EMT FINAL EXAM TEST QUESTIONS (PART 1) 2024-2025. Questions & Correct, Answers. Graded A+, Exams of Nursing

Download EMT FINAL EXAM TEST QUESTIONS (PART 1) 2024-2025. Questions & Correct, Answers. Graded A+ and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! EMT FINAL EXAM TEST QUESTIONS (PART 1) 2024-2025. Questions and Correct, Verified Answers. Graded A+ 60-year-old woman presents with chest discomfort, confusion, and weakness. The patient's husband tells you that she vomited twice before EMS arrival. The patient's BP is 70/40 mm Hg, her pulse is 45 beats/min and weak, and her respirations are 14 breaths/min and unlabored. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of her hypotension? A) Bradycardia B) Hypovolemia C) Myocardial ischemia D) Respiratory compromise - ANSA A 10-year-old child was struck by a car while crossing the street. He has bilateral femur fractures and a head injury. His father has been notified and is 20 minutes away from the scene. The EMT should: A) contact medical control to see if he/she will take custody of the child. B) attempt to contact the child's mother to see if she can be there sooner. C) begin immediate transport and have law enforcement update the father. D) stabilize the child at the scene until the father arrives and gives consent. - ANSC A 22-year-old male has a shard of glass impaled in his cheek. You look inside his mouth and see minor bleeding. The patient is conscious and alert with adequate breathing. You should: A) carefully remove the shard of glass in the same direction that it entered. B) be prepared for severe bleeding as you carefully remove the shard of glass. C) carefully stabilize the shard of glass and allow him to suction his own mouth. D) remove the shard of glass and place gauze in his mouth to control the bleeding. - ANSC A 22-year-old man crashed his motorcycle into a tree. He is found approximately 20 feet away from his bike and is responsive to pain only. He is not wearing a helmet. You are unable to effectively open his airway with the jaw-thrust maneuver. What should you do? A) Insert an oral airway and assess his breathing. B) Carefully tilt his head back and lift up on his chin. C) Apply high-flow oxygen and assess his carotid pulse. D) Suction his oropharynx and reattempt the jaw-thrust maneuver. - ANSB A 30-year-old woman crashed her car into a tree at a high rate of speed. She is conscious and alert and has stable vital signs. She has some small lacerations and abrasions to her arms and face, but no obviously life-threatening injuries. As you are loading her into the ambulance, she tells you that she does not want to go to the hospital. You should: A) advise her that she is probably too emotionally upset to be able to refuse EMS treatment and transport. B) ask a law enforcement officer to administer a breathalyzer test to determine if she has been drinking alcohol. C) advise the patient that she should be transported to the hospital because of the seriousness of the crash. D) obtain a signed refusal from the patient and ask a law enforcement officer to transport her to the hospital. - ANSC A 33-year-old female presents with acute respiratory distress. She is conscious but anxious, and tells you that she has a history of asthma. She took two puffs of her albuterol inhaler prior to your arrival, but states that it did not help. Her oxygen saturation reads 89% and you hear diffuse wheezing while auscultating her lungs. You should: A) give her 100% humidified oxygen to dilate her bronchioles, monitor her oxygen saturation, and transport her to an appropriate medical facility. B) assist her with a third albuterol treatment, contact medical control for further advice, give her high- flow oxygen, and transport her to the hospital. C) ventilate her with a bag-valve-mask device until her oxygen saturation is at least 94% and rapidly transport her to the closest appropriate medical facility. C) deactivating his defibrillator by running a magnet over it. D) up to three doses of nitroglycerin and prompt transport. - ANSB A 50-year-old woman presents with acute shortness of breath. Her skin is pale and she is anxious. You should: A) administer high-flow oxygen and assess the adequacy of her breathing. B) place her supine and ventilate her with a bag-valve-mask device. C) deliver humidified oxygen and administer an inhaled bronchodilator. D) give supplemental oxygen only if her oxygen saturation is less than 90%. - ANSA A 52-year-old woman crashed her minivan into a tree. She is pinned at the legs by the steering wheel and is semiconscious. After gaining access to the patient, you should: A) perform a primary assessment and provide any lifesaving care before extrication. B) immediately apply high-flow oxygen to the patient and allow extrication to begin. C) rapidly assess her from head to toe, obtain vital signs, and apply a cervical collar. D) have the fire department disentangle the patient and quickly remove her from the car. - ANSA A 56-year-old man has labored, shallow breathing at a rate of 28 breaths/min. He is responsive to pain only. You should: A) suction his mouth for 15 seconds and insert an oropharyngeal airway. B) ventilate him with a bag-valve-mask device at a rate of 30 breaths/min. C) place him on his side and administer oxygen via nonrebreathing mask. D) insert a nasopharyngeal airway and begin assisting his ventilations. - ANSD A 56-year-old man is found to be pulseless and apneic. His wife states that he collapsed about 5 minutes ago. As your partner gets the AED from the ambulance, you should: A) provide rescue breaths until the AED is ready. B) open the airway and give 2 rescue breaths. C) begin CPR, starting with chest compressions. D) ask the wife if the patient has a living will. - ANSC A 58-year-old man is found unresponsive by his wife. According to his wife, he was complaining of a "dull ache" in his chest the day before, but refused to allow her to call 911. His blood pressure is 70/50 mm Hg, his pulse is 120 beats/min and weak, and his respirations are 28 breaths/min and labored. Further assessment reveals that his skin is cool, pale, and clammy. You should suspect: A) cardiogenic shock. B) hypovolemic shock. C) acute septic shock. D) pulmonary embolism. - ANSA A 60-year-old female is found unresponsive. She is cyanotic, is making a snoring sound, and has a slow respiratory rate. You should: A) insert an airway adjunct. B) manually open her airway. C) suction her oropharynx for 15 seconds. D) ventilate her with a bag-valve-mask device. - ANSB A 60-year-old man complains of chest pain and difficulty breathing. He is pale, diaphoretic, and in severe pain. As your partner applies supplemental oxygen, you assess his vital signs. His blood pressure is 180/90 mm Hg, pulse is 110 beats/min and irregular, respirations are 24 breaths/min and labored, and oxygen saturation is 93%. You ask him if has taken any nitroglycerin and he tells you that he does not have any but his wife does. You should: A) contact medical control and request permission to assist the patient with up to three doses of his wife's nitroglycerin. B) complete your focused physical examination and prepare the patient for immediate transport to an appropriate hospital. C) transport at once, apply the AED in case he develops cardiac arrest, and monitor his vital signs en route to the hospital. D) have him swallow up to four enteric-coated aspirin, continue oxygen therapy, and promptly transport hi - ANSB A 60-year-old man is in cardiac arrest. You begin CPR while your partner applies the AED. What should you do if you receive a no shock message? A) Assess for a carotid pulse for up to 10 seconds. B) Resume CPR, starting with chest compressions. C) Ensure that the AED electrodes are properly applied. D) Reanalyze his cardiac rhythm after 30 seconds of CPR. - ANSB A 60-year-old woman has severe respiratory distress. She is conscious, but confused, and can only say two words at a time. Which of the following would be the MOST appropriate treatment for her? A) Insertion of a nasopharyngeal airway B) Ventilation with a bag-valve-mask device C) Oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 to 6 L/min D) Oxygen via nonrebreathing mask at 15 L/min - ANSB A 60-year-old woman presents with acute respiratory distress. She is conscious and alert, but restless. Her respiratory rate is 26 breaths/min with adequate chest expansion, her breath sounds are clear to auscultation bilaterally, and her oxygen saturation is 84%. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate treatment for this patient? A) Supplemental oxygen with a nonrebreathing mask B) A nasopharyngeal airway and assisted ventilations C) A nasopharyngeal airway and supplemental oxygen D) A nasal cannula with the flowmeter set at 4 to 6 L/min - ANSA D) inform the incident commander that you will assume responsibility for the entire incident since there is a confirmed patient. - ANSC A middle-aged female with a history of hypertension and high cholesterol complains of chest discomfort. She asks you to take her to the hospital where her personal physician practices, which is 15 miles away. Her blood pressure is 130/70 mm Hg, pulse is 84 beats/min and regular, and respirations are 18 breaths/min and unlabored. Which of the following actions is clearly NOT appropriate for this patient? A) Giving oxygen via nasal cannula B) Taking her to her choice hospital C) Contacting her physician via phone D) Allowing her to walk to the ambulance - ANSD A middle-aged male was found unresponsive by his wife. When you arrive at the scene, you assess the patient and determine that he is apneic and pulseless. You should: A) immediately begin CPR, reassess for a carotid pulse after 60 seconds, and then apply the AED. B) immediately apply the AED, analyze his cardiac rhythm, deliver a shock if indicated, and begin CPR. C) begin CPR starting with chest compressions, apply the AED as soon as possible, and request backup. D) perform CPR with a compression to ventilation ratio of 15:2, apply the AED, and request backup. - ANSC A middle-aged woman took three of her prescribed nitroglycerin tablets after she began experiencing chest pain. She complains of a bad headache and is still experiencing chest pain. You should assume that: A) her blood pressure is elevated. B) she has ongoing cardiac ischemia. C) her nitroglycerin is no longer potent. D) her chest pain is not cardiac related. - ANSC A nonrebreathing mask is MOST appropriate to use on patients who: A) are breathing fewer than 12 times per minute. B) have an adequate rate and depth of breathing. C) are semiconscious and breathing shallowly. D) are cyanotic and have a low oxygen saturation. - ANSB A patient injured his arm and asks to be transported to a specific hospital because he has been there before. The EMT states that he does not feel the doctors there are competent and recommends a different hospital. The EMT's behavior is: A) legal and ethical. B) ethical, but illegal. C) legal, but unethical. D) illegal and unethical. - ANSC A patient overdosed on heroin and is unresponsive. He is cyanotic; he has slow, shallow breathing; and his oxygen saturation is 80%. The primary cause of this patient's condition is inadequate: A) perfusion. B) ventilation. C) respiration. D) oxygenation. - ANSB A patient overdosed on several drugs and is unresponsive with shallow breathing and facial cyanosis. As you continue your assessment, the patient suddenly vomits. You should: A) suction his oropharynx at once. B) turn the patient onto his side. C) insert an oropharyngeal airway. D) begin assisting his ventilations. - ANSB A patient presents with severe bradycardia, hypersalivation, vomiting, and excessive tearing. Which of the following agents would MOST likely cause his signs and symptoms? A) Soman B) Anthrax C) Chlorine D) Phosgene - ANSA A patient reports pain in the upper midabdominal area. This region of the abdomen is called the: A) peritoneum. B) epigastrium. C) mediastinum. D) retroperitoneum. - ANSB A patient who is breathing with reduced tidal volume would MOST likely have: A) warm, moist skin. B) shallow respirations. C) a prolonged inhalation phase. D) a respiratory rate of 14 breaths/min. - ANSB A patient who is experiencing an acute myocardial infarction: A) most often describes his or her chest pain as being sharp or tearing. B) has chest pain or discomfort that does not change with each breath. C) often experiences relief of his or her chest pain after taking nitroglycerin. D) often complains of a different type of pain than a patient with angina. - ANSB After an adult cardiac arrest patient has been intubated by a paramedic, you are providing ventilations as your partner performs chest compressions. When ventilating the patient, you should: A) deliver 2 breaths during a brief pause in chest compressions. B) deliver each breath over 1 second at a rate of 10 breaths/min. C) hyperventilate the patient to maximize carbon dioxide elimination. D) deliver each breath over 2 seconds at a rate of 15 breaths/min. - ANSB After an initial attempt to ventilate an unresponsive apneic patient fails, you reposition the patient's head and reattempt ventilation without success. You should next: A) turn the patient onto his side and deliver 5 to 10 back slaps. B) perform continuous chest compressions until ALS personnel arrive. C) perform chest compressions, open the airway, and look in the mouth. D) administer 5 to 10 abdominal thrusts and reattempt to ventilate. - ANSC After applying the AED to an adult patient in cardiac arrest, you analyze her cardiac rhythm and receive a shock advised message. Emergency medical responders, who arrived at the scene before you, tell you that bystander CPR was not in progress upon their arrival. You should: A) perform CPR for 2 minutes and then defibrillate. B) detach the AED and prepare for immediate transport. C) deliver the shock as indicated followed immediately by CPR. D) notify medical control and request permission to cease resuscitation. - ANSC After arriving at a mass-casualty incident where other ambulances are already present, you should notify the dispatcher and then: A) repeat the triage process. B) report to the staging area. C) initiate care for the most critically injured patients. D) obtain information from the fire service commander. - ANSB After assisting a patient with his or her prescribed nitroglycerin, you would NOT expect him or her to experience a: A) syncopal episode. B) pounding headache. C) burning sensation in the mouth. D) fizzing sensation under the tongue. - ANSA After attaching the AED and pushing the analyze button on an adult patient in cardiac arrest, the AED states that a shock is advised. Which cardiac rhythm is the patient MOST likely in? A) Asystole B) Ventricular fibrillation C) Ventricular tachycardia D) Pulseless electrical activity - ANSB After defibrillating a man in cardiac arrest, you resume CPR. As you are about to reanalyze his cardiac rhythm 2 minutes later, your partner tells you she can definitely feel a strong carotid pulse. You should: A) continue with the rhythm analysis. B) assess the patient's breathing effort. C) ask her to obtain a blood pressure reading. D) remove the AED pads from the patient's chest. - ANSB After delivering one shock with the AED and