breath sounds. C. diminished breath sounds. D.an absence of breath sounds. A. abnormal breath sounds. When the level of arterial carbon dioxide rises above normal: Select one: A. respirations decrease in rate and depth. B. exhalation lasts longer than inhalation. C. respirations increase in rate and depth. D. the brain stem inhibits respirations. C. respirations increase in rate and depth.

Which of the following conditions would be LEAST likely to result in hypoxia? Select one: A. Narcotic overdose B. Severe anxiety C. Pleural effusion D. Pulmonary edema B. Severe anxiety Which of the following is MOST characteristic of adequate breathing? Select one: A. 30 breaths/min with supraclavicular retractions and clammy skin B. 20 breaths/min with shallow movement of the chest wall and pallor C. 22 breaths/min with an irregular pattern of breathing and cyanosis D. 24 breaths/min with bilaterally equal breath sounds and pink skin D. 24 breaths/min with bilaterally equal breath sounds and pink skin Which of the following statements regarding pulse oximetry is correct? Select one: A. The pulse oximeter is a valuable assessment tool that measures the percentage of red blood cells that contain hemoglobin molecules. B. Caution must be exercised when using the pulse oximeter on a patient with carbon monoxide poisoning because falsely low readings are common. C. Pulse oximetry measures the percentage of hemoglobin that is saturated with oxygen but does not measure the actual hemoglobin content of the blood. D. Most otherwise healthy patients can maintain adequate oxygenation and good skin color with oxygen saturation readings as low as 70% to 80%. C. Pulse oximetry measures the percentage of hemoglobin that is saturated with oxygen but does not measure the actual hemoglobin content of the blood. When preparing to obtain a 12-lead ECG, the LL and RL electrodes should be placed: Select one: A. on the lower abdomen. B. on the thighs or ankles.