Download EMT FISDAP READINESS EXAM 2 Questions and Answers (2024/2025) (Verified Answers Rated (A+) and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! EMT FISDAP READINESS EXAM 2 Questions and Answers (2024/2025) (Verified Answers Rated (A+). The collective set of regulations and ethical considerations governing the EMT is called: a. duty to act b. scope of practice c. advanced directives d. good samaritan laws - โ
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B Legislation that governs the skills and medical interventions that may be performed by the EMT is: a. standardized (uniform) throughout the country b. different from state to state c. standardized for regions within a state d. governed by the US Department of Transportation - โ
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B When the EMT makes the physical/emotional needs of the patient a priority, this is considered a(n)_______ of the EMT. a. advanced directive b. protocol c. ethical responsibility d. legal responsibility - โ
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C Which one of the following is NOT a type of consent required for any treatment or action by an EMT? a. child and mentally incompetent adult b. implied c. applied d. expressed - โ
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C When you informed the adult patient of the procedures were about to perform and its associated risks, you are asking for his or her: a. expressed consent b. negligence c. implied d. applied - โ
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A You are treating a patient that was found unconscious at the bottom of the stairwell. Consent that is based on the assumption that an unconscious patient would approve the EMT's life- saving interventions is called: a. expressed b. negligence c. implied d. applied - โ
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C Your record of a patient's refusal of medical care (aid) or transport should include all of the following EXCEPT: a. informing the patient of the risks and consequences of refusal b. documenting the steps you took c. signing of the form by the medical director d. obtaining a release form with the patient's witnessed signature - โ
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C Forcing a competent adult patient to go to the hospital agains his or her will may result in _______ charges against the EMT. a. abandonment b. assault and battery c. implied consent The EMT can release confidential patient information in all of the following circumstances EXCEPT to: a. inform other health care professionals who need to know information to continue care b. report incidents required by state law, such as rape or abuse c. comply with the legal subpoena d. protect the other victims of a motor vehicle collision - โ
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D A medical identification device that indicates serious patient medical conditions, allergies, and/or medications they are currently prescribed comes in the form of each of the following except: a. bracelets b. necklaces c. cards d. patches - โ
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D You responded to a high-speed collision involving a motorcycle and automobile. The 22-year- old male cyclist has a severe head injury and is not likely to live through the evening. When treating this critical patient, who happens to have an organ donor card, the EMT should: a. transport without delay and document a DNR b. treat the patient with the same care as any other patient and inform the ED physician c. withhold oxygen therapy from the patient to keep the organ hypoxic d. all of the above - โ
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B You are at the scene of a home invasion where the homeowner was shot to death by the perpetrators. At this crime scene, you should: a. avoid disturbing any evidence at the scene unless emergency care requires it b. immediately remove the patient from the scene c. move all obstacles from around the patient to make more room to work d. search the house for clues to find the cause of the crime - โ
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A Commonly required reporting situations include all the following EXCEPT: a. child and elder abuse b. crimes in public places c. sexual assault d. domestic abuse - โ
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B The extent of limits of the EMT's job is called the: a. ethical dilemma b. national curriculum c. scope of practice d. regional protocol - โ
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C You were called to the scene of an incident where a 21-year-old male was knocked unconscious in a bar fight. Upon arrival, the patient is awake and has a broken nose but no life threats. He admits to drinking six beers in the last hour. He wants to refuse medical attention. Why should you discourage a refusal? a. he is not legally old enough to consent b. he may not be mentally competent at this time c. he is unable to actually sign the release d. the patient may die from a broken nose - โ
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B The federal law designed to protect the patient's private medical information is the: a. NHTSA b. ANSI c. HIPPA d. OSHA - โ
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C. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act You are on the scene of a call where a patient barricaded himself and his wife in their home and is threatening to do harm. The police have been at the scene for hours and, after the wife escaped, they rushed in. It is now your responsibility to transport this now-restrained patient to the local ED. What should be your highest priority? a. monitoring the patient's mental status and vital signs b. making sure your documentation shows you did not apply the handcuffs c. restraining the patient so he is not able to move d. explaining to the patient that he no longer has any rights to refuse care - โ
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A Abandonment - โ
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leaving a patient after care has been initiated and before the patient has been transferred to someone with equal or greater medical training Advanced directive - โ
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a DNR order Confidentiality - โ
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the obligation not to reveal information obtained about a patient except to other healthcare professionals involved in the patient's care, or under subpoena, or in a court of law, or when the patient has signed a release Consent - โ