performing 2 minutes of CPR on a woman in cardiac arrest, you reanalyze her cardiac rhythm and receive a no shock advised message. This means that: A) she is not in a shockable rhythm. B) she has electrical activity but no pulse. C) her rhythm has deteriorated to asystole. D) the first shock restored a rhythm and pulse. - ANSA After restoring a pulse in a cardiac arrest patient, you begin immediate transport. While en route to the hospital, the patient goes back into cardiac arrest. You should: A) tell your partner to stop the ambulance. B) begin CPR and proceed to the hospital. C) contact medical control for further advice. D) analyze the patient's rhythm with the AED. - ANSA Agonal respirations are not adequate because they are: A) infrequent, gasping respiratory efforts. B) the result of an increase in tidal volume. C) characterized by a rapid, irregular pattern. D) associated with a prolonged inhalation phase. - ANSA All of the following are components of the Cincinnati Stroke Scale, EXCEPT: A) pupil size. B) facial droop. C) speech pattern. D) arm movement. - ANSA All of the following are considered key components at the scene of a mass-casualty incident, EXCEPT: An unresponsive patient's respirations are 28 breaths/min and shallow. The MOST appropriate treatment includes: A) a nasal cannula set at 2 to 6 L/min. B) assisted ventilations with 100% oxygen. C) a simple face mask set at 10 to 12 L/min. D) a nonrebreathing mask set at 15 L/min. - ANSB As an EMT, your primary responsibility is to: A) provide competent patient care. B) ensure the safety of your partner. C) keep yourself as safe as possible. D) transport all patients to the hospital. - ANSC As soon as you begin transport of a patient to the hospital, you should: A) contact medical control. B) notify the receiving facility. C) advise dispatch of your status. D) conduct a detailed examination. - ANSC As you step out of the ambulance at the scene of a nighttime motor-vehicle crash on the highway, your MOST immediate concern should be: A) the presence of oncoming traffic. B) whether the car will catch on fire. C) placing safety flares by the ambulance. D) rapid assessment of all injured patients. - ANSA Aspirin is beneficial to patients experiencing an acute coronary syndrome because it: A) prevents a clot from getting larger. B) effectively relieves their chest pain. C) decreases cardiac workload by lowering the BP. D) destroys the clot that is blocking a coronary artery. - ANSA Aspirin may be contraindicated in patients with: A) glaucoma. B) diabetes. C) stomach ulcers. D) ibuprofen allergy. - ANSC Assessment of a 40-year-old patient reveals respiratory distress, tachycardia, audible expiratory wheezing, and an oxygen saturation of 88%. The EMT should suspect: A) fluid in the lower airways. B) diffuse bronchoconstriction. C) swelling in the laryngeal area. D) infection of the lower airway. - ANSB At the peak of the inspiratory phase, the alveoli in the lungs contain: A) large quantities of carbon dioxide. B) minimal levels of oxygen and carbon dioxide. C) equal levels of oxygen and carbon dioxide. D) more oxygen than carbon dioxide. - ANSD At the scene of a mass-casualty incident, you notice a bystander who is emotionally upset. An appropriate action to take would be to: A) tell the bystander to leave the scene at once. B) have the bystander assist you with patient care. C) notify the police and have the bystander removed. D) assign the bystander a simple, non-patient-care task. - ANSD By which of the following mechanisms does nitroglycerin relieve cardiac-related chest pain or discomfort? A) Vasodilation and increased myocardial oxygen supply B) Vasodilation and decreased myocardial oxygen supply C) Vasoconstriction and increased myocardial workload D) Vasoconstriction and increased cardiac oxygen demand - ANSA Chest compression effectiveness is MOST effectively assessed by: A) listening for a heartbeat with each compression. B) carefully measuring the depth of each compression. C) palpating for a carotid pulse with each compression. D) measuring the systolic blood pressure during compressions. - ANSD Clinically, reduced tidal volume would MOST likely present with respirations that are: A) deep. B) slow. A) past the crashed vehicle, on the left shoulder. B) behind the fire apparatus, on the left shoulder. C) alongside the crashed vehicle, in the middle lane. D) in between the fire apparatus and crashed vehicle. - ANSA Failure of the EMT to obtain consent from a responsive patient before taking his or her blood pressure may constitute: A) battery. B) negligence. C) abandonment. D) assault. - ANSA Following a call in which a 6-week-old infant in cardiac arrest did not survive, your partner is exhibiting significant anxiety and irritability. How can you MOST effectively help him? A) Allow him to voice his feelings to you. B) Tell him that he needs psychiatric help. C) Recommend at least 12 hours of sleep. D) Report his behavior to the medical director. - ANSA Following administration of nitroglycerin to a man with crushing chest pressure, he experiences a significant increase in his heart rate. This is MOST likely the result of: A) a cardiac dysrhythmia. B) preexisting hypertension. C) a drop in blood pressure. D) coronary vasoconstriction. - ANSC Following an apparent terrorist attack, numerous patients present with shortness of breath and persistent coughing. A green haze is noted in the area in which the patients are located. Which of the following agents should you suspect they were exposed to? A) V agent (VX) B) Tabun (GA) C) Chlorine (CL) D) Phosgene oxime - ANSC Freshly oxygenated blood returns to the heart via the: A) aorta. B) vena cavae. C) pulmonary vein. D) pulmonary artery. - ANSC How can you help maximize cardiac output during CPR? A) Compress the chest at a rate of no more than 100/min B) Ventilate the patient through an advanced airway device C) Deliver rescue breaths until the chest expands widely D) Allow the chest to fully recoil in between compressions - ANSD How does a unified incident command system differ from a single incident command system? A) In a unified incident command system, a single incident commander is identified and will function as such, regardless of the type of incident. B) In a unified incident command system, a single person is in charge of the entire incident, even if multiple agencies respond to the scene. C) In a unified incident command system, plans are made in advance by all agencies that assume a shared responsibility for decision making. D) In a unified incident command system, one agency with several incident commanders has the majority of responsibility for incident management. - ANSC Hypoxia is defined as: A) decreased oxygen content in arterial blood. B) an absence of oxygen to the vital body organs. C) inadequate oxygen to the body's cells and tissues. D) an excess amount of carbon dioxide in arterial blood. - ANSC If an adult patient presents with a respiratory rate of 26 breaths/min, your initial action should be to: A) begin assisting his ventilations with a bag-valve-mask device. B) apply the pulse oximeter and assess his oxygen saturation. C) evaluate his mental status and the depth of his respirations. D) apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask and take his vital signs. - ANSC If the EMT could initially only take two pieces of equipment to the side of a patient in cardiac arrest, which of the following should he or she select? A) AED and suction device B) AED and oxygen cylinder C) Pocket mask and oxygen cylinder D) Bag-valve-mask and suction devices - ANSA If the level of carbon dioxide in the arterial blood