EMT FISDAP READINESS EXAM NEWEST 2024/2025 EMT FISDAP READINESS EXAM APPROVED QUESTIONS AN, Exams of Nursing

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EMT FISDAP READINESS EXAM NEWEST 2024/

EMT FISDAP READINESS EXAM APPROVED QUESTIONS

AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS (100% CORRECT

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A critical incident stress debriefing should be conducted no longer than ________ hours following the incident. - ANSWER: 72 Which of the following skills or interventions is included at every level of prehospital emergency training? - ANSWER: AED As an EMT, it is important to remember that the signs and symptoms of cumulative stress: - ANSWER: may not be present or obvious at all times The patient care report (PCR) ensures: - ANSWER: continuity of care Which of the following scenarios does NOT involve the administration of ALS? A. a 53-year-old patient who is given glucagon for significant hypoglycemia Incorrect B. a 64-year-old cardiac arrest patient who is defibrillated with an automated external defibrillator (AED) Correct C. a 48-year-old patient whose airway is secured with a multilumen device Incorrect D. a 61-year-old trauma patient whose chest is decompressed with a needle Incorrect - ANSWER: B. a 64-year-old cardiac arrest patient who is defibrillated with an automated external defibrillator (AED) A patient's refusal for EMS treatment and/or transport must be: - ANSWER: an informed refusal Which of the following MOST accurately defines negligence? - ANSWER: deviation from the standard of care that may result in further injury Which of the following scenarios MOST accurately depicts abandonment? - ANSWER: A paramedic transfers patient care to an EMT While assisting an advanced life support (ALS) ambulance crew, you are accidentally stuck with an IV needle. You should: - ANSWER: report the incident to your supervisor after the call A positive TB skin test indicates that: - ANSWER:. you have been exposed to the disease. Communicating with hearing-impaired patients can be facilitated by doing all of the following, EXCEPT: - ANSWER:. elevating the tone of your voice and exaggerating word pronunciation.

When relaying patient information via radio, communications should be: - ANSWER:. brief and easily understood. f an action or procedure that was performed on a patient is not recorded on the written report: - ANSWER: it was not performed in the eyes of the law. Maintaining the chain of evidence at the scene of a crime should include: - ANSWER: not cutting through holes in clothing that were caused by weapons When you begin an oral report, you should state the patient's age, sex, and: - ANSWER: chief complaint. The person who is responsible for authorizing EMTs to perform emergency medical care in the field is the: - ANSWER: medical director. Two-way communication that requires the EMT to "push to talk" and "release to listen" describes what mode of communication? - ANSWER:. simplex According to Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) regulations, an employer must: - ANSWER: offer a workplace environment that reduces the risk for exposure. which of the following errors is an example of a knowledge-based failure? An EMT gives the correct drug to a patient, although his protocols clearly state that he is not authorized to do so. B. Due to an improperly applied cervical collar, a patient's spinal injury is aggravated and he is permanently disabled. C. An EMT administers the wrong drug to a patient because she did not know the pertinent information about the drug. D. A patient is given nitroglycerin by an EMT who did not obtain proper authorization from medical control first. - ANSWER: An EMT administers the wrong drug to a patient because she did not know the pertinent information about the drug. Correct Which of the following statements regarding the Good Samaritan law is correct? It provides the EMT immunity from a lawsuit. B. The law does not protect EMTs who are off duty. C. It will not protect the EMT in cases of gross negligence. D. It guarantees that the EMT will not be held liable if he or she is sued. - ANSWER: it will not protect the EMT in cases of gross negligence. In which of the following situations does the EMT NOT have a legal duty to act? Choose one answer. A. a response to an injured patient while off duty B. a response to a motor vehicle crash while off duty C. Local policy requires you to assist in any emergency.

