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EMT FISDAP READINESS EXAM 2-with 100% verified solutions-2024-2025 The collective set of regulations and ethical considerations governing the EMT is called: a. duty to act b. scope of practice c. advanced directives d. good samaritan laws B Legislation that governs the skills and medical interventions that may be performed by the EMT is: a. standardized (uniform) throughout the country b. different from state to state c. standardized for regions within a state d. governed by the US Department of Transportation B When the EMT makes the physical/emotional needs of the patient a priority, this is considered a(n)_______ of the EMT. a. advanced directive b. protocol c. ethical responsibility d. legal responsibility C Which one of the following is NOT a type of consent required for any treatment or action by an EMT? a. child and mentally incompetent adult b. implied c. applied d. expressed C When you informed the adult patient of the procedures were about to perform and its associated risks, you are asking for his or her: a. expressed consent b. negligence c. implied d. applied A You are treating a patient that was found unconscious at the bottom of the stairwell. Consent that is based on the assumption that an unconscious patient would approve the EMT's life-saving interventions is called: a. expressed b. negligence c. implied d. applied C Your record of a patient's refusal of medical care (aid) or transport should include all of the following EXCEPT: a. informing the patient of the risks and consequences of refusal b. documenting the steps you took c. signing of the form by the medical director d. obtaining a release form with the patient's witnessed signature C Forcing a competent adult patient to go to the hospital agains his or her will may result in _______ charges against the EMT. a. abandonment b. assault and battery c. implied consent d. negligence B Which of the following is an action you should not take if a patient refuses care? a. leave phone stickers with emergency numbers b. recommend that a relative call the family physician to report the incident c. tell the patient to call his or her family physician if the problem reoccurs d. call a relative or neighbor who can stay with the patient C. In all cases of refusal you should advise patients to call EMS back at any time if there is a problem or they wish to be transported. Another name for a DNR order is: a. deviated nervous response b. duty not to react c. refusal of treatment d. advanced directive D There are varying degrees of DNR orders, expressed through a variety of detailed instructions that may be part of the order such as: a. allowing CPR only if cardiac or respiratory arrest was observed b. allowing comfort-care measures such as intravenous feeding c. disallowing the use of long-term life-support measures d. specify that only five minutes of artificial respiration will be attempted A. The other options are part of a living will and not a DNR order. DNR orders generally do not specify procedures that are improper such as specifying that only five minutes of artificial respiration will be attempted. In a hospital, long-term life support and comfort care measures would consist of intravenous feeding and: a. routine inoculations b. the use of a respirator c. infection control by the healthcare providers d. hourly patient documentation B. Once a patient is considered terminal, routine inoculations will not be needed. Infection control by the healthcare providers is a given. Documentation needs to be the same as it would be had the patient not had an advance directive. If an EMT with a duty to act fails to provide the standard of care, and if this failure causes harm or injury to the patient, the EMT may be accused of: a. res ipsa loquitur b. negligence the location where a crime has been committed or any place the evidence relating to a crime may be found DNR order legal documentation, usually signed by the patient and his or her physician, that states the patient does not wish to prolong life through resuscitative efforts Duty to act an obligation to provide care to a patient Expressed consent consent given by adults who are of legal age and mentally competent to make a rational decision in regard to the medical well-being Good Samaritan Laws series of laws, varying in each state, designed to provide limited legal protection for citizens and some healthcare personnel who are administering emergency care HIPPA federal law protecting the privacy of patient specific healthcare information and providing the patient with control over how this information is used and distributed Implied consent consent that is presumed that a patient or patient's parent or guardian would give if they could, such as for an unconscious patient or a minor patient whose parent cannot be contacted when care is needed Liability being held legally responsible negligence a finding of failure to act properly in a situation in which there was a duty to act Scope of practice a set of regulations and ethical considerations that define the scope, or extent