increases: A) a reduction in tidal volume will occur. B) Occlusion of the posterior pharynx by the tongue C) Shortly after the patient becomes unresponsive and pulseless D) Significant hypoxemia, regardless of the cause - ANSC In which position should you place an uninjured, unresponsive patient with a respiratory rate of 14 breaths/min and adequate tidal volume? A) Supine B) Full Fowler's C) Semi-Fowler's D) Lateral recumbent - ANSD In which position would you expect a patient with severe dyspnea to be found? A) Prone B) Supine C) Fowler's D) Lateral recumbent - ANSC Ischemic heart disease is a condition in which: A) a portion of the heart muscle dies because of a prolonged lack of oxygen. B) there is a decrease in blood flow to one or more portions of the heart muscle. C) the coronary arteries dilate, thus preventing effective blood flow to the heart. D) an acute event leads to a significant decrease in the pumping force of the heart. - ANSB Medical control has ordered you to administer one tube of oral glucose to a hypoglycemic patient. Immediately after receiving this order, you should: A) document the order on the prehospital care report. B) administer the medication and reassess the patient. C) ask medical control to repeat the order word for word. D) repeat the order back to medical control word for word. - ANSD Medications such as albuterol (Ventolin) relieve respiratory distress by: A) constricting the bronchioles in the lungs. B) contracting the smaller airways in the lungs. C) relaxing the smooth muscle of the bronchioles. D) dilating the large mainstem bronchi of the airway. - ANSC Most crashes involving ambulances occur: A) at stop signs. B) on the highway. C) at stop lights. D) at intersections. - ANSD n which of the following patients is nitroglycerin contraindicated? A) 41-year-old male with crushing substernal chest pressure, a blood pressure of 160/90 mm Hg, and severe nausea B) 53-year-old male with chest discomfort, diaphoresis, a blood pressure of 146/66 mm Hg, and regular use of Levitra C) 58-year-old male with chest pain radiating to the left arm, a blood pressure of 130/64 mm Hg, and prescribed Tegretol D) 66-year-old female with chest pressure of 6 hours' duration, lightheadedness, and a blood pressure of 110/58 mm Hg - ANSB Occasional, irregular breaths that may be observed in a cardiac arrest patient are called: A) Biot respirations. B) agonal gasps. C) ataxic respirations. D) Cheyne-Stokes respirations. - ANSB Oxygen that is administered through a nasal cannula would be of LEAST benefit to a patient who: A) breathes through his or her mouth. B) is in need of long-term oxygen therapy. C) has COPD and an oxygen saturation of 94%. D) is breathing more than 12 times per minute. - ANSA Patients with a hypoxic drive: A) may hypoventilate if given low concentrations of oxygen. B) are stimulated to breathe by low oxygen levels in the blood. C) rarely become cyanotic because of high blood oxygen levels. D) are accustomed to low levels of carbon dioxide in the blood. - ANSA Prior to administering nitroglycerin to a patient with chest pain, you should: A) elevate the patient's lower extremities. B) obtain vital signs to detect hypotension. C) inquire about an allergy to salicylates. D) auscultate the patient's breath sounds. - ANSB Sonorous respirations are MOST rapidly corrected by: A) suctioning the oropharynx. B) bag-valve-mask ventilation. C) manually positioning the head. D) inserting an oropharyngeal airway. - ANSC Sudden cardiac arrest in the adult population MOST often is the result of: A) myocardial infarction. B) respiratory failure. C) a cardiac dysrhythmia. D) accidental electrocution. - ANSC Switching compressors during two-rescuer CPR: A) should take no more than 15 seconds to accomplish. B) should occur every 2 minutes throughout the arrest. C) is necessary only if the compressor becomes fatigued. D) is performed after every 10 to 20 cycles of adult CPR. - ANSB Tachycardia can be detrimental to a patient who is experiencing a cardiac problem because it causes: A) increased cardiac filling in between beats. B) a profound decrease in oxygen consumption. C) an associated increase in breathing difficulty. D) increased cardiac oxygen usage and demand. - ANSD The active, muscular part of breathing is called: A) expiration. B) inhalation. C) ventilation. D) respiration. - ANSB The AED analyzes your pulseless and apneic patient's cardiac rhythm and advises that a shock is NOT indicated. You should: A) assess for a pulse for no more than 10 seconds. B) resume CPR, starting with chest compressions. C) open the patient's airway and check for breathing. D) reanalyze the cardiac rhythm for positive confirmation. - ANSB The chest pain associated with an acute coronary syndrome is often described as: A) sharp. B) stabbing. C) pressure. D) cramping. - ANSC The EMT should avoid focusing all of his or her attention on a single critical patient during the triage process because: A) three EMTs are required to effectively manage a critical patient. B) other patients may die from causes that could have been prevented. C) all of his or her supplies will likely be depleted on that one patient. D) the patient will most likely die before he or she can be transported. - ANSB The energy setting for a biphasic AED: A) is typically 360 joules. B) is manufacturer specific. C) must be manually set by the EMT. D) increases by 50 joules with each shock. - ANSB The immobilization device MOST appropriate to use for a patient with multiple injuries and unstable vital signs is the: A) scoop immobilization device. B) vest-style immobilization device. C) short spine board immobilization device. D) long spine board immobilization device. - ANSD The lower airway begins at the: A) larynx. B) trachea. C) epiglottis. D) cricoid cartilage. - ANSB The method by which you administer supplemental oxygen to a hypoxemic patient depends MOSTLY on the: A) presence or absence of cyanosis. B) patient's level of consciousness and heart rate. C) suspected underlying cause of the hypoxemia. The primary clinical feature associated with exposure to a vesicant agent is: A) tachycardia. B) skin blistering. C) vomiting blood. D) muscle twitching. - ANSB The process of loading oxygen molecules onto hemoglobin molecules in the bloodstream is called: A) diffusion. B) ventilation. C) oxygenation. D) respiration. - ANSC The respiratory system functions by: A) sending messages to the diaphragm that cause it to contract. B) bringing oxygen into the lungs and eliminating carbon dioxide. C) ensuring that adequate oxygen is delivered to the body's tissues. D) removing carbon dioxide from the cells and returning it to the lungs. - ANSB The role of triage officer at a mass-casualty incident should be assumed by the: A) most knowledgeable EMS provider. B) EMS provider with the most years in EMS. C) first EMS provider who is willing to perform the task. D) EMS medical director via telephone communication. - ANSA The safest emergency vehicle operator is one who: A) is physically fit. B) has a positive attitude. C) drives with due regard. D) drives with lights and siren. - ANSC The scene size-up includes all of the following components, EXCEPT: A) determining if the scene is safe. B) donning personal protective gear. C) assessing the need for assistance. D) evaluating the mechanism of injury. - ANSB The set of regulations and ethical considerations that define the extent or limits of an EMT's job is called: A) a duty to act. B) confidentiality. C) the scope of practice. D) the Medical Practices Act. - ANSC The technique of rapid extrication from a vehicle involves: A) applying a cervical