D. a response to the residence of a patient who fell - ANSWER: a response to a motor vehicle crash while off duty The official transfer of patient care does not occur until the EMT: - ANSWER: gives an oral report to the emergency room physician or nurse The spread of HIV and hepatitis in the health care setting can usually be traced to: - ANSWER: careless handling of sharps. When faced with a situation in which a patient is in cardiac arrest, and a valid living will or DNR order cannot be located, you should: - ANSWER: begin resuscitation at once. After delivering your patient to the hospital, you sit down to complete the PCR. When documenting the patient's last blood pressure reading, you inadvertently write 120/60 instead of 130/70. To correct this mistake, you should: - ANSWER: draw a single horizontal line through the error, initial it, and write the correct data next to it. What section of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) MOST affects EMS personnel? - ANSWER: protecting patient privacy Typical components of an oral patient report include all of the following, EXCEPT: important medical history not previously given. B. the set of baseline vital signs taken at the scene. C. the chief complaint or mechanism of injury. D. the patient's response to treatment you provided. - ANSWER: the set of baseline vital signs taken at the scene. Calming and reassuring an anxious patient can be facilitated by: A. maintaining eye contact with the patient whenever possible. B. using medical terminology to ensure the patient understands. C. positioning yourself at a level that is higher than the patient. D. withholding unpleasant information until arrival at the hospital. - ANSWER: maintaining eye contact with the patient whenever possible. General guidelines for effective radio communications include all of the following, EXCEPT: Choose one answer. A. acknowledging a transmission as soon as possible. B. holding the microphone about 2" to 3" from your mouth. C. using 10 codes to ensure radio traffic confidentiality. D. speaking in a clear, calm, monotone voice. - ANSWER: C. using 10 codes to ensure radio traffic confidentiality. Why are prehospital emergency care guidelines updated on a regular basis? Choose one answer.

A. Statistical data indicate that an increasing number of people are being diagnosed with a particular illness. B. The federal government requires that changes be made to existing emergency care protocols at least every 5 years. C. EMS providers should be encouraged to actively participate in research and become familiar with data analysis. D. Additional information and evidence indicate that the effectiveness of certain interventions has changed. - ANSWER: D. Additional information and evidence indicate that the effectiveness of certain interventions has changed. While trying to make a family member feel better after a loved one has died, your partner uses trite statements. The family members may view this as: Choose one answer. A. your partner's attempt to diminish their grief. B. a show of respect for the person who has died. C. your partner's caring and supportive attitude. D. coaching them through the grieving process. - ANSWER: A. your partner's attempt to diminish their grief. Which of the following scenarios MOST accurately depicts a posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) reaction? Choose one answer. A. An EMT is emotionally exhausted and depressed after a school bus crash involving critical injuries and the death of several children. B. An EMT with many years of field experience becomes irritable with her coworkers and experiences headaches and insomnia. C. An EMT becomes distracted at the scene of a motor vehicle crash involving the same type of car in which a child was previously killed. D. A newly certified EMT becomes extremely nauseated and diaphoretic at the scene of an incident involving grotesque injuries. - ANSWER: C. An EMT becomes distracted at the scene of a motor vehicle crash involving the same type of car in which a child was previously killed. Correct CPAP is indicated for patients who: - ANSWER: have pulmonary edema and can follow verbal commands. When the body senses a state of hypoperfusion, the sympathetic nervous system releases epinephrine, the effects of which include: - ANSWER: tachycardia Which of the following is MOST characteristic of adequate breathing? Choose one answer. A. 24 breaths/min with bilaterally equal breath sounds and pink skin B. 30 breaths/min with supraclavicular retractions and clammy skin C. 20 breaths/min with shallow movement of the chest wall and pallor D. 22 breaths/min with an irregular pattern of breathing and cyanosis - ANSWER: 24 breaths/min with bilaterally equal breath sounds and pink skin Correct