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permission form the patient for care or other action by the EMT Crime scene - โ
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the location where a crime has been committed or any place the evidence relating to a crime may be found DNR order - โ
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legal documentation, usually signed by the patient and his or her physician, that states the patient does not wish to prolong life through resuscitative efforts Duty to act - โ
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an obligation to provide care to a patient Expressed consent - โ
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consent given by adults who are of legal age and mentally competent to make a rational decision in regard to the medical well-being c. 100 d. 200 - โ
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B When a collision vehicle is on fire, consider the danger zone to extend at least______ feet in all directions. a. 25 b. 50 c. 100 d. 200 - โ
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C It is essential that the EMT do a good scene size up. Your scene size up should identify: a. the potential for a violent situation b. the name and amount of toxic substances c. the number of patients and their diagnoses d. all of the above - โ
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A The EMT's Standard Precautions equipment during the scene size up may include all the following except: a. eye protection b. disposable gloves c. face mask or eye shield d. nonrebreather mask - โ
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D Standard Precautions should be taken with all patients. The key element of the Standard Precautions is to: a. always wear all protective clothing b. always have personal protective equipment readily available c. place equipment on the patient as well as the rescuer d. determine which body fluids are a danger to the EMT - โ
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B Certain injuries are common to particular situations. Injuries to bones and joints are usually associated with: a. fights and drug usage b. falls and vehicle collisions c. fires and explosions d. bullet wounds - โ
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B Knowing the mechanism of injury assists the EMT in: a. immobilizing the patient's spine b. determining which Standard Precautions to use c. Predicting various injury patterns d. All of the above - โ
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C The physical forces and energy that impinge on the patient are influenced by the laws of physics. One of those laws, the law of inertia, states that: a. the faster you enter a turn, the more your vehicle will be pulled straight b. the slower the speed, the greater the energy loss c. a body in motion will remain in motion unless acted upon by an outside force d. the mass or weight of an object is the most important contributor to an injury - โ
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C You are treating a patient who was involved in a head on collision. She was the unrestrained driver who took the "up and over" pathway. To which part of her body would she have most likely sustained injuries? a. skull b. fibula c. knees d. femur - โ
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A Which of the following is LEAST likely to be considered a MOI for a patient who was involved in a head-on collision in which they were unrestrained and took the "up and over" pathway? a. steering wheel b. windshield c. Brake pedal d. dashboard - โ
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C You are on the scene of a car crash. Your patient has stable vital signs and is complaint of knee, leg, and hip pain. He also states that he was in the front seat of the car and did not have his seatbelt on. What type of collision did he most likely experience? a. head- on, up and over b. rear end c. head-on, down and under d. rotational impact - โ
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C Which type of collision is most serious when the occupant is not restrained because it has the potential for multiple impacts? a. side impact b. rear end impact c. head-on, up and over d. roll-over - โ
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D You are walking around a vehicle that was involved in a collision. All of the following are examples of MOI except a: a. patient who fell 3 times her height b. spiderweb crack in the windshield c. broken steering column in a collision A significant danger faced by the EMT is violence. On arriving at the scene of a private home, you hear screaming from inside; there are beer cans piled up on the front porch; and, as you knock on the door, it suddenly gets very quiet inside. What should you do next? a. enter the residence and search for weapons b. contact the dispatcher to inquire if they have ever had violence at this location c. retreat to a safe area and ask the police to secure the scene d. yell into the house that you are EMS and not the police - โ
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C You arrived on the scene of a large fire. If the personnel at the scene are using the incident command/ management system, you should: a. follow the instructions of the person in charge b. drive past the scene and park off the road c. transport the first patient you come across d. tag all the patients - โ
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A Scene size up - โ
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steps taken by ambulance crew when approaching the scene of an emergency call Danger zone - โ
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the area around a wreckage of a vehicle collision or other incident within which special safety precautions should be taken MOI - โ
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a force or forces that may have caused injury penetrating trauma - โ
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injury caused by an object that passes through the skin or other body tissues blunt force trauma - โ
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injury caused by a blow that does not penetrate the skin or other body tissues index of suspicion - โ
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awareness that there may be injuries nature of illness - โ