collar, grasping the patient by the clothing, and quickly removing him or her onto the stretcher. B) manually stabilizing the head, applying a cervical collar, and removing the patient from the vehicle onto a long backboard. C) applying a vest-style extrication device, sliding a long backboard under the patient's buttocks, and removing him or her from the vehicle. D) grabbing the patient by his or her clothing, protecting his or her spine as much as possible, and dragging him or her from the vehicle. - ANSC The tidal volume of an unresponsive patient is rapidly assessed by: A) auscultating his or her lung sounds. B) evaluating for the presence of cyanosis. C) observing for chest rise during inhalation. D) counting the patient's respiratory rate. - ANSC The ultimate goal of any EMS quality improvement program is to: A) deliver a consistently high standard of care to all patients who are encountered. B) ensure that all personnel receive an adequate number of continuing education hours. C) provide protocols to all EMTs and hold them accountable if protocols are not followed. D) recognize all EMTs who demonstrate consistency in providing competent patient care. - ANSA The wall that separates the left and right sides of the heart is called the: A) carina. B) septum. C) pericardium. D) mediastinum. - ANSB Tidal volume is defined as the: A) volume of air inhaled or exhaled per breath. B) volume of air that remains in the upper airway. C) total volume of air that the lungs are capable of holding. A) request fire department assistance if they are not already en route. B) put on gloves, a gown, and a mask and quickly remove the driver. C) approach the rear of the tanker to identify the type of fluid leaking. D) ensure that the ambulance is downwind and downhill from the tanker. - ANSA Upon returning to quarters after working a major car accident involving an entire family, a member of the press calls and requests information regarding the call. Which of the following would be the EMT's MOST appropriate action? A) Disclose the general extent of the patient's injuries, but avoid disclosing which facility they were transported to B) Disclose the ages of the patients and the facility to which they were transported, but avoid discussing their injuries C) Inform him that the patients were transported to the hospital, but that you cannot disclose the extent of their injuries D) Provide information requested on the patients who are not minors, but avoid disclosing your name or badge number - ANSC Use of the automated external defibrillator is contraindicated in patients who: A) are between 1 and 8 years of age. B) experienced a witnessed cardiac arrest. C) are apneic and have a weak carotid pulse. D) have a nitroglycerin patch applied to the skin. - ANSC Ventilation is defined as the: A) elimination of carbon dioxide from the body. B) movement of air into and out of the lungs. C) volume of air inhaled into the lungs in a single breath. D) exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide at the cellular level. - ANSB What is the function of pulmonary surfactant? A) It carries fresh oxygen from the lungs to the left side of the heart. B) It dilates the bronchioles in the lungs and enhances the flow of air. C) It lubricates the alveolar walls and allows them to expand and recoil. D) It facilitates the production of mucus, which is expelled during coughing. - ANSC When an error occurs while using the AED, it is MOST often the result of: A) battery failure secondary to operator error. B) malfunction of the microchip inside the AED. C) misinterpretation of the patient's cardiac rhythm. D) excess patient movement during the analyze phase. - ANSA When assessing a patient who complains of chest pain, which of the following questions would you ask to assess the "R" in OPQRST? A) Did the pain begin suddenly or gradually? B) What were you doing when the pain began? C) Is there anything that makes the pain worse? D) Is the pain in one place or does it move around? - ANS When assessing a patient who has stroke-like symptoms, you should recall that: A) the majority strokes are caused by a ruptured cerebral artery. B) the patient may be unable to communicate, but can often understand. C) right-sided weakness indicates a stroke in the right cerebral hemisphere. D) fibrinolytic therapy must be given within 6 hours following the stroke. - ANSB When attaching an oxygen regulator to a D cylinder and preparing it for use, you should recall that: A) the cylinder must remain in a standing position at all times or it will not deliver any oxygen. B) oxygen supports combustion and should not be used where sparks are easily generated. C) a pressure-compensated flowmeter should be used when laying the oxygen cylinder down. D) the cylinder should be taken out of service and refilled when it contains less than 750 psi. - ANSB When called to the scene of a structural fire to stand by in case any injuries occur at the scene, you should: A) park the ambulance close to the fire so you can rapidly access any patients. B) ensure that your ambulance does not block or hinder other arriving fire apparatus. C) depart the scene and return to service after the fire has been completely extinguished. D) enter the structure with the firefighters so you can provide immediate care to any victims. - ANSB When calling in your radio report to the receiving hospital, you should: A) include the patient's name. B) be brief, concise, and factual. C) give your report only to a physician. D) break your report into 60-second increments. - ANSB When driving in emergency mode on a multilane highway, the emergency vehicle operator should keep to the: A) right shoulder so that traffic flow is not disrupted. B) extreme left lane so motorists can yield to the right. C) extreme right lane so motorists can yield to the left. B) blood pressure decreases as a person ages. C) the reserve capacity of the heart is reduced as a person ages. D) the blood vessels become more elastic as a person ages. - ANSC When treating a patient with chest pain, pressure, or discomfort, you should FIRST: A) administer supplemental oxygen. B) place the patient in a position of comfort. C) request an ALS ambulance response to the scene. D) assess the blood pressure and give nitroglycerin. - ANSB When using the power lift to lift a stretcher, you should: A) maintain a slight inward curve to your back. B) bend at the waist and keep your back straight. C) ensure that you lift with your palms facing up. D) place your hands palms down on the stretcher. - ANSC When ventilating an apneic patient with a bag-valve-mask device, each breath should be delivered over: A) 1 second. B) 2 seconds. C) 3 seconds. D) 4 seconds. - ANSA When ventilating an apneic patient, you note decreased ventilatory compliance. This means that: A) the upper airway is blocked. B) fluid is occupying the alveoli. C) the lungs are difficult to ventilate. D) there is no resistance when ventilating. - ANSC When ventilating an unresponsive apneic adult with a bag-valve-mask device, you should ensure that: A) an airway adjunct has been inserted. B) you are positioned alongside the patient. C) ventilations occur at a rate of 20 breaths/min. D) the pop-off relief valve is manually occluded. - ANSA Which of the following actions demonstrates an EMT's knowledge of crime scene preservation? A) Placing a knife in a plastic zip-lock bag and giving it to a law enforcement officer for safe-keeping B) Advising a law enforcement officer after moving a coffee table to access a critically injured patient C) Requesting approval from law enforcement before controlling severe bleeding from a