and limits, of the EMTs job. The scene size up is the first part of the patient assessment process. it begins as you approach the scene, firstly surveying it to determine: a. if there are any threats to your safety b. the number of injured c. personal safety of all those involved in the call d. the mechanism of injury A Which of the following is the most accurate statement about scene size up? a. it takes place as you are approaching the scene b. it is replaced by patient care once you arrive at the scene c. it occurs during the first part of the assessment process d. it continues throughout the call D If you arrive at a collision scene where there are police, fire vehicles, and other ambulances already present, you should: a. immediately begin patient care b. conduct your own scene size up c. ensure that no bystanders are injured d. all of the above B Which of the following is not an appropriate action when you near the scene of a traffic collision? a. look and listen for other EMS units as you near intersections b. look for signs of collision-related power outages c. observe traffic flow to anticipate blockage of the scene d. attempt to park your vehicle downhill from the scene D When you are in sight of the collision scene, you should watch for the signals of police officers and other emergency service personnel because: a. they may have information about hazards or the location of injured persons b. the first ones on the scene are considered to be in charge c. federal law requires you to follow the command of other responders d. they are considered the medical care experts on the scene A When there are no apparent hazards, consider the danger zone to extend at least ______ feet in all directions from the wreckage. a. 25 b. 50 c. 100 d. 200 B When a collision vehicle is on fire, consider the danger zone to extend at least______ feet in all directions. a. 25 b. 50 c. 100 d. 200 C It is essential that the EMT do a good scene size up. Your scene size up should identify: a. the potential for a violent situation b. the name and amount of toxic substances c. the number of patients and their diagnoses d. all of the above A The EMT's Standard Precautions equipment during the scene size up may include all the following except: a. eye protection b. disposable gloves c. face mask or eye shield d. nonrebreather mask D Standard Precautions should be taken with all patients. The key element of the Standard Precautions is to: a. always wear all protective clothing b. always have personal protective equipment readily available c. place equipment on the patient as well as the rescuer d. determine which body fluids are a danger to the EMT B Certain injuries are common to particular situations. Injuries to bones and joints are usually associated with: a. fights and drug usage b. falls and vehicle collisions c. fires and explosions d. bullet wounds B Knowing the mechanism of injury assists the EMT in: a. immobilizing the patient's spine b. determining which Standard Precautions to use c. Predicting various injury patterns d. All of the above C The physical forces and energy that impinge on the patient are influenced by the laws of physics. One of those laws, the law of inertia, states that: a. the faster you enter a turn, the more your vehicle will be pulled straight b. the slower the speed, the greater the energy loss c. a body in motion will remain in motion unless acted upon by an outside force d. the mass or weight of an object is the most important contributor to an injury C You are treating a patient who was involved in a head on collision. She was the unrestrained driver who took the "up and over" pathway. To which part of her body would she have most likely sustained injuries? a. skull b. fibula c. knees d. femur A Which of the following is LEAST likely to be considered a MOI for a patient who was involved in a head-on collision in which they were unrestrained and took the "up and over" pathway? a. steering wheel b. windshield c. Brake pedal d. dashboard C You are on the scene of a car crash. Your patient has stable vital signs and is complaint of knee, leg, and hip pain. He also states that he was in the front seat of the car and did not have his seatbelt on. What type of collision did he most likely experience? a. head- on, up and over b. rear end c. head-on, down and under d. rotational impact C Which type of collision is most serious when the occupant is not restrained because it has the potential for multiple impacts? a. side impact b. rear end impact c. head-on, up and over d. roll-over D You are walking around a vehicle that was involved in a collision. All of the following are examples of MOI except a: b. appearance c. the environment d. past medical history D You are assessing a patient and making observations about the scene. Finding drug- use paraphernalia at the scene of an emergency is an example of: a. an indication of the patient's chief complaint b. an environmental part of the general impression c. an assessment of the scene safety d. a medical history of drug addiction B When the patient tells you, in his own words, why he