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What is medically wrong with the patient. Which of the following steps is not part of the primary assessment of a responsive patient with a medical problem? a. assess the patient's mental status b. assess the adequacy of breathing c. determine the patient's priority d. obtain the patient's blood pressure - โ
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D The general impression is an evaluation of all the following except: a. the patient's chief complaint b. appearance c. the environment d. past medical history - โ
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D You are assessing a patient and making observations about the scene. Finding drug-use paraphernalia at the scene of an emergency is an example of: a. an indication of the patient's chief complaint b. an environmental part of the general impression c. an assessment of the scene safety d. a medical history of drug addiction - โ
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B When the patient tells you, in his own words, why he requested that an ambulance be called, this is referred to as the: a. general impression b. chief complaint c. primary assessment d. secondary assessment - โ
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B During the general impression, the EMT should: a. look b. listen c. smell d. do all of these - โ
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D You are assessing a patient who fell off his bike and landed on his right shoulder. First you determine his mental status using AVPU. What does the "A" stand for? a. action b. airway c. assess d. alert - โ
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D You have determined that your patient is a V as far as mental status goes. What does the "V" stand for? a. violent b. very painful c. verbal d. venous - โ
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C You are concerned because your patient may have a depressed mental status. What does the "P" stand for in AVPU? a. priority b. painful c. position a. complete the assessment, then go back and treat b. treat immediately c. determine the patient's priority, then treat d. package the patient for transport - โ
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B High priority conditions include: a. poor general impression b. unresponsiveness c. shock d. all of the above - โ
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D All of the following would be considered high priority conditions except: a. difficulty breathing b. responsive but not following commands c. an uncomplicated childbirth d. chest pain with systolic blood pressure less than 100 - โ
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C During the primary assessment of an alert adult medical patient with a chief complaint of chest pain, you note that the breathing rate is 28 and the patient's lips are bluish. You should consider: a. oxygen by nasal cannula b. providing bag valve mask ventilations c. administering oxygen by nonrebreather mask d. use paper bag to slow down the rate - โ
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C In the adult trauma patient, why is the capillary refill no longer used to assess the circulation? a. It is not a good indicator of perfusion b. only children have capillary refill c. it is still an important step d. because EMTs have difficulty remembering to use it - โ
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A The steps of the primary assessment: a. are designed to be followed in order but can be patient dependent b. depend on the baseline vital signs c. must be followed in order d. depend on the age and sex of the patient - โ
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A When doing an assessment on a patient who is apparently lifeless, the approach is adapted to include: a. the pulse check for at least 20 seconds b. the C-A-B approach per AHA guidelines c. the routine A-B-C approach per AHA guidelines d. non of these are appropriate - โ
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B ABCs - โ
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airway, breathing, and circulation AVPU - โ
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memory aid for classifying a patient's mental status chief complaint - โ
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the reason the EMS was called, usually in the patient's own words general impression - โ
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impression of the patient's condition that is formed on first approaching the patient, based on the patient's environment, chief complaint, and appearance Mental status - โ
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level of responsiveness primary assessment - โ
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first element in assessment of a patient; steps taken for the purpose of discovering and dealing with any life threatening problems priority - โ
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The decision regarding the need for immediate transport of the patient versus further assessment and care at the scene Updated guidelines on administering oxygen, as explained in your textbook, would require which of these conditions to provide oxygen by NRB or BVM? a. hypoxia b. respiratory distress c. threat to airway d. all of the above conditions - โ
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D The study of drugs, their sources, and their effects is called: a. anatomy b. physiology c. medicinology d. pharmacology - โ
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D Medications that are routinely carried on the EMT-level EMS unit are: a. aspirin, oral glucose, and oxygen b. oxygen and nitroglycerin c. epinephrine and prescribed inhalers d. all of the above - โ
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A Aspirin is administered by the EMT in the field to: a. treat headaches b. dilate the coronary arteries d. original - โ
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B The patient tells you that he is not supposed to take a specific medication when his blood pressure is low or he feels dizzy. A circumstance in which a drug should not be used because it may cause harm to the patient or offer no effect in improving the patient's condition or illness is called a(n): a. indication b. side effect c. adverse reaction d. contraindication - โ
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D You are administering a medication for a specific purpose according to your treatment protocols. An action of a drug that is other than the desired action is called a(n): a. side effect b. overdose c. contraindication d. systemic effect - โ
