EMT JBL MIDTERM EXAMS TEST BANK, Exams of Nursing

Download EMT JBL MIDTERM EXAMS TEST BANK and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! 1 | P a g e EMT JBL MIDTERM EXAMS TEST BANK NEWEST WITH ACTUAL CORRECT QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED DETAILED RATIONALES ANSWERS BY EXPERTS | FREQUENTLY TESTED QUESTIONS AND SOLUTIONS |ALREADY GRADED A+ |2024 LATEST | GUARANTEED PASS 1. Which of the following statements regarding the EMS medical director and an EMT's scope of practice is correct? An EMT's scope of practice may be expanded by the medical director after proper training and state approval. 2. The determination that prompt surgical care in the hospital is more important than performing time-consuming procedures in the field on a major trauma patient is based MOSTLY on: EMS research. 3. Cardiac monitoring, pharmacological interventions, and other advanced treatment skills are functions of the: Paramedic. 4. An EMS provider who has extensive training in various aspects of advanced life support (ALS) is called a(n): Paramedic 5. If a defibrillator manufacturer claims that its device terminates ventricular fibrillation on the first shock 95% of the time, you should: Recognize that this does not mean it will save more lives. 6. The standards for prehospital emergency care and the individuals who provide it are typically regulated by the: State Official of EMS 7. Your partner, a veteran EMT who you have worked with regularly for the past 4 years, seems unusually agitated during a call involving an elderly patient. Upon arrival back at your station, you note the obvious smell of alcohol on his breath. What should you do? 2 | P a g e Discretely report your suspicions to your supervisor 8. Patients who become dependent upon EMS personnel or other health care providers often feel: Shamed 9. Which of the following is the MOST significant factor in determining if a person will become ill from certain germs? Immunity 10. According to Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) regulations, an employer must: Offer a workplace environment that reduces the risk for exposure 11. Common factors that influence how a patient reacts to the stress of an illness or injury include all of the following, EXCEPT: Distrust of the EMT 12. When treating a patient who is trapped in a vehicle and covered with broken glass, it is BEST to wear: Puncture-proof leather gloves over your latex gloves 13. The compliance monitoring component of an infection control plan should: Ensure that employees understand what they should do and why it is important 14. A 15-year-old boy was killed when he was struck by a car while riding his bicycle. He has numerous disfiguring injuries and has been placed in the back of the ambulance to shield him from curious bystanders. When the child's parents arrive at the scene, they demand to see him. You should: Advise them that their son had severely disfiguring injuries and ask them id there is anyone they would like to contact first 15. While trying to make a family member feel better after a loved one has died, your partner uses trite statements. The family members may view this as: Your partner's attempt to diminish your grief 16. A positive TB skin test indicates that: You have been exposed to the disease 17. Which of the following situations requires you to notify the appropriate authorities? Attempted suicide 18. You have been tasked by your medical director to assist in the development of your EMS agency's institutional standards. When developing these standards, it is important to: 5 | P a g e 39. When relaying patient information via radio, communications should be: brief and easily understood 40. After delivering your patient to the hospital, you sit down to complete the PCR. When documenting the patient's last blood pressure reading, you inadvertently write 120/60 instead of 130/70. To correct this mistake, you should: draw a single horizontal line through the error, initial it, and write the correct data next to it. 41. The carpal bones form the: Wrist 42. The ___________ is made up of the maxilla and zygoma, as well as the frontal bone of the cranium. Orbit 43. Which of the following skin layers contains sweat and oil glands, hair follicles, blood vessels, and nerve endings? Dermis 44. A patient in a semireclined position with the head elevated to facilitate breathing is in the ___________ position: Fowler's 45. Deoxygenated blood from the abdomen, pelvis, and lower extremities is returned to the right atrium via the: Inferior Vena Cava 46. What layer of the skin is composed of fatty tissue and serves as an insulator for the body? Subcutaneous 47. The largest portion of the brain, which is commonly referred to as the "gray matter," is called the: Cerebrum 48. The primary organ responsible for absorption of products of digestion is the: Small intestine 49. Breathing occurs as the result of a(n): Increase in Co2, which decrease the pH of the CSF 50. Anterior to the knee is a specialized bone called the: Patella 6 | P a g e 51. Stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system would result in: Slow heart rate 52. Which of the following organs is NOT part of the digestive system? kidney 53. The inferior cartilaginous tip of the sternum is called the: xiphoid process 54. Each pelvic bone is formed by the fusion of the: ilium, ischium and pubis 55. The nose, chin, umbilicus (navel), and spine are examples of ___________ anatomic structures. midline 56. Activities such as walking, talking, and writing are regulated exclusively by the: somatic nervous system 57. The average adult has approximately ___________ of blood in his or her body. 6 L 58. Which of the following is NOT a facial bone? mastoid 59. The backup system of respiratory control, which is based on low concentrations of oxygen hypoxic drive 60. Key hormones of the sympathetic nervous system include: epinephrine and norepinephrine 61. Which of the following statements regarding nervous system control of the cardiovascular system is correct? Alpha-adrenergic receptors are located exclusively in the heart and are stimulated by epinephrine 62. In relation to the chest, the back is: Posterior 63. Which of the following anatomic terms is synonymous with the word "dorsal"? Posterior 64. Select the areas of the spinal column in descending order. 7 | P a g e Cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, coccyx 65. Which of the following statements regarding the kidneys is correct? The kidneys eliminate toxis waste products from the body and control its balance of water and salt 66. The bony prominence on the lateral/superior aspect of the thigh is called the: Greater trochanter 67. The diaphragm is a unique muscle because it: Is both voluntary and involuntary muscle 68. What function does the pneumotaxic center serve? inhibits the DRG, resulting in longer, slower respirations 69. In relation to the wrist, the elbow is: Proximal 70. Which of the following statements regarding the heart is correct? It is under control of the Autonomic nervous system 71. A patient has a blood pressure of 130/70 mm Hg. The "130" represents: Ventricular contraction 72. Skeletal muscle is also called: Voluntary muscle 73. The vocal cords are located in the: Larynx 74. The kidneys and pancreas are called retroperitoneal organs because they: Are located behind the abdominal cavity 75. The most superior portion of the sternum is called the: Manubrium 76. Oxygen and carbon dioxide pass across the alveolar membrane in the lungs through a process called: Diffusion 77. Which of the following organs or structures lies within the retroperitoneal space? Kidneys 78. Which of the following statements regarding smooth muscle is correct? 10 | P a g e 5. Which of the following is an example of a brand (trade) name of a drug? Tylenol 6. Advil, Nuprin, and Motrin are brand (trade) names for the generic medication: Ibuprofen 7. Which of the following is an example of a drug's generic name? Aspirin 8. When gathering a patient's medications, you find the following: Isordil, Lasix, Motrin,and Digoxin. Which of these medications can be obtained over-the-counter (OTC)? Motrin 9. Which of the following statements regarding parenteral medications is correct? Parenteral medications are absorbed quickly then enternal medications 10. Which of the following is the MOST rapidly acting medication administration route? Intravenous (IV) 11. Which of the following medication routes has the slowest rate of absorption? Oral 12. Which of the following medication routes would be the MOST appropriate to use in an unconscious patient when intravenous access cannot be obtained? Intraosseous 13. Subcutaneous injections deliver the medication: Between the skin and the muscle 14. While assisting a paramedic in the attempted resuscitation of a 55-year-old male in cardiac arrest, you should expect the paramedic to: Administer drugs via the IV route to achieve the fastest effect 15. How is nitroglycerin usually given by the EMT? Sublingually 16. Which of the following medication routes delivers a drug through the skin over an extended period of time, such as a nitroglycerin or nicotine patch? Transcutaneous 17. A mucosal atomizer device (MAD) is used to deliver certain medications via the: Intranasal route 11 | P a g e 18. The __________ of a medication usually dictates the route by which it will be administered. Form 19. Medications encased in a gelatin shell taken by mouth are called: Capsules 20. Activated charcoal is an example of a(n): Suspension 21. Which of the following statements regarding the metered-dose inhaler (MDI) is correct? An MDI delivers the same amount of medication every time it is used 22. What medication form does oral glucose come in? Gel 23. You are dispatched to a movie theater for a 39-year-old female with signs and symptoms of an allergic reaction. As you are assessing her, she pulls an epinephrine auto-injector out of her purse and hands it to you. After administering 100% oxygen, you should: Contact medical control 24. A 31-year-old female is experiencing an acute asthma attack. She is conscious and alert,but in obvious respiratory distress. After assisting her with her prescribed MDI, you should: Reassess the patient and document her response to the medication 25. An EMT may administer aspirin to a patient if: Authorization from medical control has been obtained 26. You are dispatched to a state park for a young female experiencing an allergic reaction. Your assessment reveals that her breathing is severely labored and her blood pressure is very low. You carry epinephrine auto-injectors on your ambulance and have been rained and approved by your medical director to administer them. As your partner gives the patient high-flow oxygen, you attempt to contact medical control but do not have a signal from your cell phone. You should: Administer epinephrine to the patient, begin immediate transport, and to contact medical control en route to the hospital 27. You are treating a middle-aged man with chest discomfort. He has a history of three previous heart attacks and takes nitroglycerin as needed for chest pain. You have standing orders to administer aspirin to patients with suspected cardiac-related chest pain or discomfort. While your partner is preparing to give oxygen to the patient, you should: Confirm that the patient is not allergic to aspirin, give him the appropriate dose of aspirin, and document the time and dose given 12 | P a g e 28. In ___________ administration, you are administering medication to yourself or your partner. Peer-assisted 29. A 74-year-old woman complains of heaviness in her chest, nausea, and sweating that suddenly began about an hour ago. She is conscious and alert, but anxious. Her blood pressure is 144/84 mm Hg and her heart rate is 110 beats/min. She took two of her prescribed nitroglycerin (0.4-mg tablets) before your arrival but still feels heaviness in her chest. You should: Recall the geriatric patients often have slower absorption and elimination time, which may necessitate modification of the dosing of certain drugs 30. A 49-year-old male with an extensive cardiac history presents with 2 hours of crushing chest pain and shortness of breath. He is pale and diaphoretic and tells you that he feels like he is going to die. His medications include nitroglycerin, sildenafil (Viagra), and enalapril (Vasotec). His blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg and his heart rate is 110 beats/min. In addition to administering 100% oxygen, you should: Ask him if he took his Viagra within the past 24 hours 31. The process of binding or sticking to a surface is called: Adsorption 32. You arrive at a residence approximately 20 minutes after a 7-year-old boy, who weighs 22 kg, ingested a bottle of Advil. He is conscious and alert and has stable vital signs. Medical control orders you to administer activated charcoal and oxygen and then transport the child at once. The appropriate maximum dose of activated charcoal for this child is: 44 grams 33. Activated charcoal is frequently suspended in sorbitol, a complex sugar that: Facilitates movement through the digestive system 34. The medical term for an extremely low blood glucose level is: Hypoglycemia 35. Which of the following statements regarding glucose is correct? Glucose is a simple sugar that is really absorbed by the bloodstream 36. Aspirin is beneficial to patients suspected of having a heart attack because it: Prevents the aggregation of platelets 37. When given to patients with cardiac-related chest pain, nitroglycerin: Relaxes the walls of coronary artery 15 | P a g e 10. End-tidal carbon dioxide (ETCO2) is defined as the: Maximal Concentration of CO2 at the end of an exhaled breath 11. The MOST effective way to determine whether your patient's problem is medical or traumatic in origin is to: Perform a careful and thorough assessment 12. Palpating the carotid pulse is not recommended in infants because: You may inadvertently compress the trachea 13. The goal of the primary assessment is to: Identify and rapidly treat all life--threatening conditions 14. If you cannot palpate a pulse in an unresponsive patient, you should: Immediately begin CPR 15. Which of the following is an example of a symptom? Headache 16. A 50-year-old male presents with an altered mental status. His wife tells you that he had a "small stroke" 3 years ago but has otherwise been in good health. The patient is responsive but unable to follow commands. After administering oxygen, you should: Prepare for immediate transport 17. In the adult, bradycardia is defined as a pulse rate less than _______ beats/min, and tachycardia is defined as a heart rate greater than _______ beats/min. 60, 100 18. What part of the patient assessment process focuses on obtaining additional information about the patient's chief complaint and any medical problems he or she may have? History taking 19. For an adult, the normal resting pulse should be between: 60-100 bpm 20. You should gently palpate a patient's pelvis only if: The patient does not complain of pelvic pain 21. Which of the following medical history questions would be of LEAST pertinence in an acute situation? "Does your mother have diabetes?" 22. The normal respiratory rate for an adult should range from: 16 | P a g e 12-20 rpm 23. Which of the following MOST accurately describes paradoxical movement of the chestwall? Only one section of the chest rises on inspiration while another area falls 24. With regard to the assessment of a patient's cardiovascular status, capillary refill time is MOST reliable in: Children who are younger than 6 years of age 25. Pain that moves from its point of origin to another body location is said to be: Radiating 26. After performing a primary assessment, a rapid scan of the body should be performed in order to: Identify less obvious injuries for conditions that do not pose a threat to life 27. When a patient's respirations are shallow: Tidal volume is markedly reduced 28. A patient's short-term memory is MOST likely intact if he or she correctly answers questions regarding: Date and Event 29. If a patient develops difficulty breathing after your primary assessment, you should immediately: Reevaluate his or her airway status 30. When assessing motor function in a conscious patient's lower extremities, you should expect the patient to: Wiggle his or her toes on command 31. When evaluating a patient with multiple complaints, the EMT's responsibility is to: Determine which complain poses the greatest threat to the patients life 32. The pulse oximeter is an assessment tool used to evaluate the: Effectiveness of oxygenation When you assess capillary refill time (CRT) in an infant, normal color to the tested area should return within: 2 seconds 34. In responsive patients that are older than 1 year of age, you should palpate the pulse at the ________ artery. Redial 17 | P a g e 35. A patient with high blood pressure would be expected to have skin that is: Flushed and red 36. Which of the following scenarios does NOT involve the presence of any symptoms? a 61-year-old female who is unconscious with facial cyanosis 37. Which of the following is the MOST accurate guide to palpating a pulse? Place the rips of your index fingers over the pulse point 38. Cyanosis of the skin is caused by: Decreased blood oxygen 39. When palpating a patient's pulse, you note that it is grossly irregular. You should: Count the pulse rate for a full minute to obtain an accurate reading 40. A patient with spontaneous respirations is breathing: Without assistance 41. Normal skin color, temperature, and condition should be: Pink, warm, dry 42. Which of the following would the EMT most likely NOT perform on a responsive patient with a headache and no apparent life-threatening conditions? Systemic head-to-toe exam 43. Clinical signs of labored breathing include all of the following, EXCEPT: Shallow chest movement 44. The goal of the full-body scan that is performed during the secondary assessment is to: Locate injuries not found in the primary assesment 45. Which of the following conditions would MOST likely cause the pupils to remain significantly constricted? Overdose of an opiate drug 46. A palpable pulse is created by: Pressure waves through the arteries caused by cardiac contraction 47. While evaluating a patient with chest pain, your partner tells you that the patient's blood pressure is 140/94 mm Hg. The lower number represents the pressure from the: Ventricle relaxing 48. Which of the following abnormal breath sounds indicates obstruction of the upper airway? 20 | P a g e Epiglottis 22. What is the MOST common cause of airway obstruction in an unconscious patient? The tongue 23. A 71-year-old male is semiconscious following a sudden, severe headache. There is vomitus on his face and his respirations are slow and shallow. The EMT must immediately: Perform oropharngeal suctioning A nasopharyngeal airway is inserted: with the bevel facing the septum if inserted into the right nare 25. Which of the following statements regarding breathing adequacy is correct? Patients breathing shallowly may require assisted ventilations despite a normal respiratory rate 26. When testing a mechanical suctioning unit, you should turn on the device, clamp the tubing, and ensure that it generates a vacuum pressure of more than: 300 mm Hg 27. Tidal volume is defined as the volume of air that: Moves into or out of the lungs in a single breath 28. Which of the following patients should you place in the recovery position? a 31-year-old semiconscious male with low blood sugar and adequate breathing 29. As the single EMT managing an apneic patient's airway, the preferred initial method of providing ventilations is the: Mouth-to-mask technique with one way valve 30. How does positive-pressure ventilation affect cardiac output? It increases intrathoracic pressure, which decreases venous return to the heart and causes a decrease in cardiac output 31. Which of the following statements regarding oxygenation and ventilation is correct? In mines or confined places, where oxygen levels are low, ventilation may continue despite adequate oxygenation 32. Which of the following organs or tissues can survive the longest without oxygen? Muscle The hypoxic drive—the primary stimulus to breathe for patients with certain chronic respiratory diseases—is influenced by: Low blood oxygen levels 21 | P a g e 34. Which of the following factors will cause a decreased minute volume in an adult? Shallow breathing Intrapulmonary shunting occurs when: Blood coming from the right side of the heart bypasses nonfunctional alveoli and returns to the left side of the heart in an deoxygenated state 36. All of the following will help minimize the risk of gastric distention when ventilating an apneic patient with a bag-mask device, EXCEPT: Increasing the amount of delivered tidal volume 37. Central chemoreceptors located in the medulla provide feedback to increase the rate and depth of breathing when they sense: Slight elevations in carbon dioxide or a decrease in pH or the cerebrospinal fluid 38. The MOST significant complication associated with oropharyngeal suctioning is: Hypoxia due to prolonged suction attempts 39. Gas exchange in the lungs is facilitated by: Adequate amounts of surfactant 40. Which of the following structures is contained within the mediastinum? Esophagus 41. Which of the following patients is breathing adequately? A conscious male with respirations of 19 breaths/min and pink skin 42. How does CPAP improve oxygenation and ventilation in patients with certain respiratory problems? It forces the alveoli open and pushes more oxygen across the alveolar membrane 43. In which of the following patients would the head tilt-chin lift maneuver be the MOST appropriate method of opening the airway? a 37-year-old female who is found unconscious in her bed 44. The primary waste product of aerobic metabolism is: Carbon dioxide 45. The main advantage of the Venturi mask is: The use of its fine adjustment capabilities in the long-term management of physiologically stable patients 46. An unconscious patient found in a prone position must be placed in a supine position in case he or she: 22 | P a g e Requires CPR 47. Which of the following statements regarding oxygen is correct? Oxygen supports the combustion process and may cause fire 48. While eating dinner, your partner suddenly grabs his throat and has a panicked look on his face. He has a weak cough, faint inspiratory stridor, and cyanosis around the lips. You should: Stand behind him and administer abdominal thrusts 49. Which of the following is the MOST reliable indicator of adequately performed bag-mask ventilations in an apneic adult with a pulse? Adequate rise of the chest when squeezing the bag 50. A ventilation/perfusion (V/Q ratio) mismatch occurs when: A disruption in blood flow inhibits the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the lungs, even though the alveoli are filled with fresh oxygen Hpovolemic shock caused by severe burns is the result of a loss of: Plasma Which of the following MOST accurately describers septic shock? Bacterial damage to the vessel wall, leaking blood vessels, and vasodilation Which of the following injuries would MOST likely cause obstructive shock? Cardiac tamponade When treating an 80-year-old patient who is in shock, it is important to remember that: Changes in gastric mobility may delay gastric emptying, which increases the risk for vomiting Which of the following statements regarding anaphlyactic shock is MOST correct? Each subsequent exposure following sensitization often produces a more severe reaction. Shock is a result of: Hypoperfusion to the cells of the body Clinical signs of compensated shock include all of the following, EXCEPT: Absent peripheral pulses You respond to a residence for a patient with a severe leg injury following an accident with a chainsaw. When you arrive, you find the patient, a 44-year-old male, lying supine in the backyard. He has a partial amputation of his right lower leg that is actively bleeding. The patient is conscious and breathing adequately; however, he is restless and his skin is diaphoretic. You should: Apply direct pressure to the wound 25 | P a g e In MOST cases , cardiopulmonary arrest in infants and children is caused by: Respiratory arrest Which of the following techniques should you use to dislodge a foreign body airway obstruction in a patient who is in an advanced stage of pregnancy or who is very obese? Chest thrusts The main benefit of using a mechanical piston or load-distributing band device for chest compressions is: The elimination of rescuer fatigue that results from manual compressions The MOST appropriate treatment for a patient with a mild upper airway obstruction includes: Administering oxygen and transporting immediately Your partner is performing one-rescuer CPR on a middle-aged woman in cardiac arrest. When you apply the AED pads, you note that she has a medication patch over the same area where one of the AED pads will be placed. You should: Remove the medication patch, wipe away any medication residue, and apply the AED pads You and your partner arrive at the side of a 60-year-old woman who suddenly collapsed about 7 minutes ago. She is unresponsive, apenic, and pulseless. You should: Begin CPR and apply the AED as soon as it is available Gastric distention will MOST likely occur: If you ventilate a patient too fast What is the correct ratio of compressions to ventilations when performing two-rescuer child CPR? 15:2 Which of the following is considered an obvious sign of death and would not require the initiation of CPR? Dependent blood pooling A patient should be placed in the recovery position when he or she: is unconscious, uninjured, and breathing adequately Your initial attempt to ventilate an unresponsive apenic 30-year-old man is met with resistance and you do not see the chest rise. Your second ventilation attempt is also unsuccessful. You should: Perform 30 chest compressions During two-rescuer CPR, the compressor and ventilator switch positions. While rescuer one is finishing his or her cycle of 30 compressions, rescuer two should: Move to the opposite side of the patient's chest 26 | P a g e What percentage of exhaled oxygen is delivered during mouth-to-mask breathing without supplemental oxygen? 16% The proper depth of chest compressions on a 9-month-old infant is: A one third the diameter of the chest or about 1.5" To ensure that you will deliver the appropriate number of the chest compressions during one-rescuer adult CPR, you should compress the patient's chest at a rate of least _____ per minute 100 Which of the following is NOT a BLS intervention? Cardiac monitoring Earliest documented emergency medical service. In 1790 the French began transporting wounded soldiers from the battlefield. Who developed the first emergency medical standards? U.S. Department of Transportation What is enhanced 911? Dispatchers are able to determine location of the caller. Minimum level of certification to run on an ambulance crew. EMT Evaluation of patient's condition is done by doing a ___. Patient Assessment Who is responsible for scene safety? All crew members A person who speaks on behalf of the patient. The Advocate Assumes responsibility for all EMTs. The Medical Director Any agent that causes disease is called a ______. Pathogen How is Hepatitis A transmitted? 27 | P a g e Fecal-oral route What part of the nervous system is responsible for the "fight or flight" response? Sympathetic Nervous System Levels of EMS EMR, EMT, AEMT, Paramedic When lifting a patient, a basic principle is to: Know your own limitations Preferred number of rescuers when using a stair chair. 3 Set of limitations that defines the legal actions and limitations placed on the EMT. Scope of Practice Consent given by a school principal to treat a minor on behalf of the parents. In loco parentis (in place of the parent) An EMT's legal and ethical obligation to provide care to a patient. Duty to Act Act that governs patient confidentiality. HIPAA EMTs role at a crime scene. Care of the patient What is anatomy? The structures of the human body. What is physiology? The function of the human body. Sharing information about a patient's history or condition. Breach of confidentiality Medial Middle Lateral 30 | P a g e Pathway of air from the nose to the alveoli. nose, nasopharynx, pharynx, hypopharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, lungs, alveoli. A condition that is caused by a decreased number of red blood cells. Anemia Respiratory drive is triggered by changes in levels of ___. Carbon dioxide Birth to one year. Infancy A reflex in an newborn where it throws its arms out when started. Moro reflex Age group most concerned with body image Adolescence High-pitched upper airway obstruction. Stridor How to open the airway when a spinal injury is suspected. Jaw-thrust maneuver How to insert an oropharyngeal airway. Insert towards the roof of the mouth, then rotate it 180 degrees. Normal vital signs for a 4-year old. heart rate 80-130, respiratory rate 20-30, systolic pressure 70-100. Signs of hypoxia Blue or gray skin, decreased LOC, confusion, restlessness. Normal respiration rate for an adult. 12 to 20 per minute Normal oxygen concentration via a non-rebreather mask. 15 liters per minute When to replace an oxygen tank. 200L AVPU 31 | P a g e Alert, Verbal, Pain, Unconscious Place to check a pulse on a responsive adult patient. Radial Place to check a pulse on an infant. Brachial Place to check a pulse on an unresponsive adult. Carotid Normal capillary refill time. Less than 2 seconds. Normal adult blood pressure 120/80 How often should you re-assess vital signs on an unstable patient? Every 5 minutes How often should you re-assess vital signs on a stable patient? Every 15 minutes Contraindication A reason why you should not give a medication. Medications an EMT can administer. Aspirin, oral glucose, oxygen, prescribed inhalers, nebulized albuterol, nitroglycerin, epinephrine auto- injectors or IM, Ibuprofen, Acetaminophen Function of aspirin Reduces the blood's ability to clot and reduces pain. Why do you give nitroglycerin? It is given for angina pectoris. How does an epipen work? Anaphylaxis causes vasodilation and low blood pressure. Epinephrine causes vasoconstriction that counteracts the effect. What is the most important drug an EMT can give to a patient with signs and symptoms of myocardial infarction. Oxygen 32 | P a g e What are the two shockable rhythms. V-fib, V-tach Low blood sugar Hypoglycemia High blood sugar Hyperglycemia What is a febrile seizure? A seizure brought on in infants and young children caused by high fever. Most common signs and symptoms of anaphylaxis. Respiratory difficulties, low blood pressure Most common sound when ausclutating someone with anaphylaxis. Wheezing Highest risk of accidental poisoning Toddlers Signs and symptoms of carbon monoxide poisoning. flu-like symptoms, nausea, vomiting, altered LOC, headache, dizziness. What does activated charcoal do? It is an adsorbent that binds poisons to its surface, thus reducing the amount that gets absorbed into the bloodstream. It should not be used with strong acids or alkalis, lithium or iron tablets. It does not work on all poisons, and has no effect on alcohol poisoning. What effect does alcohol have on the CNS? It acts as a depressant. What are barbiturates? They are downers that depress the CNS. OxyContin, percocet, and lortab are examples of ____. Narcotics used for pain control Best treatment that an EMT can give for inhaled poisons. High-flow oxygen Effects of Delirium tremens. 35 | P a g e 10. A 51-year-old female presents with a sudden onset of difficulty breathing. She is conscious and alert and able to speak in complete sentences. Her respirations are 26 breaths/min and regular. You should: A. insert a nasal airway in case her mental status decreases. B. assist her ventilations with a bag-valve mask. C. administer oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. D. perform a secondary assessment and then begin treatment. C. administer oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. 11. You suspect that a pregnant 16-year-old girl has a broken leg after she was hit by a car. You explain that you plan to splint her leg, and she agrees to treatment. Which type of consent is her agreement considered? A. Minor's B. Informed C. Implied D. Expressed D. Expressed 12. Alkalosis is a condition that occurs when: A. dangerous acids accumulate in the bloodstream. B. the level of carbon dioxide in the blood increases. C. slow, shallow breathing eliminates too much carbon dioxide. D. blood acidity is reduced by excessive breathing. D. blood acidity is reduced by excessive breathing. 13. Inadequate circulation of blood throughout the body is called ________. A. hypotension B. shock C. hypoxia D. perfusion B. shock 14. An infant or small child's airway can be occluded if it is overextended or overflexed because: A. the tongue is proportionately small and can fall back into the throat. B. he or she has a long neck, which makes the trachea prone to collapse. C. the back of the head is flat, which prevents a neutral position. D. the occiput is proportionately large and the trachea is flexible. D. the occiput is proportionately large and the trachea is flexible. 15. Major risk factors for AMI include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. hypoglycemia. B. hypertension. C. diabetes mellitus. D. elevated cholesterol. 36 | P a g e A. hypoglycemia. 16. Which of the following conditions or situations would MOST likely make excited delirium worse? A. Alcohol withdrawal B. Limited physical contact C. Dimly lit environment D. Elevated blood glucose A. Alcohol withdrawal 17. Nitroglycerin, when given to patients with cardiac-related chest pain: A. increases blood return to the right atrium. B. constricts the veins throughout the body. C. increases myocardial contraction force. D. relaxes the walls of the coronary arteries. D. relaxes the walls of the coronary arteries. 18. The body's backup system of respiratory control, which is based on low concentrations of oxygen in the blood, is called the: A. oxyhemoglobin drive. B. hypocarbic drive. C. hypoxic drive. D. pneumotaxic drive. C. hypoxic drive. 19. An area of swelling or enlargement in a weakened arterial wall is called: A. a thrombus. B. atherosclerosis. C. an aneurysm. D. an embolism. C. an aneurysm. 20. You respond to a residence for a patient with a severe leg injury following an accident with a chainsaw. When you arrive, you find the patient, a 44-year-old male, lying supine in the backyard. He has a partial amputation of his right lower leg that is actively bleeding. The patient is conscious and breathing adequately; however, he is restless and his skin is diaphoretic. You should: A. immediately splint his leg B. assess the rate and quality of his pulse. C. immediately evaluate his airway. D. administer 100% supplemental oxygen. C. immediately evaluate his airway. 21. The term "supraventricular tachycardia" means: A. a rapid heart rate that originates from within the ventricles. B. a slow heart rate that originates from within the ventricles. 37 | P a g e C. a rapid heart rate that originates from above the ventricles. D. a slow heart rate that originates from above the ventricles. C. a rapid heart rate that originates from above the ventricles. 22. Which of the following medication routes delivers a drug through the skin over an extended period of time, such as a nitroglycerin or nicotine patch? A. Subcutaneous B. Intraosseous C. Transcutaneous D. Sublingual C. Transcutaneous 23. A patient with spontaneous respirations is breathing: A. at a normal rate. B. with shallow depth. C. without difficulty. D. without assistance. D. without assistance. 24. In order for efficient pulmonary gas exchange to occur: A. the percentage of inhaled carbon dioxide must exceed the percentage of inhaled oxygen. B. there must be low quantities of pulmonary surfactant to allow for full alveolar expansion. C. oxygen and carbon dioxide must be able to freely diffuse across the alveolar-capillary membrane. D. the pulmonary capillaries must be completely constricted and the alveoli must be collapsed. C. oxygen and carbon dioxide must be able to freely diffuse across the alveolar-capillary membrane. 25. Which of the following descriptions MOST accurately portrays emergency medical services (EMS)? A. A vast network of advanced life support (ALS) providers who provide definitive emergency care in the prehospital setting B. A system composed exclusively of emergency medical responders (EMRs) and emergency medical technicians (EMTs) who are responsible for providing care to sick and injured patients C. A team of health care professionals who are responsible for providing emergency care and transportation to the sick and injured D. A team of paramedics and emergency physicians who are responsible for providing emergency care to critically injured patients C. A team of health care professionals who are responsible for providing emergency care and transportation to the sick and injured 26. Crackles (rales) are caused by _________. A. air passing through fluid B. severe bronchoconstriction C. mucus in the larger airways D. narrowing of the upper airways 40 | P a g e C. the state motor vehicle department D. the receiving nurse or doctor D. the receiving nurse or doctor 38. The diastolic blood pressure represents the: A. average pressure against the arterial walls during a cardiac cycle. B. increased arterial pressure that occurs during ventricular contraction. C. minimum amount of pressure that is always present in the arteries. D. difference in pressure between ventricular contraction and relaxation. C. minimum amount of pressure that is always present in the arteries. 39. Your primary assessment of an elderly woman reveals that she is conscious and alert, but is experiencing difficulty breathing. She has a history of emphysema, hypertension, and congestive heart failure. As you assess the patient's circulatory status, you should direct your partner to: A. perform a head-to-toe secondary assessment. B. assess her oxygen saturation and blood pressure. C. administer oxygen with the appropriate device. D. retrieve the stretcher and prepare for transport. C. administer oxygen with the appropriate device. 40. You are summoned to a convalescent center for an 88-year-old female with an altered mental status. A staff nurse advises you that the patient has terminal cancer and her physician stated that she would probably die within the next few hours; a valid do not resuscitate (DNR) order is presented to you. When caring for this patient, you should: A. begin chest compressions if she experiences cardiac arrest. B. provide no interventions and transport to the hospital. C. make her comfortable and provide emotional support. D. depart the scene and allow her to die with dignity. C. make her comfortable and provide emotional support. 41. An 81-year-old female fell and struck her head. You find the patient lying on her left side. She is conscious and complains of neck and upper back pain. As you are assessing her, you note that she has a severely kyphotic spine. What is the MOST appropriate method of immobilizing this patient? A. Leave her on her side and use blanket rolls to immobilize her to the long backboard. B. Utilize a direct carry to bring her to the stretcher. C. Move her to a supine position and immobilize her with a scoop stretcher and padding. D. Immobilize her in a supine position on a long backboard and secure her with straps. A. Leave her on her side and use blanket rolls to immobilize her to the long backboard. 42. A diabetic patient has polydipsia. This means that she: A. is excessively thirsty. B. is unable to swallow. C. has low blood sugar. D. urinates frequently. 41 | P a g e A. is excessively thirsty. 43. Acute pulmonary edema would MOST likely develop as the result of: A. right-sided heart failure. B. severe hyperventilation. C. toxic chemical inhalation. D. an upper airway infection. C. toxic chemical inhalation. 44. During your assessment of a 20-year-old man with a severe headache and nausea, you ask him when his headache began, but he does not answer your question immediately. You should: A. repeat your question because he probably did not hear you. B. ask him if he frequently experiences severe headaches and nausea. C. allow him time to think about the question and respond to it. D. tell him that you cannot help him unless he answers your questions. C. allow him time to think about the question and respond to it. 45. The right coronary artery supplies blood to the: A. right ventricle and inferior wall of the left ventricle. B. right atrium and posterior wall of the right ventricle. C. left ventricle and inferior wall of the right atrium. D. left ventricle and posterior wall of the right ventricle. A. right ventricle and inferior wall of the left ventricle. 46. A crackling sound produced by air bubbles under the skin is called: A. Korotkoff sounds. B. rhonchi. C. crepitus D. subcutaneous emphysema. D. subcutaneous emphysema. 47. Critical incident stress management (CISM) can occur at an ongoing scene in all of the following circumstances, EXCEPT: A. before personnel are preparing to reenter the scene. B. when patients are actively being assessed or treated. C. before leaving the scene after the incident is resolved. D. when personnel are assessed during periods of rest. B. when patients are actively being assessed or treated. 48. When assessing a 62-year-old female with crushing chest pain, you note that her pulse is rapid and irregular. You should administer supplemental oxygen if needed and then: A. transport at once and consider requesting a paramedic unit. B. document your findings and perform a detailed assessment. 42 | P a g e C. conclude that the irregular pulse is normal based on her age. D. apply the AED and analyze her cardiac rhythm. A. transport at once and consider requesting a paramedic unit. 49. If a patient develops difficulty breathing after your primary assessment, you should immediately: A. reevaluate his or her airway status. B. begin assisting his or her breathing. C. determine his or her respiratory rate. D. auscultate his or her breath sounds. A. reevaluate his or her airway status. 50. The diaphragm is unique because it: A. does not receive impulses from the brain. B. does not have striations like skeletal muscle. C. is both a voluntary and an involuntary muscle. D. is the exclusive muscle of breathing. C. is both a voluntary and an involuntary muscle. 51. To protect vital organs, the body compensates by directing blood flow away from organs that are more tolerant of low flow, such as: A. the brain. B. the lungs. C. the heart. D. the skin. D. the skin. 52. Which of the following organs or structures lies within the retroperitoneal space? A. Kidneys B. Gallbladder C. Ascending aorta D. Spleen A. Kidneys 53. A 30-year-old male presents with acute shortness of breath, widespread hives, and facial swelling. He denies any past medical history and takes no medications. During your assessment, you hear wheezing over all the lung fields. His blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg and his heart rate is 110 beats/min. In addition to giving him high-flow oxygen, the MOST important treatment for this patient is: A. an antihistamine. B. a beta-antagonist. C. albuterol. D. epinephrine. D. epinephrine. 45 | P a g e 65. The posterior tibial pulse can be palpated: A. on the dorsum of the foot. B. between the trachea and the neck muscle. C. behind the medial malleolus, on the inside of the ankle. D. in the fossa behind the knee. C. behind the medial malleolus, on the inside of the ankle. 66. When gathering a patient's medications, you find the following: Isordil, Lasix, Nexium, and digoxin. Which of these medications can be obtained over-the-counter (OTC)? A. Lasix B. Nexium C. Isordil D. Digoxin B. Nexium 67. When the shoulder girdle is aligned over the pelvis during lifting: A. the muscles of the back experience increased strain. B. the hands can be held further apart from the body. C. the risk of back injuries is significantly increased. D. the weight is exerted straight down the vertebrae. D. the weight is exerted straight down the vertebrae. 68. When using the pulse oximeter as part of your assessment of a patient, it is important to remember that: A. carbon monoxide has no effect on pulse oximetry readings because the pulse oximeter presumes that oxygen is saturating the hemoglobin. B. pulse oximetry is especially useful in patients who have cold extremities because vasoconstriction forces blood to the capillary beds. C. as long as the patient's oxygen saturation is greater than 95%, oxygen is usually not necessary, even if the patient is experiencing respiratory distress. D. any situation that causes vasoconstriction or loss of red blood cells, such as anemia or bleeding, may result in an inaccurate or misleading value. D. any situation that causes vasoconstriction or loss of red blood cells, such as anemia or bleeding, may result in an inaccurate or misleading value. 69. A 22-year-old male with a history of clinical depression called 9-1-1 and stated that he has attempted to kill himself. Your unit and law enforcement officers arrive at the scene simultaneously. You find the patient lying supine on the living room floor. He is unresponsive and cyanotic. An empty bottle of hydromorphone (Dilaudid) is found on an adjacent table. You should: A. ask the police to handcuff the patient for safety purposes. B. open the patient's airway and assess his respirations. C. wait for the police to examine him before providing care. D. provide care after determining what Dilaudid is used for. 46 | P a g e B. open the patient's airway and assess his respirations. 70. The proper technique for using the power grip is to: A. position your hands about 6² apart. B. lift with your palms up. C. rotate your palms down. D. hold the handle with your fingers. B. lift with your palms up. 71. Your patient has a decreased cardiac output and poor myocardial contractility. This will likely lead to ___________. A. cardiogenic shock B. septic shock C. neurogenic shock D. hypovolemic shock A. cardiogenic shock 72. A patient who is possibly experiencing a stroke is NOT eligible for thrombolytic (fibrinolytic) therapy if he or she: A. has had a prior heart attack. B. is older than 60 years of age. C. has a GCS score that is less than 8. D. has bleeding within the brain. D. has bleeding within the brain. 73. A man finds his 59-year-old wife unconscious on the couch. He states that she takes medications for type 2 diabetes. He further tells you that his wife has been ill recently and has not eaten for the past 24 hours. Your assessment reveals that the patient is unresponsive. You should: A. administer 100% oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. B. assess for the presence of a medical identification tag. C. administer oral glucose between her cheek and gum. D. open and maintain her airway and assess breathing. D. open and maintain her airway and assess breathing. 74. The electrical impulse generated by the heart originates in the: A. sinoatrial node. B. coronary sinus. C. atrioventricular node. D. bundle of His. A. sinoatrial node. 75. You are assessing a middle-aged man with chest pain that you suspect is caused by a cardiac problem. The patient tells you that he does not want to go to the hospital and insists that you leave him alone. You should: 47 | P a g e A. tell him that he is having a heart attack and that he needs to go to the hospital. B. explain the seriousness of the situation to him. C. reassure him that he will not receive a bill for the EMS call if he cannot pay. D. proceed to treat him because the stress of the situation has impaired his thinking. B. explain the seriousness of the situation to him. 76. What is the MOST common cause of airway obstruction in an unconscious patient? A. Aspirated fluid B. The tongue C. Blood clots D. Vomitus B. The tongue 77. Which organ lies in the lateral and posterior portion of the left upper quadrant of the abdomen? A. Liver B. Stomach C. Cecum D. Spleen D. Spleen 78. Distributive shock occurs when: A. widespread dilation of the blood vessels causes blood to pool in the vascular beds. B. severe bleeding causes tachycardia in order to distribute blood to the organs faster. C. an injury causes restriction of the heart muscle and impairs its pumping function. D. temporary but severe vasodilation causes a decrease in blood supply to the brain. A. widespread dilation of the blood vessels causes blood to pool in the vascular beds. 79. Which layer of the skin is composed of fatty tissue and serves as an insulator for the body? A. Sebaceous B. Epidermis C. Dermal D. Subcutaneous D. Subcutaneous 80. You are dispatched to a residence for a 67-year-old female who was awakened by shortness of breath and sharp chest pain. Her husband tells you that she was recently discharged from the hospital after having hip surgery. Your assessment reveals dried blood around her mouth, facial cyanosis, and an oxygen saturation of 88%. You should suspect: A. right-sided heart failure. B. spontaneous pneumothorax. C. acute pulmonary embolism. D. acute pulmonary edema. C. acute pulmonary embolism. 50 | P a g e 91. Which of the following is MOST characteristic of adequate breathing? A. 30 breaths/min with supraclavicular retractions and clammy skin B. 22 breaths/min with an irregular pattern of breathing and cyanosis C. 24 breaths/min with bilaterally equal breath sounds and pink skin D. 20 breaths/min with shallow movement of the chest wall and pallor C. 24 breaths/min with bilaterally equal breath sounds and pink skin 92. You are dispatched to a call for a 4-month-old infant with respiratory distress. While you prepare to take care of this child, you must remember that: A. an infant's head should be placed in a flexed position to prevent obstruction. B. the infant's proportionately small tongue often causes an airway obstruction. C. assisted ventilations in infants often need to be forceful to inflate their lungs. D. small infants are nose breathers and require clear nasal passages at all times. D. small infants are nose breathers and require clear nasal passages at all times. 93. When moving a conscious, weak patient down a flight of stairs, you should: A. place the wheeled stretcher at the bottom of the stairs and carry the patient down the stairs with a stair chair. B. collapse the undercarriage of the wheeled stretcher and carefully carry the patient down the stairs on the stretcher. C. secure the patient to a scoop stretcher and carry him or her headfirst down the stairs to the awaiting stretcher. D. assist the patient in walking down the stairs and place him or her on the wheeled stretcher at the bottom of the stairs. A. place the wheeled stretcher at the bottom of the stairs and carry the patient down the stairs with a stair chair. 94. A 5-year-old boy has fallen and has a severe deformity of the forearm near the wrist. He has possibly sustained a fracture of the ____________ forearm. A. superior B. dorsal C. distal D. proximal C. distal 95. A 50-year-old male presents with altered mental status. His wife tells you that he had a "small stroke" three years ago but has otherwise been in good health. The patient is responsive but unable to follow commands. After administering oxygen if needed, you should: A. perform a detailed head-to-toe assessment. B. repeat the primary assessment. C. inquire about his family history. D. prepare for immediate transport. D. prepare for immediate transport. 51 | P a g e 96. Capillary sphincter closure during internal or external bleeding is detrimental because: A. available blood is shunted off to another venule while still carrying oxygen. B. high levels of oxygen remain in the cells and can cause significant damage. C. waste products are not removed and nutrients are not delivered to the cells. D. carbon dioxide and other waste can enter the cells, but oxygen cannot. C. waste products are not removed and nutrients are not delivered to the cells. 97. Your patient is in shock, but the body's defense mechanisms are currently able to maintain adequate circulation. This is called ___________. A. decompensated shock B. compensated shock C. irreversible shock D. late shock B. compensated shock 98. A 39-year-old male sustained a stab wound to the groin during an altercation at a bar. As you approach the patient, you note that he is conscious and hunched over. You should: A. apply direct pressure to the wound. B. elevate his legs and keep him warm. C. ensure that his airway is patent. D. administer 100% supplemental oxygen. C. ensure that his airway is patent. 99. What is the route of administration for the EpiPen auto-injector? A. Intraosseous B. Sublingual C. Intravenous D. Intramuscular D. Intramuscular 100. An intoxicated 40-year-old male is found lying face down. How would you document his body's position? A. Prone B. Recumbent C. Supine D. Dorsal A. Prone 101. You are transporting a 54-year-old male in respiratory arrest. An EMR is driving the ambulance as you and your partner are caring for the patient. Which of the following is the MOST logical way of notifying the hospital? A. Wait until you arrive at the hospital and then quickly apprise the staff of the situation. B. Have the driver use the radio and relay information to the hospital. 52 | P a g e C. Request that a police officer respond to the hospital to apprise the staff of your arrival. D. Call the receiving hospital with your cell phone while providing patient care. B. Have the driver use the radio and relay information to the hospital. 102. A 30-year-old male experienced a generalized (tonic-clonic) seizure, which stopped before you arrived at the scene. The patient is conscious, is answering your questions appropriately, and refuses EMS transport. Which of the following would be the MOST compelling reason to disagree with his refusal of transport? A. He is currently not prescribed any medications B. His wife states that this was his "usual" seizure C. He has experienced seizures since he was 20 D. His Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is 15 A. He is currently not prescribed any medications 103. Patients with uncontrolled diabetes experience polyuria because: A. high blood sugar levels cause permanent kidney damage. B. they drink excess amounts of water due to dehydration. C. low blood glucose levels result in cellular dehydration. D. excess glucose in the blood is excreted by the kidneys. D. excess glucose in the blood is excreted by the kidneys. 104. Which of the following statements regarding glucose is correct? A. Glucose is given to patients who are suspected of being hyperglycemic. B. Glucose is a complex sugar that rapidly absorbs into the bloodstream. C. Glucose is usually administered by the EMT via the intravenous route. D. Glucose is a simple sugar that is readily absorbed by the bloodstream. D. Glucose is a simple sugar that is readily absorbed by the bloodstream. 105. The left cerebral hemisphere controls: A. breathing and blood pressure. B. the right side of the face. C. heart rate and pupil reaction. D. the right side of the body. D. the right side of the body. 106. In the eyes of the courts, an incomplete or untidy patient care form indicates: A. potential falsification of the patient care form. B. the EMT was too busy providing patient care to fill out the form. C. inadequate patient care was administered. D. thorough documentation was not required. C. inadequate patient care was administered. 107. Upon arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you find a single patient still seated in his car. There are no scene hazards. As you approach the vehicle, you note that the patient is semiconscious and 55 | P a g e A. remove her dentures, resume ventilations, and assess for adequate chest rise. 118. The person who is responsible for authorizing EMTs to perform emergency medical care in the field is the: A. shift supervisor. B. EMS administrator. C. medical director. D. field training officer. C. medical director. 119. The MOST serious consequence of a poorly planned or rushed patient move is: A. confusion among team members. B. causing patient anxiety or fear. C. unnecessarily wasting time. D. injury to you or your patient. D. injury to you or your patient. 120. As time progresses following a significant injury: A. the patient's blood pressure elevates significantly. B. the patient's injuries will most likely be irreparable. C. most patients will die secondary to internal bleeding. D. the body's ability to compensate for shock decreases. D. the body's ability to compensate for shock decreases. 121. General guidelines for effective radio communications include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. speaking in a clear, calm, monotone voice. B. acknowledging a transmission as soon as possible. C. using 10 codes to ensure radio traffic confidentiality. D. holding the microphone about 2 to 3 inches from your mouth. C. using 10 codes to ensure radio traffic confidentiality. 122. During your monthly internal quality improvement (QI) meeting, you review several patient care reports (PCRs) with the staff of your EMS system. You identify the patient's name, age, and sex, and then discuss the treatment that was provided by the EMTs in the field. By taking this approach to the QI process, you: A. acted appropriately but must have each EMT sign a waiver stating that he or she will not discuss the cases with others. B. violated the patient's privacy because you should have discussed the information only with the EMTs involved. C. adequately safeguarded the patient's PHI because the cases were discussed internally. D. are in violation of HIPAA because you did not remove identifying information from the PCR beforehand. D. are in violation of HIPAA because you did not remove identifying information from the PCR beforehand. 56 | P a g e 123. A 71-year-old male is semiconscious following a sudden, severe headache. There is vomitus on his face and his respirations are slow and shallow. The EMT must immediately: A. perform oropharyngeal suctioning. B. begin assisting the patient's ventilations. C. apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. D. insert a nasopharyngeal airway. A. perform oropharyngeal suctioning. 124. A 70-year-old female was recently discharged from the hospital following a total hip replacement. Today, she presents with restlessness, tachycardia, and a blood pressure of 100/64 mm Hg. Her skin is hot and moist. You should be MOST suspicious that she is experiencing: A. pump failure. B. decompensated shock. C. a local infection. D. septic shock. D. septic shock. 125. Medications encased in a gelatin shell that are taken by mouth are called: A. pills. B. capsules. C. caplets. D. tablets. B. capsules. 126. When assessing a patient with signs and symptoms of shock, it is important to remember that: A. irreversible shock often responds well to a prompt blood transfusion. B. multiple fractures are the most common cause of hypovolemic shock. C. the patient's respirations are deep during the early stages of shock. D. blood pressure may be the last measurable factor to change in shock. D. blood pressure may be the last measurable factor to change in shock. 127. When is forcible restraint permitted? A. Anytime that the EMT feels threatened B. Only if consent to restrain is given by a family member C. When the patient poses a significant threat to self or others D. Only if law enforcement personnel have witnessed threatening behavior C. When the patient poses a significant threat to self or others 128. You are dispatched to the residence of an Asian family for a child with a high fever. When you assess the child, you note that he has numerous red marks on his back. The child's parents explain that these marks represent coining—a traditional Asian healing practice in which hot coins are rubbed on the back. You should: A. advise the child's parents that this is a harmful practice and is considered a form of child abuse in the United States. 57 | P a g e B. advise the emergency department physician that you feel as though the child was intentionally abused by his parents. C. acknowledge and respect this practice as a cultural belief, but advise the child's parents that it has no healing power. D. document this finding on your patient care report and advise the emergency department staff of what the child's parents told you. D. document this finding on your patient care report and advise the emergency department staff of what the child's parents told you. 129. Deoxygenated blood from the body returns to the: A. left ventricle. B. left atrium. C. right atrium. D. right ventricle. C. right atrium. 130. Which of the following statements regarding parenteral medications is correct? A. Tylenol is an example of a parenteral medication because it is taken orally. B. Compared to enteral medications, parenteral medications have fewer side effects. C. Parenteral medications are absorbed by the body through the digestive system. D. Parenteral medications are absorbed more quickly than enteral medications. D. Parenteral medications are absorbed more quickly than enteral medications. 131. You are treating a man who was assaulted and has a closed head injury. The patient, who has slurred speech, becomes verbally abusive and tells you to leave him alone. You should: A. ask a police officer to transport the patient to the hospital. B. allow the patient to refuse treatment because the injury was not his fault. C. have the police arrest the patient so that you can legally begin treatment. D. proceed with treatment and utilize law enforcement for assistance if necessary. D. proceed with treatment and utilize law enforcement for assistance if necessary. 132. You are attending to a 27-year-old male driver of a car. According to his passenger, the patient had been acting strangely while driving, then slumped forward against the steering wheel, apparently unconscious. The car drove off the road and struck a telephone pole. The patient remains unconscious, and physical assessment reveals only a large hematoma on his right forehead with no other physical signs. Your patient is a diabetic who had been under a lot of stress lately and may have missed meals. This is an example of a: A. combination of a psychiatric and trauma emergency. B. medical emergency. C. combination of a medical and trauma emergency. D. trauma emergency. C. combination of a medical and trauma emergency. 60 | P a g e B. is caused by resistance to insulin at the cellular level. C. is caused by a complete lack of insulin in the body. D. occurs when antibodies attack insulin-producing cells. B. is caused by resistance to insulin at the cellular level. 145. While auscultating an elderly woman's breath sounds, you hear low-pitched "rattling" sounds at the bases of both of her lungs. This finding is MOST consistent with which of the following conditions? A. Early pulmonary edema B. Aspiration pneumonia C. Acute asthma attack D. Widespread atelectasis B. Aspiration pneumonia 146. The risk of bleeding in the skull, which increases with age, is MOST directly related to: A. shrinkage of the brain. B. meningeal deterioration. C. a decrease in neurons. D. blood vessel dilation. A. shrinkage of the brain. 147. When assessing a patient with a behavioral crisis, you should: A. frisk the patient for the presence of weapons. B. ask the police to handcuff the patient for safety. C. be direct and clearly state your intentions. D. spend as little time with the patient as possible. C. be direct and clearly state your intentions. 148. A positive TB skin test indicates that: A. you are actively infected with TB. B. the TB disease is currently dormant but may later become active. C. you have never been exposed to TB. D. you have been exposed to TB. D. you have been exposed to TB. 149. The atlas is the: A. first cervical vertebra, which articulates with the skull. B. seventh cervical vertebra, which is easily palpable. C. point where the ribs attach to the sternum. D. attachment between the first and second cervical vertebrae. A. first cervical vertebra, which articulates with the skull. 150. Which of the following clinical signs would necessitate the administration of naloxone (Narcan)? A. Extreme agitation B. Hypertension 61 | P a g e C. Tachycardia D. Slow respirations D. Slow respirations