requested that an ambulance be called, this is referred to as the: a. general impression b. chief complaint c. primary assessment d. secondary assessment B During the general impression, the EMT should: a. look b. listen c. smell d. do all of these D You are assessing a patient who fell off his bike and landed on his right shoulder. First you determine his mental status using AVPU. What does the "A" stand for? a. action b. airway c. assess d. alert D You have determined that your patient is a V as far as mental status goes. What does the "V" stand for? a. violent b. very painful c. verbal d. venous C You are concerned because your patient may have a depressed mental status. What does the "P" stand for in AVPU? a. priority b. painful c. position d. patient B One major difference between the primary assessment of a responsive trauma patient and the primary assessment of an unresponsive trauma patient is: a. the assessment is done more quickly on the responsive patient b. the unresponsive patient is a higher priority for immediate transport c. there is no difference between the two assessments d. a jaw thrust maneuver should always be used on the responsive patient B You are assessing a patient who was involved in a serious motor vehicle collision. She is not alert and her breathing rate is slower than 8 per minutes. As the EMT in charge you should: a. give high concentration oxygen via a nonreabreather mask b. evaluate the patient's circulation and treat for shock c. suction the patient and perform rescue breathing d. provide positive pressure ventilations with 100% oxygen D During your primary assessment of a patient who is alert and has a breathing rate the is greater than 24 breaths per minutes, you should provide the patient with: a. positive pressure ventilations with 100% oxygen b. high concentration oxygen via nonrebreather mask c. low concentration oxygen via bag valve mask d. medium concentration oxygen via nasal B In primary assessment, the circulation assessment includes evaluating all the following except: a. pulse b. skin c. severity of bleeding d. blood pressure D If the patient's skin is warm, dry, and normal color, it indicates: a. sunburn b. heat exposure c. alcohol abuse d. good circulation D Your patient has no-life threatening external hemorrhage but has skin that is cool, pale, and moist. This could be an indication of: a. increased perfusion b. high blood pressure c. poor circulation d. cold exposure C To evaluate skin color in a dark-skinned patient, the EMT should also: a. evaluate the tissues of the lips and nail beds b. evaluate the tissues of the heels of the feet c. check the pupils of the eyes d. do all of the above A When assessing the circulation during the primary assessment, the EMT should check for and control severe bleeding. This is important to do because: a. open wounds can become infected b. it may lead to long-term complications c. a patient can bleed to death in minutes d. the blood pressure may drop over time C When a life threat is observed in the primary assessment, the EMT should: a. complete the assessment, then go back and treat b. treat immediately c. determine the patient's priority, then treat d. package the patient for transport B High priority conditions include: a. poor general impression b. unresponsiveness c. shock d. all of the above D All of the following would be considered high priority conditions except: a. difficulty breathing b. responsive but not following commands c. an uncomplicated childbirth d. chest pain with systolic blood pressure less than 100 C During the primary assessment of an alert adult medical patient with a chief complaint of chest pain, you note that the breathing rate is 28 and the patient's lips are bluish. You should consider: a. oxygen by nasal cannula b. providing bag valve mask ventilations c. administering oxygen by nonrebreather mask d. use paper bag to slow down the rate C In the adult trauma patient, why is the capillary refill no longer used to assess the circulation? a. It is not a good indicator of perfusion b. only children have capillary refill c. it is still an important step d. because EMTs have difficulty remembering to use it A The steps of the primary assessment: a. are designed to be followed in order but can be patient dependent b. depend on the baseline vital signs c. must be followed in order d. depend on the age and sex of the patient A When doing an assessment on a patient who is apparently lifeless, the approach is adapted to include: a. the pulse check for at least 20 seconds b. the C-A-B approach per AHA guidelines c. the routine A-B-C approach per AHA guidelines d. non of these are appropriate B ABCs airway, breathing, and circulation AVPU patient's condition or illness is called a(n): a. indication b. side effect c. adverse reaction d. contraindication D You are administering a medication for a specific purpose according to your treatment protocols. An action of a drug that is other than the desired action is called a(n): a. side effect b. overdose c. contraindication d. systemic effect A Part of the treatment of a seriously ill patient