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A Part of the treatment of a seriously ill patient will involve administration of a drug. Prior to administering the medication, you must know all the following except: a. the route of administration b. proper dosage c. action the medication will take d. both the generic and chemical names - โ
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D You are treating a patient who is under a doctor's care for chronic pain and is taking medication for his condition. Drugs prescribed for pain relief are called: a. antidysrhythmics b. analgesics c. anticonvulsants d. antihypertensives - โ
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B When inquiring about the history of a suspected cardiac patient, the patient reveals that he is also taking medication to control his hypertension. Drugs prescribed to reduce high blood pressure are called: a. antidysrhythmics b. analgesics c. anticonvulsants d. antihypertensives - โ
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D Your patient tells you that she is taking a medication to control her irregular heartbeat. Which class of drugs would she be prescribed? a. anti diabetics b. bronchodilators c. antiarrhythmics d. anticonvulsants - โ
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C Upon interviewing an asthmatic patient, you find that she is taking a medication for her disease. Drugs prescribed to relax the smooth muscles of the bronchial tubes are called: a. bronchospasm b. bronchodilators c. anticonvulsants d. bronchoconstrictors - โ
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B When a patient is administered tiny aerosol particles to treat a disease, such as asthma, this is considered the _____ route of administration. a. intravenous b. sublingual c. inhaled d. oral e. subnormal - โ
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C activated charcoal - โ
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powder, usually premixed with water, that will absorb some poisons and help them from being absorbed by the body aspirin - โ
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medication used to reduce the clotting ability of blood to prevent and treat clots associated with myocardial infarction Contraindication - โ
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signs or circumstances under which it is not appropriate and may be harmful to administer a drug to a patient epinephrine - โ
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A drug that helps to constrict the blood vessels and relax passages of the airway; it may be used to counter a severe allergic reaction Indications - โ
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Specific signs or circumstances under which it is appropriate to administer a drug to a patient Inhaler - โ
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A spray device with a mouthpiece that contains an aerosol form of the medication that a patient can spray directly into his airway Nitroglycerin - โ
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A drug that helps to dilate the coronary vessels that supply the heart muscle with blood oral glucose - โ
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Medication given by mouth to treat an awake patient (who is able to swallow) with an altered mental status and a history of diabetes Oxygen - โ
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A gas commonly found in the atmosphere; it is used as a drug to treat any patient whose medical or traumatic condition may cause them to be hypoxic d. the patient may have sustained a tension pneumothorax - โ
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C A 55-year-old male continues to discuss his condition with you. His chief complaint is chest pain and when you ask, "Do you have nausea or have you been vomiting?" you are questioning him about his: a. signs and symptoms b. medication history c. allergies d. pertinent past history - โ
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A The alert 58-year-old male who is complaining of chest pain goes on to describe other recent hospitalizations and the medical condition his doctors are treating him for. This information is considered: a. unnecessary information b. pertinent past history c. the cause of today's event d. the reason the ambulance was called - โ
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B When you ask an elderly female patient "How have you been feeling today?" you are asking her about the a. pertinent past history b. signs and symptoms c. events leading to the illness d. last oral intake - โ
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C When interviewing a patient with a specific chief complaint and a known history, the EMT may need to: a. contact medical direction for additional interview questions b. ask additional questions pertinent to the complaint c. immediately administer medications d. all of the above - โ
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B You are treating a 62-year-old female who is complaining of difficulty breathing. This medical patient does not take any prescribed medications for her condition, so you should generally: a. look for a medical identification device b. consult with the patient's personal physician c. transport the patient to the hospital d. all of the above - โ
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C In terms of your initial approach to the focused history and physical exam of a middle-aged male patient, the biggest difference between a responsive and an unresponsive patient is that: a. the responsive patient gets the OPQRST questions last b. the unresponsive patient will be given a rapid physical exam first c. bystanders become more important if the patient is responsive d. a rapid trauma exam is not done on an unconscious patient - โ
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B You will be conducting a rapid physical exam on an unresponsive 54-year-old female medical patient. You should include all of the following steps except: a. look for JVD b. determine firmness or rigidity of the abdomen c. check for incontinence of urine or feces d. ask the SAMPLE history questions - โ
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D When assessing a 28-year-old female patient who has a medical complaint, be sure to check the extremities for: a. central cyanosis b. sensation and motor function c. edema and discoloration d. capillary refill in all adult patients - โ
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B When conducting a physical exam of an unconscious adult patient with a suspected medical problem, you remember there was a "Vial of Life" sticker on the front door of the residence. This is important because it may: a reveal the patient's name b. give clues to the patient's home address c. reveal that additional medical identification is in the refrigerator d. be the cause of the emergency - โ
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C In most regions, in addition to taking the pulse and respirations, the baseline vital signs of adult medical patients include: a. determining what they last ate b. assessing the CO2 in their blood c. determining their capillary refill d. the oxygen saturation - โ
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D When you are deciding which steps to follow in assessing your patient, what should you consider first and why? a. the past medical history of the patient because it predicts today's problems b. the primary assessment because that identifies the life threats c. the physical exam because subtle injuries are often severe d. the vital signs reveal all the serious medical conditions the patient may have - โ
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B chief complaint - โ
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the reason why the EMS was called, usually in the patient's own words medical patient - โ
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a patient with one or more medical diseases or conditions You are treating a pitcher who was hit in the face with a ball that was hit by the batter. You remember from your EMT training that any blow above the __________ may damage the cervical spine. a. clavicles b. diaphragm c. femur d. pelvis - โ
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A Experienced EMTs often refer to a soft cervical collar as: a. the device of choice for a neck injury b. a neck warmer c. the requirement for all auto collision patients d. the preferred extrication collar - โ
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B If a cervical collar is the wrong size, it may: a. cause additional injury to the spine b. make breathing more difficult to obstruct the airway c. prevent the patient from moving to her neck d. take too much time to adjust and apply correctly - โ
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B The need for cervical immobilization should be based on: a. the trauma patient's level of responsiveness b. the location of injuries to the patient c. the MOI d. all of the above - โ
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D When assessing and interviewing a patient, we ask about and look for signs and symptoms. What is a sign? a. a photograph of the patient's wrecked vehicle b. the patient's description of how the injury occurred c. an objective finding you can see, hear, or feel when examining the patient d. a subjective finding that the patient tells you about his current condition - โ
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C When considering the mechanism of injury (MOI), which of the following would not be considered a significant MOI in an adult? a. high-speed motorcycle crash b. vehicle-pedestrian collision c. a 10 foot fall d. rollover accident - โ
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C You are treating a patient who is in the front seat of an automobile involved in a collision. You observe a spiderweb crack in the windshield and facial lacerations on the patient. Most likely the patient: a. will have a life-threatening head injury b. did not wear a seatbelt c. will also complain of leg injuries d. was in a rollover collision - โ
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B The EMT should lift and look under the airbag after the patient has been removed from the vehicle in order to: a. obtain the serial number of the bag b. see if a hazardous chemical has been released c. not any visible damage to the steering wheel d. determine if it deployed properly - โ
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C When assessing the head of an adult male critical trauma patient, the EMT should inspect/palpate for ___________ in addition to wounds and deformities. a. hematoma b. scalp lacerations c. crepitation d. abrasions - โ
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C When assessing the neck of an adult female trauma patient, the EMT should inspect/palpate for ___________ in addition to wounds and deformities. a. JVD b. swelling c. lacerations d. burns - โ
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A The neck veins are usually not visible when the patient is: a. lying flat b. sitting up c. supine d. prone - โ
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B When assessing the chest of an adult female critical trauma patient, the EMT should inspect/palpate for ___________ in addition to crepitations and deformities. a. hematoma b. paradoxical motion c. hemothorax d. JVD - โ
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B When assessing the abdomen of an adult male critical trauma patient, the EMT should inspect/palpate for ___________ in addition to wounds and deformities. a. distention of the kidneys In addition to looking for deformities, you should look for all the following except _____________ when examining the mouth. a. possible airway obstructions b. loose or broken teeth c. tongue lacerations or swelling d. crepitation - โ
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D The detailed physical exam is not designed for the: a. trauma patient with a significant MOI b. trauma patient with an unclear MOI c. medical patient with very few signs and symptoms d. critical trauma patient who could have a medical cause in addition to being a trauma patient - โ
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C If you are treating a patient who could be either medical or trauma, it is always best to assess for: a. the medical problem first b. both problems at once c. the trauma problem first d. primary survey problems first - โ
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D Colostomy/ileostomy - โ
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surgical opening in the wall of the abdomen with a bag in place to collect excretions from the digestive system crepitation - โ
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grating sensation or sound or feeling of broken bones rubbing together DCAP-BTLS - โ