patient's arm D) Carefully cutting through the hole in a patient's clothing that was made by a large-caliber firearm - ANSB Which of the following airway sounds indicates a lower airway obstruction? A) Stridor B) Crowing C) Gurgling D) Wheezing - ANSD Which of the following assessment findings is LEAST suggestive of a cardiac problem? A) Rapid, irregular heart rate B) Anxiety and pale, cool skin C) Palpable pain to the chest D) Nausea and epigastric pain - ANSC Which of the following chambers of the heart has the thickest walls? A) Left atrium B) Right atrium C) Left ventricle D) Right ventricle - ANSC Which of the following clinical findings is MOST consistent with a chronic respiratory disease? A) An irregular pulse B) A barrel-shaped chest C) Altered mental status D) Use of accessory muscles - ANSB Which of the following components is NOT part of an injury or illness prevention program? A) Inspecting the home of young parents for child safety locks B) Teaching new parents how to properly install a child safety seat C) Educating teenage students on the dangers of drinking and driving D) Training a group of daycare employees on infant and child CPR - ANSD Which of the following describes pulseless electrical activity (PEA)? A) disorganized, chaotic quivering of the heart muscle that does not generate a pulse B) The presence of a palpable pulse in the absence of any electrical activity in the heart C) A rapid cardiac rhythm that does not produce a pulse, but responds to defibrillation Which of the following is considered minimum personal protective equipment (PPE) when suctioning an unresponsive patient's airway? A) Gloves and a mask B) Gloves and full facial protection C) Gloves, gown, and eye protection D) Gloves, head cover, and eye protection - ANSB Which of the following is MOST indicative of a primary cardiac problem? A) Tachypnea B) Tachycardia C) Irregular pulse D) Sudden fainting - ANSC Which of the following is the BEST indicator of cardiac output? A) Pulse rate and quality B) Systolic blood pressure C) Quality of the respirations D) Condition and color of the skin - ANSA Which of the following is the MOST appropriate response when a patient with chest pain asks you if he or she is having a heart attack? A) Yes, so I recommend going to the hospital. B) I don't know, but we will take good care of you. C) Probably not, but we should transport you to be safe. D) I believe you are, but only a physician can tell for sure. - ANSB Which of the following is the MOST correct technique for ventilating an apneic adult who has a pulse? A) Hyperventilate at a rate between 20 and 24 breaths/min. B) Deliver each breath over 2 seconds at a rate of 10 breaths/min. C) Ventilate at a rate of 15 breaths/min and look for visible chest rise. D) Deliver each breath over 1 second at a rate of 12 breaths/min. - ANSD Which of the following is the MOST practical method of standard precautions when treating multiple patients during a mass-casualty incident? A) Thoroughly washing your hands in between patient contacts B) Changing your gloves in between contact with different patients C) Placing clean gloves over soiled gloves in between patient contacts D) Asking each patient you treat if he or she has a communicable disease - ANSB Which of the following occurs during positive-pressure ventilation? A) The esophagus remains closed. B) Intrathoracic pressure increases. C) Blood is drawn back to the heart. D) Oxygen is pulled into the lungs. - ANSB Which of the following patients has signs of inadequate breathing? A) 41-year-old woman with shallow respirations of 14 breaths/min B) A 60-year-old man with clear and equal breath sounds bilaterally C) A 30-year-old man with respirations of 12 breaths/min with adequate depth D) A 50-year-old woman with respirations of 12 breaths/min and pink, dry skin - ANSA Which of the following patients has the highest priority at the scene of a mass-casualty incident? A) 29-year-old man who is pulseless and apneic with an abdominal evisceration B) 35-year-old unresponsive woman with snoring respirations and severe burns C) 38-year-old woman who remains apneic after you manually open her airway D) 44-year-old unresponsive man with an open head injury and agonal gasps - ANSB Which of the following patients is the BEST candidate for an oropharyngeal airway? A) Any patient whom you suspect of being acutely hypoxemic B) A semiconscious patient who ingested a large quantity of aspirin C) An unresponsive patient with uncontrolled oropharyngeal bleeding D) An unresponsive trauma patient with blood draining from the nose - ANSD Which of the following patients is the BEST candidate for the administration of nitroglycerin? A) woman who has taken three doses of prescribed nitroglycerin without relief of chest pain B) A woman with chest pain, prescribed nitroglycerin, and a blood pressure of 104/76 mm Hg C) A man with chest pain, expired nitroglycerin spray, and a blood pressure of 110/80 mm Hg D) An elderly man with crushing substernal chest pain and a blood pressure of 80/60 mm Hg - ANSB Which of the following patients obviously needs positive-pressure ventilation assistance? A) Combative; respiratory rate of 24 breaths/min and deep B) Semiconscious; respiratory rate of 14 breaths/min and good chest rise C) Restless; respiratory rate of 12 breaths/min with adequate tidal volume D) Responsive to pain only; respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min and shallow - ANSD C) Screaming and yelling coming from inside a residence D) The sound of breaking glass as you approach a residence - ANSA Which of the following signs or symptoms is MOST indicative of cerebral hypoxia? A) Chief complaint of dyspnea B) Diffuse wheezing on exhalation C) Decreased level of consciousness D) Heart rate greater than 120 beats/min - ANSC Which of the following situations is an example of abandonment? A) An EMT gives a verbal report to an emergency nurse. B) An EMT departs the scene after a paramedic arrives. C) An EMT transfers care of a patient to a paramedic. D) A paramedic transfers care to an advanced EMT. - ANSD Which of the following situations presents the greatest risk for suicide? A) woman who quit her job for one that pays a lot more B) A man who was recently diagnosed with stage 4 lung cancer C) A woman who is planning a family trip, but gets called away to work D) An EMT who saved a drowning child and receives no media attention - ANSB Which of the following situations would necessitate treatment using implied consent? A) 17-year-old pregnant woman with an isolated extremity injury B) An 18-year-old man who is now fully alert after receiving oral glucose C) A 25-year-old man who is restless and has severe chest pain and diaphoresis D) A 65-year-old man who is confused and suspected of having a severe stroke - ANSD Which of the following statements BEST describes a mass-casualty incident? A) More than five patients are involved. B) At least half of the patients are critically injured. C) The number of patients overwhelms your resources. D) More than three vehicles are involved in the incident. - ANSC Which of the following statements regarding artificial ventilation of an apneic patient who has dentures is correct? A) Because of the risk of airway obstruction, the EMT should routinely remove a patient's dentures. B) If a patient's dentures are loose, the EMT should use the jaw-thrust maneuver to keep the airway open. C) The EMT should not attempt to remove a patient's dentures because this may cause an airway obstruction. D) Tight-fitting dentures should be left in place because they facilitate the delivery of adequate tidal volume. - ANSD Which