Which of the following will MOST reliably allow you to determine the nature of a patient's illness? Choose one answer. A. asking questions related to the chief complaint B. trending of the patient's vital signs over time C. focusing solely on how the call is dispatched D. refraining from asking open-ended questions - ANSWER: A. asking questions related to the chief complaint The diaphragm functions as an involuntary muscle when a person: - ANSWER: sleeps the leaf-shaped structure located superior to the larynx is called the: - ANSWER: epiglottis. The primary prehospital treatment for most medical emergencies: - ANSWER: addresses the patient's symptoms more than the actual disease process. An index of suspicion is MOST accurately defined as: - ANSWER: your awareness and concern for potentially serious underlying and unseen injuries or illness. Structures of the lower airway include all of the following, EXCEPT the: Choose one answer. A. trachea. B. alveoli. C. epiglottis. D. bronchioles. - ANSWER: C. epiglottis. The jaw-thrust maneuver is used to open the airway of patients with suspected: - ANSWER: cervical spine injuries Without adequate oxygen, the body's cells: - ANSWER: incompletely convert glucose into energy, and lactic acid accumulates in the blood. 19 - year-old female is found unconscious by her roommate. Your primary assessment reveals that her breathing is inadequate. As you insert an oropharyngeal airway, she begins to gag violently. You should: - ANSWER: remove the airway and be prepared to suction her oropharynx. Inhalation occurs when the - ANSWER: diaphragm and intercostal muscles contract and cause a decrease in intrathoracic pressure. Dyspnea is MOST accurately defined as: - ANSWER: shortness of breath or difficulty breathing. Hyperventilation could be associated with all of the following, EXCEPT: Choose one answer. A. a respiratory infection.

B. an overdose of aspirin. C. high blood glucose levels. D. a narcotic overdose. - ANSWER: a narcotic overdose You are dispatched to a residence where a middle-aged man was found unconscious in his front yard. There are no witnesses who can tell you what happened. You find him in a prone position; his eyes are closed and he is not moving. Your FIRST action should be to: - ANSWER: log roll him as a unit to a supine position. In what area of the lungs does respiration occur? - ANSWER: alveoli Harsh, high-pitched inspiratory sounds are characteristic of: - ANSWER: stridor Which of the following structures is NOT found in the upper airway? A. larynx B. pharynx C. bronchus D. oropharynx - ANSWER: C. bronchus In infants and children, a capillary refill time (CRT) that is greater than ______ second(s) is a sign of poor peripheral perfusion. - ANSWER: 2 Ten days after treating a 34-year-old patient with tuberculosis, you are given a tuberculin skin test, which yields a positive result. This MOST likely indicates that: - ANSWER: you were exposed to another infected person prior to treating the 34- year-old patient. Distributive shock occurs when: - ANSWER: widespread dilation of the blood vessels causes blood to pool in the vascular beds. The two processes that occur during respiration are - ANSWER: inspiration and expiration. Which of the following statements regarding the hypoxic drive is MOST correct? Choose one answer. A. Chronic carbon dioxide elimination often results in activation of the hypoxic drive. B. 100% supplemental oxygen will always cause apnea in patients with a hypoxic drive. C. The hypoxic drive serves as the primary stimulus for breathing in healthy individuals. D. The hypoxic drive stimulates a person to breathe on the basis of low oxygen levels. - ANSWER: The hypoxic drive stimulates a person to breathe on the basis of low oxygen levels. In order for efficient pulmonary gas exchange to occur: - ANSWER:. oxygen and carbon dioxide must be able to freely diffuse across the alveolar-capillary membrane.

Which of the following statements regarding methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is correct? Choose one answer. A. MRSA is a bacterium that causes infections and is resistant to most antibiotics. B. The communicable period for MRSA is 10 days to 2 weeks after being infected. C. Studies have shown that less than 1% of health care providers are MRSA carriers. D. Most cases of MRSA transmission occur following an accidental needlestick. - ANSWER: MRSA is a bacterium that causes infections and is resistant to most antibiotics. Hypoxia is MOST accurately defined as: - ANSWER: inadequate oxygen to the tissues and cells. Upon initial contact with a patient who appears to be unconscious, you should - ANSWER: attempt to elicit a verbal response by talking to the patient Which of the following conditions would LEAST likely result in hypoxia? A. pleural effusion B. pulmonary edema C. prolonged seizures D. severe anxiety - ANSWER: D. severe anxiety Syphilis is a: - ANSWER: bloodborne disease that can successfully be treated with penicillin Which of the following clinical signs is unique to anaphylactic shock? Choose one answer. A. hypotension B. wheezing C. pallor D. dizziness - ANSWER: wheezing Which of the following conditions is NOT categorized as a psychiatric condition? Choose one answer. A. substance abuse B. schizophrenia C. depression D. Alzheimer's disease - ANSWER: A. substance abuse Which of the following would MOST likely result in hemorrhagic shock? Choose one answer. A. liver laceration B. repeated diarrhea C. severe vomiting