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memory aid to remember the symptoms of injury felt by inspection or palpation during patient assessment detailed physical exam - โ
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assessment of the head, neck, chest, abdomen, pelvis, extremities, and posterior of the body to detect signs and symptoms of injury distention - โ
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a condition of being stretched, inflated, or larger than normal focused history and physical exam - โ
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the step of patient assessment that follows the primary assessment jugular vein distention - โ
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bulging veins of the neck paradoxical motion - โ
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movement of part of the chest in the opposite direction of the rest of the chest during respiration priapism - โ
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persistent erection of the penis that can result from spinal cord injury and some medical problems Rapid trauma assessment - โ
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quick assessment of the head, neck, chest, abdomen, pelvis, extremities, and posterior of the body to detect signs of injury Stoma - โ
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permanent surgical opening in the neck through which the patient breaths tracheotomy - โ
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surgical incision in the neck held open by a metal or plastic tube trauma patient - โ
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patient suffering from one or more physical injuries The "P" in DCAP-BTLS refers to: a. punctures/penetrations b. palpation/pulse c. priapism/penetrations d. paradoxical motion/punctures - โ
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A The "S" in DCAP-BTLS refers to: a. soft tissue b. stable c. swelling d. sutures - โ
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C Your patient was thrown from his motorcycle when he stopped suddenly. His thighs are very painful and now forming a strange shape. When a body part is injured and it no longer has its normal shape, this is referred to as a: a. hematoma b. deformity c. fracture d. crepitation - โ
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B Your patient has been outdoors in the sun most of the day. He has reddened and blistered areas on his shoulders and neck called: a. abrasions b. burns c. lacerations d. contusions - โ
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B In the secondary assessment, you will be checking the patient from head to foot for pain and tenderness. The difference between pain and tenderness is: a. pain occurs only when you squeeze an injury site, whereas tender areas hurt most of the time without provocation b. pain is considered unbearable, whereas tenderness is usually bearable When a patient does not fit the classic pattern, such as a cardiac patient without crushing chest pain, the EMT has to be careful not to make a(n) _______________ error or bias. a. confirmation b. representativeness c. overconfidence d. availability - โ
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B An EMT recently had a patient with heat stroke. The next time he or she has a patient in a warm environment, the EMT is more likely to think of this as the diagnosis as opposed to more common problems, such as dehydration. This bias is referred to as: a. overconfidence b. illusory correlation c. confirmation d. availability - โ
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D The EMT should be skeptical about one condition being the actual cause of another condition a patient presents with. Drawing conclusions about the cause of a diagnosis can lead to a(n): a. anchoring adjustment b. illusory correlation c. search satisfying bias d. availability bias - โ
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B You are treating a patient who was found on the floor in the nursing home. It seems evident that he has a fractured hip as he lies on the floor in pain. If you stop the serach for a diagnosis as soon as you come up with the cause of today's proble, this can lead to: a. missing out on the secondary diagnosis b. overconfidence and misdiagnosis c. overestimating the frequency of the problem d. all of the above - โ
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A If you are an EMT who wants to think like a highly trained experienced physician in your assessment of patients, you should try to: a. learn to hate ambiguity b. utilize a single strategy in all cases c. understand the limitations of technology and people d. reflect on what others have learned - โ
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C The EMT who wants to think like a highly experienced physician tries to do each of the following techniques except: a. organize data in his or her head b. reflect on what he or she has learned c. realize that no one strategy works for everything d. try not to learn from others - โ
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D You are an EMT treating a patient who has developed a rash and uticaria on her chest and face. If you were to begin treating this patient as a victim of a severe allergic reaction rather than questioning her about previous development of a similar rash, you would be exhibiting an example of: a. an availability bias b. an illusionary correlation c. having overconfidence in your judgement d. an appropriate shortcut to take - โ
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B Critical thinking - โ
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an analytical process that can help someone think through a problem in an organized an efficient manner Diagnosis - โ
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a description or label for a patient's condition that assists a clinician in further evaluation and treatment EMS diagnosis/ EMT diagnosis - โ
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a description or label for a patient's condition that assists the EMT in further evaluation and treatment differential diagnosis - โ
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a list of potential diagnoses compiled early in the assessment of the patient red flag - โ
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a sign or symptom that suggests the possibility of a particular problem that is very serious