of the following statements regarding artificial ventilation of an apneic patient who has dentures is correct? A) Because of the risk of airway obstruction, the EMT should routinely remove a patient's dentures. B) If a patient's dentures are loose, the EMT should use the jaw-thrust maneuver to keep the airway open. C) The EMT should not attempt to remove a patient's dentures because this may cause an airway obstruction. D) Tight-fitting dentures should be left in place because they facilitate the delivery of adequate tidal volume. - ANSD Which of the following statements regarding one-rescuer CPR is correct? A) You should assess the patient for a pulse after 3 cycles of CPR. B) A compression to ventilation ratio of 15:2 should be delivered. C) Ventilations should be delivered over a period of 2 to 3 seconds. D) The chest should be allowed to fully recoil after each compression. - ANSD Which of the following statements regarding sudden cardiac arrest and ventricular fibrillation is correct? A) For each minute that defibrillation is delayed, the chance of survival decreases by as much as 10%. B) High-quality CPR often reverses ventricular fibrillation if it is initiated within 2 minutes of the onset. C) Most patients develop ventricular fibrillation within 10 minutes after the onset of sudden cardiac arrest. D) Patients with ventricular fibrillation are typically unconscious, are apneic, and have a weak and irregular pulse. - ANSA Which of the following statements regarding the automated external defibrillator (AED) is correct? A) The AED should be applied to patients at risk for cardiac arrest. B) AEDs will analyze the patient's rhythm while CPR is in progress. C) The AED should not be used in patients with an implanted defibrillator. D) AEDs can safely be used in infants and children less than 8 years of age. - ANSD Which of the following statements regarding the head tilt-chin lift maneuver is correct? A) It can be used only in conjunction with an oropharyngeal airway. B) It should be used in conjunction with an appropriate airway adjunct. C) It should be used on all unresponsive patients whom you encounter. D) It is the technique of choice for patients with potential spinal injury. - ANSB D) Request ALS support for any patient who has chest pain - ANSB Which of the following would clearly be detrimental to a patient in cardiac arrest? A) Ventilating just until the chest rises B) Performing CPR before defibrillation C) Interrupting CPR for more than 10 seconds D) Ventilating without supplemental oxygen - ANSC Which of the following would MOST likely cause a reduction in tidal volume? A) Flaring of the nostrils B) Accessory muscle use C) Unequal chest expansion D) Increased minute volume - ANSC Which of the following would MOST likely occur if an adult patient is breathing at a rate of 45 breaths/min with shallow depth? A) The volume of air that reaches the alveoli would increase significantly. B) Minute alveolar volume would increase due to the rapid respiratory rate. C) Most of his or her inhaled air will not go beyond the anatomic dead space. D) The lungs would become hyperinflated, potentially causing a pneumothorax. - ANSC Which of the following yields the lowest minute volume? A) Respiratory rate of 14 breaths/min; tidal volume of 300 mL B) Respiratory rate of 12 breaths/min; tidal volume of 500 mL C) Respiratory rate of 16 breaths/min; tidal volume of 400 mL D) Respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min; tidal volume of 500 mL - ANSA While assessing a patient with chest pain, you note that his pulse is irregular. This indicates: A) acute myocardial infarction or angina pectoris. B) a dysfunction in the left side of the patient's heart C) high blood pressure that is increasing cardiac workload. D) abnormalities in the heart's electrical conduction system. - ANSD While caring for a trauma patient, blood splashes into an EMT's eyes. This is an example of: A) exposure. B) infection. C) transmission. D) indirect contact. - ANSA While caring for an injured patient, you remove blood-soaked clothing to treat his injuries. You should dispose of the clothing by: A) leaving it at the scene. B) leaving it at the hospital. C) placing it in a biohazard bag. D) placing it in a regular trashcan. - ANSC While en route back to your station from the emergency department, you discover that you forgot to include vital patient information on the front of your patient care report (PCR). Having left a copy of your PCR with the emergency department staff, you should: A) document the information on the front of your original PCR. B) do nothing, since you already left a copy of the PCR at the hospital. C) include the information on an addendum and furnish it to the hospital. D) notify the emergency department staff and advise them of your error. - ANSC While en route to the scene of an injured person, dispatch advises you that law enforcement personnel are at the scene. This indicates that: A) a crime has been committed. B) the scene is potentially unsafe. C) the patient is critically injured. D) the scene is safe for you to enter. - ANSB While functioning at a large-scale terrorist incident, it is important for the EMT to: A) use triage and base patient care on available resources. B) identify the person or persons responsible for the event. C) begin immediate treatment of the most critically injured patients. D) avoid placing any casualty in a "delayed" treatment status. - ANSA While managing a patient with acute shortness of breath, you attempt to apply a nonrebreathing mask set at 12 L/min. The patient pulls the mask away from his face, stating that it is smothering him. You should: A) increase the oxygen flow and reapply the mask. B) securely tape the oxygen mask to the patient's face. C) reassure the patient and apply a nasal cannula instead. D) inform the patient that refusing oxygen may result in his death. - ANSC While providing initial ventilations to an apneic adult with a bag-valve-mask device, you note minimal rise of the chest despite an adequate mask-to-face seal. You should: D) ensure that the strongest EMT is positioned at the head of the backboard. - ANSD You are administering oxygen at 15 L/min to a patient with respiratory distress. If you are using a D cylinder (cylinder constant, 0.16), which reads 1500 psi, how long will it take before you need to replace the oxygen cylinder? A) 9 minutes B) 11 minutes C) 14 minutes D) 18 minutes - ANSc You are assessing a 66-year-old man who has emphysema and complains of worsened shortness of breath. He is confused, has a heart rate of 120 beats/min, and has an oxygen saturation of 83%. Which of the following assessment findings should concern you the MOST? A) Confusion B) Tachycardia C) Low oxygen saturation D) Worsened shortness of breath - ANSA You are assessing a 70-year-old male who complains of pain in both of his legs. He is conscious and alert, has a blood pressure of 160/90 mm Hg, a pulse rate of 110 beats/min, and respirations of 14 breaths/min and unlabored. Further assessment reveals edema to both of his feet and legs and jugular venous distention. This patient's primary problem is MOST likely: A) left heart failure. B) right heart failure. C) pulmonary edema. D) chronic hypertension. - ANSB You are assessing a middle-aged male who is experiencing respiratory distress. The patient has a history of emphysema and hypertension. He appears fatigued; has weak retractions; and demonstrates labored, shallow breathing. Your MOST immediate action should be to: A) administer oxygen with a nonrebreathing mask. B) auscultate his breath sounds to detect wheezing. C) ventilate him with a bag-valve-mask device. D) assess his oxygen saturation with a pulse oximeter. - ANSC You are assessing an elderly man with respiratory distress. He is coughing up bloody sputum and has an oxygen saturation of 85%. You auscultate his breath sounds and hear coarse crackles in all lung fields. This patient MOST likely has: A) congestive heart failure. B) acute-onset emphysema. C) decompensated asthma. D) severe bacterial pneumonia. - ANSA You are called to a local state park where a hiker fell from a cliff into a thick, wooded area with rough terrain. It is cold and foggy, and a thunderstorm is approaching. You will MOST likely move the patient to the ambulance by: A) placing the patient in a basket stretcher and using at least four people to carry him to the ambulance. B) bringing the ambulance stretcher to the patient, loading him onto it, and removing him from the wooded area. C) assisting the patient in walking from the wooded area to the ambulance if his injuries are not life threatening. D) requesting a helicopter to hoist the patient out of the wooded area and carry him to a site near the ambulance. - ANSA You are called to a residence for a woman in cardiac arrest. Shortly after you start CPR, the patient's husband presents you with an unsigned document that states "do not attempt resuscitation." You should: A) stop all resuscitative efforts in accordance with the document. B) stop CPR until the document can be validated by a physician. C) continue CPR until you have contacted medical control for guidance. D) contact medical control prior to continuing any resuscitative efforts. - ANSC You are called to transport a patient with terminal lung cancer from a skilled nursing facility to the emergency department for evaluation of possible pneumonia. As you are reviewing the transfer paperwork, you see that the patient has a valid "do not attempt resuscitation" order. During transport, you should: A) perform CPR for only 2 minutes if the patient develops cardiac arrest. B) disregard the DNAR order because it is only valid in the hospital setting. C) provide supportive care, such as oxygen, and keep the patient comfortable. D) monitor the patient because a DNAR order prohibits you from providing care. - ANSC You are called to treat a 55-year-old man who is experiencing difficulty breathing. After making contact with your patient, he extends his arm out to allow you to take his blood pressure. This is an example of: A) actual consent. B) informed consent. C) implied consent. D) formal consent. - ANSA You are caring for a 6-year-old child with a swollen, painful deformity to the left forearm. As you communicate with the parents of this child, you should: A) ask them repeatedly how the child was injured. B) use appropriate medical terminology at all times. C) make sure that they remain aware of what you are doing. You are ventilating an apneic adult with a bag-valve-mask device and high-flow oxygen. Her pulse rate is 130 beats/min and she has cyanosis to her face and chest. The MOST reliable indicator of adequately performed ventilations in this patient is: A) slight dissipation of her cyanosis. B) noted abdominal rise with each ventilation. C) decreased compliance with each ventilation. D) a decrease in her heart rate to 90 beats/min. - ANSD You arrive at the scene of a 56-year-old man who collapsed. The patient's wife tells you that he suddenly grabbed his chest and then passed out. Your assessment reveals that he is apneic and pulseless. As your partner begins one-rescuer CPR, you should: A) notify medical control. B) insert an airway adjunct. C) prepare the AED for use. D) obtain a SAMPLE history. - ANSC You arrive at the scene of a traffic accident in which multiple vehicles are involved. You see at least two patients who are lying on the road and are not moving. You should: A) begin triaging the patients. B) begin immediate patient care. C) notify medical control for advice. D) request additional ambulances. - ANSD You arrive at the scene of a young male who was stabbed when a burglar broke into his house. Law enforcement officers are present. The patient, who is unresponsive with several stab wounds to the chest, is lying in a narrow space between a couch and coffee table. You should: A) treat the patient where he is, without moving the coffee table. B) move the coffee table, begin patient care, and notify a police officer. C) obtain permission from law enforcement before moving any furniture. D) move the coffee table, document what you did, and begin treatment. - ANSB You arrive at the scene of an 80-year-old woman who is weak and lightheaded. Her son, who called 911, is present and asks you to transport his mother to the hospital. You should: A) advise the son that he can probably drive his mother to the hospital. B) comply with the son's request and transport the woman to the hospital. C) take the woman's vital signs and apply supplemental oxygen if necessary. D) assess the woman and determine if she wishes to be treated and transported. - ANSD You arrive at the scene shortly after a 55-year-old man collapsed. Two bystanders are performing CPR. Your FIRST action should be to: A) attach the AED and analyze his cardiac rhythm. B) check the effectiveness of the CPR in progress. C) insert an oropharyngeal airway and continue CPR. D) stop CPR so you can assess breathing and pulse. - ANSD You arrive at the scene where a man fell approximately 40 feet and landed on his head. He is unresponsive, has agonal gasps, and has a weak carotid pulse. Further assessment reveals an open head injury with exposed brain matter. Upon identifying this patient as an organ donor, you should: A) request authorization from medical control not to initiate care. B) manage the patient aggressively and provide rapid transport. C) recognize that the patient's injuries disqualify him as an organ donor. D) provide rapid transport only because the patient likely will not survive. - ANSB You assess an unresponsive 65-year-old man and find that he is apneic and pulseless. The patient's wife tells you that he has an automatic implanted cardioverter/defibrillator. After initiating CPR, you should: A) deactivate the implanted defibrillator by running a magnet over it. B) apply the AED as soon as possible and analyze his cardiac rhythm. C) ask the wife why and when he had the automatic defibrillator implanted. D) avoid using the AED because the implanted defibrillator is more effective. - ANSB You have analyzed a cardiac arrest patient's rhythm three times with the AED, separated by 2-minute cycles of CPR, and have received no shock messages each time. You should: A) consider terminating resuscitation. B) remove the AED and continue CPR. C) continue CPR and transport at once. D) request a paramedic unit at the scene. - ANSC You receive a call at 3:00 a.m. for a patient who is slumped over the steering wheel of his car, which is parked on the shoulder of the road. Your unit and a police officer arrive at the scene at the same time. You should: A) stay in your unit until the police officer checks the patient. B) park the ambulance 25 feet in front of the patient's vehicle. C) shine a spotlight in the side view mirror of the patient's vehicle. D) approach the vehicle from the front to ensure maximum visibility. - ANSA You receive a call for a 49-year-old woman who passed out. The patient's husband tells you that they were watching TV when the incident occurred. No trauma was involved. The patient is semiconscious and has cyanosis to her lips. After opening her airway with the head tilt-chin lift maneuver, you should: A) assess her respiratory effort. B) begin ventilation assistance.