D. excessive sweating - ANSWER: liver laceration Temporary, widespread vasodilation and syncope caused by a sudden nervous system reaction MOST accurately describes: - ANSWER: psychogenic shock. Which of the following statements regarding the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is correct? Which of the following statements regarding the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is correct? Choose one answer. A. The risk of HIV infection is greatest when deposited on a mucous membrane or directly into the bloodstream. B. HIV is far more contagious than hepatitis B and is easily transmitted in the health care setting. C. Most patients who are infected with HIV experience chronic symptoms that vary in duration and severity. D. The risk of HIV infection is high, even if an infected person's blood comes in contact with your intact skin. - ANSWER: The risk of HIV infection is greatest when deposited on a mucous membrane or directly into the bloodstream. Gas exchange in the lungs is facilitated by: - ANSWER: adequate amounts of surfactant. Which of the following is a late sign of hypoxia? Choose one answer. A. tachycardia Incorrect B. anxiety Incorrect C. restlessness D. cyanosis - ANSWER: cyanosis An infectious disease is MOST accurately defined as: Choose one answer. A. the invasion of the human body by a bacterium that cannot be destroyed by antibiotics or other drugs. B. a disease that can be spread from one person or species to another through a number of mechanisms. C. a medical condition caused by the growth and spread of small harmful organisms within the body. D. any disease that enters the body via the bloodstream and renders the immune system nonfunctional. - ANSWER: C. a medical condition caused by the growth and spread of small harmful organisms within the body. Correct Pulmonary edema and impaired ventilation occur during: - ANSWER: cardiogenic shock

Reassessment of a patient with a medical complaint should begin by - ANSWER: repeating the primary assessment an organ or tissue may be better to resis damage from hypperfusion if the - ANSWER: body temperature is consistently less than 98.6F (37.0) the electrical impulse by the heart originates in the - ANSWER: sinoatrial node(sa) what is true about blood clotting? - ANSWER: a person taking aspirin will expierence slower blood clotting classic symptoms and signs of hypoglycemia include - ANSWER: cool, clammy, weak, tachycardia, rapid respirations glucose is a trade name for - ANSWER: oral glucose What organs lie in the retroperitoneal space? - ANSWER: gallbladder common causes of psychotic behavior include the following, except - ANSWER: Alzheimers dieses significant vital signs changes will occur if the typical adult acutely loses more than___of his or her blood - ANSWER: 20% What is a fact of hemophilia's? - ANSWER: may bleed spontaneously as red blood cells begin to clumb together to form a clot,____reinforces the clumped red blood cells - ANSWER: fibrinogen when assessing arm movement of a suspected stroke, you should - ANSWER: expect to see one arm slowly drift down to the patients side hypoperfusion is another name for - ANSWER: shock activated charcoal administration is contraindicated in patients who have ingested - ANSWER: acids or alkalies anaphylaxis is mod accurately defines as an - ANSWER: extreme allergic reaction that may affect multiple body systems what is not an assessment parameter included in the cincinati prehospital stroke scale - ANSWER: memory what is not a function of the sympathetic nervous system? - ANSWER: constriction of blood vessels in the digestive system, an absence seizure is also referred to as - ANSWER: petit mal seizure

which of the following is a metabolic cause of a seizure - ANSWER: poisoning a raised swollen well defined area on the skin that is the result of an insect bit or sting - ANSWER: wheal status epileptics is characterized by - ANSWER: prolonged seizures without return of consciousness a transient ischemic attack (TIA) occurs when - ANSWER: the normal body process destroy a clot in a cerebral artery as woman approaches menopause - ANSWER: her menstrul periods may become irregular and vary in severity a young male sustained a gunshot wound to the abdomen during an altercation with a rival gang member. as your partner is assessing and managing his airway, you should control obvious bleeding then - ANSWER: assess for an exit wound the most significant risk factor for a hemorragic stroke is - ANSWER: hypertension cardiac output may decrease if the heart beats too rapidly because - ANSWER: there is not enough time between contractions for the heart to refill because the stinger of a honeybee remains in the wound following sting - ANSWER: it can continue to inject venom up to 20 mins your unit is dispatched to the county jail for an inmate. on arrival, you find the patient a 33 year old male lying supine in a jail cell. He is responsive to painful stimuli only has a slow, shallow respirations. you should be most concerned that this patient

• ANSWER: may vomit and aspirate air bags are designed to - ANSWER: decrease the severity of deceleration injuries functions of the liver include - ANSWER: production of substances necessary for blood clotting the normal blood glucose level as measured by a glucometer is between - ANSWER: 80 and 120 mg/dl epinephrine is indicated for patients with an allergic reaction when - ANSWER: wheezing and hypotension are present sudden death following AMI is most often caused by - ANSWER: ventricular fibirillation

the head and brain receive their supply of oxygenated blood from the - ANSWER: carotid arteries the purpose of defibrillation - ANSWER: stop the chaotic,disorganized contraction of the cardiac cells your paramedic partne administers atropine to a 49 year old male with bradycardia. which of the following side effects would you expect the patient to have - ANSWER: dry mucus membrane what organ would most likely bleed profusely if injured? - ANSWER: liver in contrast to level 3 trauma center, a level 1 trauma center - ANSWER: must have general surgeons on call 24/ you respond to a 55 year old residence, female with a possible allergic reaction to peanuts that she ate approx 30 mins ago. the patient is conscious and alert but has diffuse uticaria and the feeling that she has a lump in her throat. as your partner applied oxygen. you should - ANSWER: ask her if she has prescribed epi esophageal varicose most commonly occur in patients - ANSWER: drink a lot of alcohol urticaria is the medical term for - ANSWER: hives a patient with an altered mental status - ANSWER: is not thinking clearly or is incapable of being aroused hypoglycemic crisis tends to develop more often and severely in children - ANSWER: they do not always eat correctly and on schedule you arrive at the scene of a 33 year old woman who i experiencing a generalized seizure. she has a small amount of vomiyus draining from the side of her mouth. after protecting her from further injury. you should - ANSWER: maintain her airway, suction her airway, insert nasopharyngerl airway. admin high flow o an important aspect in the treatment of a patient with severe abdominal pain is to - ANSWER: provide emotional support to the hospital pain that is localized to the lower back and/or lower abdominal quadrants is most suggestive of - ANSWER: aortic aneurysm gastrointestinal bleeding should be suspected if a patient presents with - ANSWER: hematemsis the inferior vena cava returns deoxygenated blood to the right side of the heart from all the following areas(kidney abdomen legs) except the - ANSWER: brain

approx 25% of severe injuries to the aorta occurring during - ANSWER: lateral collisions in non trauma patients, an early indictor of internal bleeding is - ANSWER: dizziness upon standing the systemic veins function by - ANSWER: returning deoxygenated blood back to the heart injury to a hollow abdominal organ would most likely result in - ANSWER: a leakage of contents into the abdominal cavity nitroglycerin is contraindicated in patients - ANSWER: who have experienced a head injury the single most significant factor that contributes to suicide is - ANSWER: depression which of the following met accurately describes the cause of an ischemic stroke - ANSWER: blockage of a cerebral artery AED is the most advantageous to an EMT because - ANSWER: it delivers prompt defillbilartion to patients in V-Fib you arrive at the home of a 50 year old female with severe epitaxis, as you treat her it is most important to recall - ANSWER: the patient is at risk for vomitting and aspiration two of the most common mechanisms of injury for blunt trauma are - ANSWER: falls and motor vehicle collisions acute coronary syndrome is a term to describe - ANSWER: a group of symptoms that are cause myocardial ischemia deoxygenated blood from the body returns to - ANSWER: the right atrium what organ can tolerate inadequate profusion for up to 2 hours - ANSWER: skeletal muscle if direct pressure with a sterile fails immediately to stop severe bleeding you should apply - ANSWER: a tourniquet proximal to injury when assessing a patient who is displaying bizarre behavoir an emt should - ANSWER: consider acute medical illness may be causing the patients behavior what is the major difference between AMI and angina pectoris - ANSWER: anginal pain typically subsides with rest

patients with acute abdominal pain should not be given anything to drink because - ANSWER: substances in the stomach increase risk for aspiration most patients with the abdominal pain prefer to - ANSWER: lie on side with knees drawn in after applying pressure dressing to a laceration on a patients arm, you notice the blood is beginning to saturate, you should - ANSWER: place additional dressings prior to assisting a patient with his or her prescribed nitrogen, the emt must - ANSWER: obtain authorization by medical control assessment of a patient with hypoglycemia will most likely reveal - ANSWER: combativeness when assessing a patient with a behavioral crisis, you should - ANSWER: be direct and clearly state your intentions what sound indicated swelling of the upper airway - ANSWER: stridor diabetes is most accurately defined as a - ANSWER: disorder of carbohydrate metabolism hypovolemic shock occurs when - ANSWER: the body can't compensate for rapid blood loss the effects of epinheprine are typically within___following administration - ANSWER: 1 minute what finding is the least suggestive of the presence of high energy trauma - ANSWER: deployment of airbag chronic renal failure is a condition that - ANSWER: often caused by hypertension or diabetes a generalized seizure is characterized by - ANSWER: severe twitching of all body muscles PID typically does not affect the - ANSWER: urinary bladder DTs is a syndrome associated with a withdraw from - ANSWER: alchol common signs and symptoms of an allergic reaction include: dry cough, flushing of the skin and abdominal cramps but not__ - ANSWER: drying of the eyes a fractured femur can result in the loss of__or more of blood - ANSWER: 1 L

an overdose on acetaminophen, the active ingredient tylenol,will most likely cause - ANSWER: liver failure the ability of cardiac muscle to contract spontaneously without a stimulus from a nerve source is called - ANSWER: automaticity heroin id an example of - ANSWER: opiod common side effects of nitro include headache, bradycardia, hypotension except - ANSWER: hypertension what is the function of the left atrium - ANSWER: receives oxygenated blood from the lungs perfusion is most accurately defined as - ANSWER: circulation of blood within an organ in adequate amounts to meet the bodes metabolic needs ventricular tachycardia causes hypotension because - ANSWER: the left ventricle does not adequately fill with blood you and your partner arrive at the scene of a middle aged man who collapsed 5 mins ago. he is unresponsive, apenic, and pulseless. Bystanders are present but have not provided any care. you should - ANSWER: perform 5 cycles of cpm and apply the aed early signs and symptoms of intra-abdominal bleeding include - ANSWER: pain and distention which of the following medication blocks the release of histamines a. albuterol(ventolin) b. diphenhydramine(benadryl) c. acetametaphen(tylenol) d. epi - ANSWER: B a poison that enters the body by__is the most difficult to treat - ANSWER: injection when caring for a woman who is experiencing a gynecolgic emergency the emts main focus should be - ANSWER: maintain abcs and transport without delay you respond to movie theater for a 70 year old male who is confused. he has type 2 diabetes and refuses to take his pills. he is diaphoretic tacky and tachypenic. initial management should include - ANSWER: applying a nonrebreather mask at 15 L/m what vein is located inferior to the trunk - ANSWER: saphenous the first indicator of non traumatic internal bleeding may be - ANSWER: weakness or dizziness

when evaluating the mechanism of injury of a car vs pedestrian you should first - ANSWER: approximate the speed of the vehicle that souk the patient when using an auto inject, the primary inject site is the - ANSWER: lateral portion of the thigh muscle control nd coordination are controlled by the cerebellum a dissecting aortic anerysm occurs when - ANSWER: the inner layer of th aorta become separated when assessing an elderly patient who fell it is important to remember - ANSWER: osteoporosis van cause a fracture that may have resulted from the fall the physical exam of sexual assault should - ANSWER: limited to brief survey for life threatening events what about gonorrehea is correct - ANSWER: painful urination is seen in both men and women you are dispatched to a 56 year old with ams, the patients wife tells you that he complained of chest pain the day before. he is semiconscious rapid and shallow respirations and therapy pulse you should - ANSWER: begin ventilary assistance type 1 diabetes is - ANSWER: a condition where the body makes no insulin the onset of menstruation(menarche) usually occurs when women are - ANSWER: 11 - 16 what had the greatest impact on producing injury for a gunshot wound - ANSWER: the speed of the bullet a 40 year old ale with 300 mg blood sugar. is semi conscious and breathing slowly and is receiving assisted ventilation from your partner. you should recognize the definitive treatment as - ANSWER: insulin force acting over a distance defines the concept of - ANSWER: work commons sign and symptoms of AMI include: irreg heartbeat unexplained sweating and dypsnea but NOT - ANSWER: pain exacerbated by breathing how do fire ants bite? - ANSWER: repeatedily the ability for a person's cardiovascular system to compensate for blood loss most related to - ANSWER: how fast they bleed if a person stands near a building when it explodes, the will pst likely expiernce - ANSWER: stomach rupture

if one or more occupants in the same car are killed the emt should - ANSWER: suspect that all living occupants have the same trauma signs of agitated delirium include - ANSWER: diaphoresis tacky and hallucinations w whenever possible a female sexuale assault victim should be - ANSWER: given the option of being treated by a female emt bleeding from the nose following head trauma is a sign - ANSWER: of skull fracture and should not be stopped common side effects of epi does not include - ANSWER: drowsiness diabetic coma is a life-threatening condition tha results from - ANSWER: hyperglycemia ketoacidosis and dehydration kussmaul respirations indicate the body is - ANSWER: attempting to eliminate acids from the body angina pectoris occurs when - ANSWER: myocardial o2 demand exceeds supply the left ventricle has the thickest walls because it - ANSWER: pumps blood into the aorta and systemic circulation the two most common signs of anaphylaxis - ANSWER: wheezing and widespread uticaria what is NOT a major risk factor of AMI - ANSWER: hypoglycemia the term "behavioral crisis" is most accurately defined as - ANSWER: any reaction that interferes with the activities of daily living or is deemed unacceptable by others a stinger from a honey bee should be - ANSWER: scraped off the mental status of a patient who has experienced a typical seizure - ANSWER: is likely to improve over a period of 5 to 30 mins most cases of external bleeding from the extremity can be controlled by - ANSWER: applying local and direct pressure the right coronary artery supplies blood to - ANSWER: the right ventricle and inferior wall of the left ventricle the mucosal atomizer device(MAD) is used to deliver certain meds via the - ANSWER: intranasal route

the left side of the heart that receives oxygenated blood from the lungs through the

• ANSWER: pulmonary veins Order of the spinal column - ANSWER: cervical thoracic lumbar sacral cocyx anterior to the knee is a specialized bone called the - ANSWER: patella which of the arteries does not carry highly oxygenated blood - ANSWER: pulmonary the elbow is a __ joint - ANSWER: ball and socket what happens when blood volume is lost from the body - ANSWER: arteries contract to increase the bp the anterior fontanelle fuses together between the ages of - ANSWER: 9 and 18 months what is a physical change that typically occurs in the adolescent age - ANSWER: secondary sexual development abnormalities in metabolism are most likely due to the disfunction of the - ANSWER: pancreas a bp cuff that is too small for a patients arm will give a - ANSWER: falsely high systolic and diastolic reading which of the following statements regarding middle adults is correct - ANSWER: cardiovascular health becomes an issue and increased risk of cancer in relation to the wrist the elbow is - ANSWER: proximal a decrease in bp may indicate - ANSWER: loss of vascular tone medication that has the slowest rate of absorption - ANSWER: oral the primary function of the right atrium is to - ANSWER: receive blood from the vena cava the vocal cords are located in - ANSWER: the larynx the human body is at the optimal level at ages - ANSWER: 19- 25 LUQ - ANSWER: Spleen stomach and a portion of the colon RUQ - ANSWER: Liver gallbladder and portion of the colon RLQ - ANSWER: Two portions of the large and small intestine, appendix

LLQ - ANSWER: The descending and sigmoid portions of the colon