will involve administration of a drug. Prior to administering the medication, you must know all the following except: a. the route of administration b. proper dosage c. action the medication will take d. both the generic and chemical names D You are treating a patient who is under a doctor's care for chronic pain and is taking medication for his condition. Drugs prescribed for pain relief are called: a. antidysrhythmics b. analgesics c. anticonvulsants d. antihypertensives B When inquiring about the history of a suspected cardiac patient, the patient reveals that he is also taking medication to control his hypertension. Drugs prescribed to reduce high blood pressure are called: a. antidysrhythmics b. analgesics c. anticonvulsants d. antihypertensives D Your patient tells you that she is taking a medication to control her irregular heartbeat. Which class of drugs would she be prescribed? a. anti diabetics b. bronchodilators c. antiarrhythmics d. anticonvulsants C Upon interviewing an asthmatic patient, you find that she is taking a medication for her disease. Drugs prescribed to relax the smooth muscles of the bronchial tubes are called: a. bronchospasm b. bronchodilators c. anticonvulsants d. bronchoconstrictors B When a patient is administered tiny aerosol particles to treat a disease, such as asthma, this is considered the _____ route of administration. a. intravenous b. sublingual c. inhaled d. oral e. subnormal C activated charcoal powder, usually premixed with water, that will absorb some poisons and help them from being absorbed by the body aspirin medication used to reduce the clotting ability of blood to prevent and treat clots associated with myocardial infarction Contraindication signs or circumstances under which it is not appropriate and may be harmful to administer a drug to a patient epinephrine A drug that helps to constrict the blood vessels and relax passages of the airway; it may be used to counter a severe allergic reaction Indications Specific signs or circumstances under which it is appropriate to administer a drug to a patient Inhaler A spray device with a mouthpiece that contains an aerosol form of the medication that a patient can spray directly into his airway Nitroglycerin A drug that helps to dilate the coronary vessels that supply the heart muscle with blood oral glucose Medication given by mouth to treat an awake patient (who is able to swallow) with an altered mental status and a history of diabetes Oxygen A gas commonly found in the atmosphere; it is used as a drug to treat any patient whose medical or traumatic condition may cause them to be hypoxic Pharmacology The study of drugs, their sources, characteristics, and effects pharmacodynamics The study of the effects of medications on the body side effect Any action of a drug other than the desired action untoward effect An effect of the medication in addition to its desired effect that may be potentially harmful to the patient and is usually unexpected Under what circumstances might you administer a medication such as atropine to yourself and your partner? a. exposure to a gas leak at a factory b. exposure to nerve gas in a terrorist attack c. exposure to a patient with a communicable disease d. exposure to an extraterrestrial alien being B Which of the following effects does naloxone exert on the body? a. reverses respiratory failure caused by narcotics b. enhances respiratory distress in drug users c. causes rapid return to consciousness with no possibility of relapse to unconscious state d. it has no effect at all on someone who overdoses on heroin A Your patient is an alert 58-year-old male who is complaining of chest pain. The components of the secondary assessment for a responsive medical patient include all of the following except: a. history of present illness b. SAMPLE history c. baseline vital signs d. rapid trauma exam D Many memory aids are used during the assessment process. OPQRST is a memory aid to help the EMT remember the: a. Questions to ask about the past medical history b. Questions that expand on the history of the present illness c. Status of the patient's condition d. Levels of the patient's mental status B When you ask a 65-year-old woman with chest pain, "Can you think of anything that might have triggered or caused this pain?" You are questioning her about the __________ of her pain. a. onset b. provocation c. quality d radiation B When you ask a male patient with back pain, "How bad is the pain?" You are questioning him about: a. quality b. severity c. time d. radiation B Why is it important for the EMT to determine the T in OPQRST when questioning the 58-year-old male with a chief complaint of chest pain? a. the patient's temperature could be a contributing factor b. the patient may have fell and injured his tibia c. it is helpful to determine the time when the pain began d. the patient may have sustained a tension pneumothorax C A 55-year-old male continues to discuss his condition with you. His chief complaint is chest pain and when you ask, "Do you have nausea or have you been vomiting?" you are questioning him about his: