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ENDOCRINE NCLEX QUESTIONS WITH

100% SOLUTIONS 2024-2025 UPDATED

(ACTUAL EXAM) GRADED A+.

1. An agitated, confused female client arrives in the emergency department. Her history includes type 1 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and angina pectoris. Assessment reveals pallor, diaphoresis, headache, and intense hunger. A stat blood glucose sample measures 42 mg/dl, and the client is treated for an acute hypoglycemic reaction. After recovery, nurse Lily teaches the client to treat hypoglycemia by ingesting: a. 2 to 5 g of a simple carbohydrate. b. 10 to 15 g of a simple carbohydrate. c. 18 to 20 g of a simple carbohydrate. d. 25 to 30 g of a simple carbohydrate. - Solution B. To reverse hypoglycemia, the American Diabetes Association recommends ingesting 10 to 15 g of a simple carbohydrate, such as three to five pieces of hard candy, two to three packets of sugar (4 to 6 tsp), or 4 oz of fruit juice. If necessary, this treatment can be repeated in 15 minutes. Ingesting only 2 to 5 g of a simple carbohydrate may not raise the blood glucose level sufficiently. Ingesting more than 15 g may raise it above normal, causing hyperglycemia.
2. A female adult client with a history of chronic hyperparathyroidism admits to being noncompliant. Based on initial assessment findings, nurse Julia formulates the nursing diagnosis of Risk for injury. To complete the nursing diagnosis statement for this client, which "related-to" phrase should the nurse add? a. Related to bone demineralization resulting in pathologic fractures b. Related to exhaustion secondary to an accelerated metabolic rate c. Related to edema and dry skin secondary to fluid infiltration into the interstitial spaces d. Related to tetany secondary to a decreased serum calcium level - Solution A. Poorly controlled hyperparathyroidism may cause an elevated serum calcium level. This, in turn, may diminish calcium stores in the bone, causing bone demineralization and setting the stage for pathologic fractures and a risk for injury. Hyperparathyroidism doesn't accelerate the metabolic rate. A decreased thyroid hormone level, not an increased

parathyroid hormone level, may cause edema and dry skin secondary to fluid infiltration into the interstitial spaces. Hyperparathyroidism causes hypercalcemia, not hypocalcemia; therefore, it isn't associated with tetany.

3. Nurse John is assigned to care for a postoperative male client who has diabetes mellitus. During the assessment interview, the client reports that he's impotent and says he's concerned about its effect on his marriage. In planning this client's care, the most appropriate intervention would be to: a. Encourage the client to ask questions about personal sexuality. b. Provide time for privacy. c. Provide support for the spouse or significant other. d. Suggest referral to a sex counselor or other appropriate professional. - Solution D. The nurse should refer this client to a sex counselor or other professional. Making appropriate referrals is a valid part of planning the client's care. The nurse doesn't normally provide sex counseling.
4. During a class on exercise for diabetic clients, a female client asks the nurse educator how often to exercise. The nurse educator advises the clients to exercise how often to meet the goals of planned exercise? a. At least once a week b. At least three times a week c. At least five times a week d. Every day - Solution B. Diabetic clients must exercise at least three times a week to meet the goals of planned exercise — lowering the blood glucose level, reducing or maintaining the proper weight, increasing the serum high-density lipoprotein level, decreasing serum triglyceride levels, reducing blood pressure, and minimizing stress. Exercising once a week wouldn't achieve these goals. Exercising more than three times a week, although beneficial, would exceed the minimum requirement.
5. Nurse Oliver should expect a client with hypothyroidism to report which health concerns? a. Increased appetite and weight loss b. Puffiness of the face and hands c. Nervousness and tremors d. Thyroid gland swelling - Solution B. Hypothyroidism (myxedema) causes facial puffiness, extremity edema, and weight gain. Signs and symptoms of hyperthyroidism (Graves' disease)

include an increased appetite, weight loss, nervousness, tremors, and thyroid gland enlargement (goiter).

6. A female client with hypothyroidism (myxedema) is receiving levothyroxine (Synthroid), 25 mcg P.O. daily. Which finding should nurse Hans recognize as an adverse drug effect? a. Dysuria b. Leg cramps c. Tachycardia d. Blurred vision - Solution C. Levothyroxine, a synthetic thyroid hormone, is given to a client with hypothyroidism to simulate the effects of thyroxine. Adverse effects of this agent include tachycardia. The other options aren't associated with levothyroxine.
7. A 67-year-old male client has been complaining of sleeping more, increased urination, anorexia, weakness, irritability, depression, and bone pain that interferes with her going outdoors. Based on these assessment findings, nurse Richard would suspect which of the following disorders? a. Diabetes mellitus b. Diabetes insipidus c. Hypoparathyroidism d. Hyperparathyroidism - Solution D. Hyperparathyroidism is most common in older women and is characterized by bone pain and weakness from excess parathyroid hormone (PTH). Clients also exhibit hypercaliuria-causing polyuria. While clients with diabetes mellitus and diabetes insipidus also have polyuria, they don't have bone pain and increased sleeping. Hypoparathyroidism is characterized by urinary frequency rather than polyuria.
8. When caring for a male client with diabetes insipidus, nurse Juliet expects to administer: a. vasopressin (Pitressin Synthetic). b. furosemide (Lasix). c. regular insulin. d. 10% dextrose. - Solution A. Because diabetes insipidus results from decreased antidiuretic hormone (vasopressin) production, the nurse should expect to administer synthetic vasopressin for hormone replacement therapy. Furosemide, a diuretic, is contraindicated because a client with diabetes insipidus experiences

polyuria. Insulin and dextrose are used to treat diabetes mellitus and its complications, not diabetes insipidus.

9. The nurse is aware that the following is the most common cause of hyperaldosteronism? a. Excessive sodium intake b. A pituitary adenoma c. Deficient potassium intake d. An adrenal adenoma - Solution D. An autonomous aldosterone-producing adenoma is the most common cause of hyperaldosteronism. Hyperplasia is the second most frequent cause. Aldosterone secretion is independent of sodium and potassium intake as well as of pituitary stimulation.
10. A male client with type 1 diabetes mellitus has a highly elevated glycosylated hemoglobin (Hb) test result. In discussing the result with the client, nurse Sharmaine would be most accurate in stating: a. "The test needs to be repeated following a 12-hour fast." b. "It looks like you aren't following the prescribed diabetic diet." c. "It tells us about your sugar control for the last 3 months." d. "Your insulin regimen needs to be altered significantly." - Solution C. The glycosylated Hb test provides an objective measure of glycemic control over a 3-month period. The test helps identify trends or practices that impair glycemic control, and it doesn't require a fasting period before blood is drawn. The nurse can't conclude that the result occurs from poor dietary management or inadequate insulin coverage.
11. Following a unilateral adrenalectomy, nurse Betty would assess for hyperkalemia shown by which of the following? a. Muscle weakness b. Tremors c. Diaphoresis d. Constipation - Solution A. Muscle weakness, bradycardia, nausea, diarrhea, and paresthesia of the hands, feet, tongue, and face are findings associated with hyperkalemia, which is transient and occurs from transient hypoaldosteronism when the adenoma is removed. Tremors, diaphoresis, and constipation aren't seen in hyperkalemia.

12. Nurse Louie is developing a teaching plan for a male client diagnosed with diabetes insipidus. The nurse should include information about which hormone lacking in clients with diabetes insipidus? a. antidiuretic hormone (ADH). b. thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH). c. follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH). d. luteinizing hormone (LH). - Solution A. ADH is the hormone clients with diabetes insipidus lack. The client's TSH, FSH, and LH levels won't be affected.
13. Early this morning, a female client had a subtotal thyroidectomy. During evening rounds, nurse Tina assesses the client, who now has nausea, a temperature of 105° F (40.5° C), tachycardia, and extreme restlessness. What is the most likely cause of these signs? a. Diabetic ketoacidosis b. Thyroid crisis c. Hypoglycemia d. Tetany - Solution B. Thyroid crisis usually occurs in the first 12 hours after thyroidectomy and causes exaggerated signs of hyperthyroidism, such as high fever, tachycardia, and extreme restlessness. Diabetic ketoacidosis is more likely to produce polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia; hypoglycemia, to produce weakness, tremors, profuse perspiration, and hunger. Tetany typically causes uncontrollable muscle spasms, stridor, cyanosis, and possibly asphyxia.
14. For a male client with hyperglycemia, which assessment finding best supports a nursing diagnosis of Deficient fluid volume? a. Cool, clammy skin b. Distended neck veins c. Increased urine osmolarity d. Decreased serum sodium level - Solution C. In hyperglycemia, urine osmolarity (the measurement of dissolved particles in the urine) increases as glucose particles move into the urine. The client experiences glucosuria and polyuria, losing body fluids and experiencing fluid volume deficit. Cool, clammy skin; distended neck veins; and a decreased serum sodium level are signs of fluid volume excess, the opposite imbalance.

15. When assessing a male client with pheochromocytoma, a tumor of the adrenal medulla that secretes excessive catecholamine, nurse April is most likely to detect: a. a blood pressure of 130/70 mm Hg. b. a blood glucose level of 130 mg/dl. c. bradycardia. d. a blood pressure of 176/88 mm Hg. - Solution D. Pheochromocytoma, a tumor of the adrenal medulla that secretes excessive catecholamine, causes hypertension, tachycardia, hyperglycemia, hypermetabolism, and weight loss. It isn't associated with the other options.
16. A male client is admitted for treatment of the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which nursing intervention is appropriate? a. Infusing I.V. fluids rapidly as ordered b. Encouraging increased oral intake c. Restricting fluids d. Administering glucose-containing I.V. fluids as ordered - Solution C. To reduce water retention in a client with the SIADH, the nurse should restrict fluids. Administering fluids by any route would further increase the client's already heightened fluid load.
17. A female client has a serum calcium level of 7.2 mg/dl. During the physical examination, nurse Noah expects to assess: a. Trousseau's sign. b. Homans' sign. c. Hegar's sign. d. Goodell's sign. - Solution A. This client's serum calcium level indicates hypocalcemia, an electrolyte imbalance that causes Trousseau's sign (carpopedal spasm induced by inflating the blood pressure cuff above systolic pressure). Homans' sign (pain on dorsiflexion of the foot) indicates deep vein thrombosis. Hegar's sign (softening of the uterine isthmus) and Goodell's sign (cervical softening) are probable signs of pregnancy.
18. Which outcome indicates that treatment of a male client with diabetes insipidus has been effective? a. Fluid intake is less than 2,500 ml/day. b. Urine output measures more than 200 ml/hour. c. Blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg.

d. The heart rate is 126 beats/minute. - Solution A. Diabetes insipidus is characterized by polyuria (up to 8 L/day), constant thirst, and an unusually high oral intake of fluids. Treatment with the appropriate drug should decrease both oral fluid intake and urine output. A urine output of 200 ml/hour indicates continuing polyuria. A blood pressure of 90/50 mm Hg and a heart rate of 126 beats/minute indicate compensation for the continued fluid deficit, suggesting that treatment hasn't been effective.

19. Jemma, who weighs 210 lb (95 kg) and has been diagnosed with hyperglycemia tells the nurse that her husband sleeps in another room because her snoring keeps him awake. The nurse notices that she has large hands and a hoarse voice. Which of the following would the nurse suspect as a possible cause of the client's hyperglycemia? a. Acromegaly b. Type 1 diabetes mellitus c. Hypothyroidism d. Deficient growth hormone - Solution A. Acromegaly, which is caused by a pituitary tumor that releases excessive growth hormone, is associated with hyperglycemia, hypertension, diaphoresis, peripheral neuropathy, and joint pain. Enlarged hands and feet are related to lateral bone growth, which is seen in adults with this disorder. The accompanying soft tissue swelling causes hoarseness and often sleep apnea. Type 1 diabetes is usually seen in children, and newly diagnosed persons are usually very ill and thin. Hypothyroidism isn't associated with hyperglycemia, nor is growth hormone deficiency.
20. Nurse Kate is providing dietary instructions to a male client with hypoglycemia. To control hypoglycemic episodes, the nurse should recommend: a. Increasing saturated fat intake and fasting in the afternoon. b. Increasing intake of vitamins B and D and taking iron supplements. c. Eating a candy bar if light-headedness occurs. d. Consuming a low-carbohydrate, high-protein diet and avoiding fasting. - Solution D. To control hypoglycemic episodes, the nurse should instruct the client to consume a low-carbohydrate, high-protein diet, avoid fasting, and avoid simple sugars. Increasing saturated fat intake and increasing vitamin supplementation wouldn't help control hypoglycemia.

21. An incoherent female client with a history of hypothyroidism is brought to the emergency department by the rescue squad. Physical and laboratory findings reveal hypothermia, hypoventilation, respiratory acidosis, bradycardia, hypotension, and nonpitting edema of the face and pretibial area. Knowing that these findings suggest severe hypothyroidism, nurse Libby prepares to take emergency action to prevent the potential complication of: a. Thyroid storm. b. Cretinism. c. myxedema coma. d. Hashimoto's thyroiditis. - Solution C. Severe hypothyroidism may result in myxedema coma, in which a drastic drop in the metabolic rate causes decreased vital signs, hypoventilation (possibly leading to respiratory acidosis), and nonpitting edema. Thyroid storm is an acute complication of hyperthyroidism. Cretinism is a form of hypothyroidism that occurs in infants. Hashimoto's thyroiditis is a common chronic inflammatory disease of the thyroid gland in which autoimmune factors play a prominent role.
22. A male client with type 1 diabetes mellitus asks the nurse about taking an oral antidiabetic agent. Nurse Jack explains that these medications are only effective if the client: a. prefers to take insulin orally. b. has type 2 diabetes. c. has type 1 diabetes. d. is pregnant and has type 2 diabetes. - Solution B. Oral antidiabetic agents are only effective in adult clients with type 2 diabetes. Oral antidiabetic agents aren't effective in type 1 diabetes. Pregnant and lactating women aren't prescribed oral antidiabetic agents because the effect on the fetus is uncertain.
23. When caring for a female client with a history of hypoglycemia, nurse Ruby should avoid administering a drug that may potentiate hypoglycemia. Which drug fits this description? a. sulfisoxazole (Gantrisin) b. mexiletine (Mexitil) c. prednisone (Orasone) d. lithium carbonate (Lithobid) - Solution A. Sulfisoxazole and other sulfonamides are chemically related to oral antidiabetic agents and may precipitate hypoglycemia. Mexiletine, an

antiarrhythmic, is used to treat refractory ventricular arrhythmias; it doesn't cause hypoglycemia. Prednisone, a corticosteroid, is associated with hyperglycemia. Lithium may cause transient hyperglycemia, not hypoglycemia.

24. After taking glipizide (Glucotrol) for 9 months, a male client experiences secondary failure. Which of the following would the nurse expect the physician to do? a. Initiate insulin therapy. b. Switch the client to a different oral antidiabetic agent. c. Prescribe an additional oral antidiabetic agent. d. Restrict carbohydrate intake to less than 30% of the total caloric intake. - Solution B. Many clients (25% to 60%) with secondary failure respond to a different oral antidiabetic agent. Therefore, it wouldn't be appropriate to initiate insulin therapy at this time. However, if a new oral antidiabetic agent is unsuccessful in keeping glucose levels at an acceptable level, insulin may be used in addition to the antidiabetic agent.
25. During preoperative teaching for a female client who will undergo subtotal thyroidectomy, the nurse should include which statement? a. "The head of your bed must remain flat for 24 hours after surgery." b. "You should avoid deep breathing and coughing after surgery." c. "You won't be able to swallow for the first day or two." d. "You must avoid hyperextending your neck after surgery." - Solution D. To prevent undue pressure on the surgical incision after subtotal thyroidectomy, the nurse should advise the client to avoid hyperextending the neck. The client may elevate the head of the bed as desired and should perform deep breathing and coughing to help prevent pneumonia. Subtotal thyroidectomy doesn't affect swallowing. What is a hormone secreted from the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland? Answers: A. LH B. MSH C. ADH D. GnRH - Solution. C ADH is secreted from the posterior pituitary. LH comes from the anterior pituitary, MSH from the intermediate. GnRH is released from the hypothalamus.

An indication of Chvostek' sign is: Answers: A. Twitching of the lips after tapping the face B. Elevated blood sugar after glucose infusion C. Inability to hold one's arms straight D. Spasms of the hand after blood circulation is cut off - Solution. A Twitching of the lips after tapping the face in the right place is an indication of Chvostek's sign and a sign of hypocalcaemia. Spasms of the hand are associated with Trousseau's sign. A 26 year old female client presents with the symptom of unwanted facial hair. What of the following conditions is most likely? Answers: A. Graves' disease B. PCOS C. Hyperthyroidism D. Addison's disease - Solution B PCOS is well known to cause hormonal irregularities in women which can result in hair growth. In explaining the condition to a client, a nurse would say that Cushing's syndrome is caused primarily by: Answers: A. Low levels of glucocorticoids B. Excess secretion of sodium C. Autoimmunity in the pancreas D. Elevated levels of cortisol - Solution D Cushing's syndrome is caused by elevated levels of cortisol. Glucocorticoids tend to cause this. Which of the following symptoms is not typical of Cushing's syndrome? Answers: A. Osteoporosis B. Weight loss C. Diabetes D. Mood instability - Solution B Cushing's syndrome tends to produce rapid weight gain, not weight loss.

Which of the following would be an indication of Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome? Answers: A. A 33 year old woman with a karyotype of XY B. A 16 year old male with reduced kidney function C. Failure to respond to cortisol therapy D. Several pregnancies all of which ended in miscarriages - Solution A Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome is when the body does not respond to androgens such as testosterone. This can result in genetic males being born with the appearance of women. A client presents with hypocalcemia, hyperphosphatemia, muscle cramps, and positive Trosseau's sign. What diagnosis does this support? Answers: A. Diabetes insipidus B. Conn's syndrome C. Hypoparathyroidism D. Acromegaly - Solution C Hypoparathyroidism often leads to the symptoms mentioned. Conn's syndrome is an aldosterone-producing adenoma. A client with Graves' disease experiences a thyroid storm and has tachycardia and hypertension. What medication is most likely to be used? Answers: A. Levofloxcin B. Chlorothiazide C. Percocet D. Propylthiouracil - Solution. D Propylthiouracil is a commonly used medication for treating hyperthyroidism. Levofloxacin is an antibiotic, chlorothiazide is a diuretic, and Percocet a painkiller. Which of the following statements by a client with Type II Diabetes indicates the need for further education? Answers: A. I should avoid hot tubs B. I should aim for an HbA1C level of 5.5% C. I may need insulin at times D. My life expectancy is likely reduced by 10 years - Solution. B

While an HbA1C level of 5.5% would be below the threshold for diabetes, it is an unrealistic target. Data has shown that trying to lower the HbA1C level too much can lead to an increase in complications. In educating a client, the nurse is likely to explain the following is the cause of Hashimoto's disease: Answers: A. Antibodies attacking the thyroid gland B. Inflammation in the kidneys C. An adenocarcinoma in the brain D. Overactivation of the pituitary gland - Solution A Hashimoto's disease is caused by autoimmunity to the thyroid gland, often involving antibodies. Acromegaly is most frequently diagnosed in: a. Middle-aged adults b. Newborns c. Children ages 2 to 5 d. Adults age 65 and older - Solution. A: Acromegaly results from benign tumors on the pituitary gland that produce excessive amounts of growth hormone. Although symptoms may present at any age, the diagnosis generally occurs in middle-aged persons. Untreated, the consequences of acromegaly include

2. Grave's disease is: a. The most common cause of hypothyroidism b. The most common cause of hyperparathyroidism c. The most common cause of hyperthyroidism d. The most common cause of adrenal insufficiency - Solution type 2 diabetes, hypertension and increased risk of cardiovascular disease, arthritis and colon polyps.
3. C: Grave's disease is an autoimmune disorder characterized by an enlarged thyroid gland and overproduction of thyroid hormones producing symptoms of hyperthyroidism such as rapid heartbeat, heat intolerance, agitation or irritability, weight loss, and trouble sleeping. It usually presents in persons age 20 to 40 and it is much more common in women than in men.
4. Symptoms of Grave's ophthalmopathy include all of the following except: a. Bulging eyeballs

b. Dry, irritated eyes and puffy eyelids c. Cataracts d. Light sensitivity - Solution 3. C: Grave's ophthalmopathy is an inflammation of tissue behind the eye causing the eyeballs to bulge. In addition to the above-mentioned symptoms, Grave's ophthalmopathy may cause pressure or pain in the eyes, double vision, and trouble moving the eyes. About one-quarter of persons with Grave's disease develop Grave's ophthalmopathy. The condition is frequently self-limiting, resolving without treatment over the course of a year or two.

4. An ACTH stimulation test is commonly used to diagnose: a. Grave's disease b. Adrenal insufficiency and Addison's disease c. Cystic fibrosis d. Hashimoto's disease - Solution 4. B: The ACTH stimulation test measures blood and urine cortisol before and after injection of ACTH. Persons with chronic adrenal insufficiency or Addison's disease generally do not respond with the expected increase in cortisol levels. An abnormal ACTH stimulation test may be followed with a CRH stimulation test to pinpoint the cause of adrenal insufficiency.
5. All of the following are symptoms of Cushing's syndrome except: a. Severe fatigue and weakness b. Hypertension and elevated blood glucose c. A protruding hump between the shoulders d. Hair loss - Solution 5. D: Cushing's syndrome also may cause fragile, thin skin prone to bruises and stretch marks on the abdomen and thighs as well as excessive thirst and urination and mood changes such as depression and anxiety. Women who suffer from high levels of cortisol often have irregular menstrual cycles or amenorrhea and present with hair on their faces, necks, chests, abdomens, and thighs.
6. Which of the following conditions is caused by long-term exposure to high levels of cortisol? a. Addison's disease b. Crohn's disease c. Adrenal insufficiency d. Cushing's syndrome - Solution 6. D: Cushing's syndrome is a form of hypercortisolism. Risk factors for Cushing's syndrome are obesity, diabetes, and hypertension. Cushing's syndrome is most frequently

diagnosed in persons ages 20 to 50 who have characteristic round faces, upper body obesity, large necks, and relatively thin limbs.

7. A "sweat test" or newborn screening may be used to detect: a. Cystic fibrosis b. Adrenal insufficiency c. Grave's disease d. Hypothyroidism - Solution 7. A: Cystic fibrosis is the most common inherited fatal disease of children and young adults in the United States. Cystic fibrosis is usually diagnosed by the time an affected child is three years old. Often, the only signs are a persistent cough, a large appetite but poor weight gain, an extremely salty taste to the skin, and large, foul- smelling bowel movements. A simple sweat test is currently the standard diagnostic test. The test measures the amount of salt in the sweat; abnormally high levels are the hallmark of the disorder.
8. Hashimoto's disease is: a. Chronic inflammation of the thyroid gland b. Diagnosed most frequently in Asian-Americans and Pacific Islanders c. A form of hyperthyroidism d. A rare form of hypothyroidism - Solution 8. A: Hashimoto's disease is the most common cause of hypothyroidism. It is an autoimmune disease that produces chronic inflammation of the thyroid gland. More women are affected than men and it is generally diagnosed in persons ages 40 to 60. When treatment is indicated, synthetic T4 is administered.
9. Persons at increased risk of developing Hashimoto's disease include all of the following except: a. Persons with vitiligo b. Asian-Americans c. Persons with rheumatoid arthritis d. Persons with Addison's disease - Solution 9. B: Along with the above- mentioned groups, persons with type 1 diabetes and persons suffering from pernicious anemia (insufficient vitamin b12) are at increased risk of developing Hashimoto's disease. Because it tends to run in families, there is likely a genetic susceptibility as well. Environmental factors such as excessive iodine consumption and selected drugs also have been implicated as potential risk factors.

10. All of the following statements about Hashimoto's disease are true except: a. Many patients are entirely asymptomatic b. Not all patients become hypothyroid c. Most cases of obesity are attributable to Hashimoto's disease d. Hypothyroidism may be subclinical - Solution 10. C: Although weight gain may be a symptom of Hashimoto's disease, the majority of obese people have normal thyroid function; rarely is thyroid disorder the sole cause of obesity. Other symptoms of Hashimoto's disease include fatigue, cold intolerance, joint pain, myalgias, constipation, dry hair, skin and nails, impaired fertility, slow heart rate, and depression.
11. The most common benign tumor of the pituitary gland is a: a. Glioma b Prolactinoma c. Carcinoid tumor d. Islet cell tumor - Solution 11. B: Prolactinomas can cause symptoms by releasing excessive amounts of prolactin into the blood or mechanically by pressing on surrounding tissues. In women, symptoms may include menstrual irregularities and infertility; in men erectile dysfunction and libido may be impaired.
12. Symptoms of polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) may include all of the following except: a. Pelvic pain b. Acne, oily skin, and dandruff c. Infertility d. Weight Loss - Solution 12. D: In addition to the above-mentioned symptoms, PCOS may cause menstrual irregularities, thinning hair or male- pattern baldness, thick skin or dark patches of skin and excessive hair growth on the face, chest, abdomen, thumbs and toes.
13. Women with PCOS are at increased risk for all of the following except: a. Pregnancy b. Diabetes c. Cardiovascular disease d. Metabolic syndrome - Solution 13. A: Women with PCOS produce excessive amounts of androgens and do not release ova during ovulation, which seriously compromises their ability to conceive. Although women

with PCOS can become pregnant, often by using assistive reproductive technology, they are at increased risk for miscarriage.

14. All of the following organs may be affected by multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1 except: a. Parathyroid glands b. Kidneys c. Pancreas and Duodenum d. Pituitary gland - Solution 14. B: Multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1, also known as Werner's syndrome, is a heritable disorder that causes tumors in endocrine glands and the duodenum. Although the tumors associated with multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1 are generally benign, they can produce symptoms chemically by releasing excessive amounts of hormones or mechanically by pressing on adjacent tissue.
15. What is the treatment for hyperparathyroidism? a. Synthetic thyroid hormone b. Desiccated thyroid hormone c. Surgical removal of the glands d. Calcium and phosphate - Solution 15. C: When hyperparathyroidism requires treatment, surgery is the treatment of choice and is considered curative for 95% of cases. Because untreated hyperparathyroidism may elevate blood and urine levels of calcium and deplete phosphorus, bones and teeth may lose the minerals needed to remain strong.
16. The most common causes of death in people with cystic fibrosis is: a. Dehydration b. Opportunistic infection c. Lung cancer d. Respiratory failure - Solution 16. D: Declining pulmonary function is a hallmark of cystic fibrosis. Drugs such as Pulmozyme (dornase alfa) and Zithromax (azithromycin) can slow the progression of lung disease and mechanical physical therapy devices help CF patients to breathe more easily by loosening and dislodging mucus. For some patients with severe lung damage, lung transplantation is a treatment option.
17. Untreated hyperthyroidism during pregnancy may result in all of the following except: a. Premature birth and miscarriage b. Low birthweight

c. Autism d. Preeclampsia - Solution 17. C: In addition to the above-mentioned complications of uncontrolled hyperthyroidism in pregnancy, expectant mothers may suffer congestive heart failure and thyroid storm, which is life- threatening thyrotoxicosis with symptoms that include agitation, confusion, tachycardia, shaking, sweating, diarrhea, fever, and restlessness.

18. Short stature and undeveloped ovaries suggest which of the following disorders: a. Polycystic ovarian syndrome b. Prolactinoma c. Grave's disease d. Turner syndrome - Solution 18. D: Turner syndrome results from a chromosomal abnormality and occurs in an estimated 1 in 2,500 female births. It occurs more frequently in preterm pregnancies. Affected women are shorter than average and are infertile because they lack ovarian function. They also may have webbed necks, broad chests, arms that turn out from the elbow, lymphedema of the hands and feet and skeletal, cardiac, and renal problems.
19. Endocrine disorders may be triggered by all of the following except: a. Stress b. Infection c. Chemicals in the food chain and environment d. Cell phone use - Solution 19. D: Endocrine function may be influenced by myriad factors. In addition to the above-mentioned, there is evidence that exposure to naturally occurring and man-made endocrine disruptors such as tributyltin, certain bioaccumulating chlorinated compounds, and phytoestrogens is widespread and in susceptible individuals, may trigger endocrine disorders.
20. An analysis of data from the Women's Health Initiative questioned the use of which therapy to prevent heart disease? a. Synthetic thyroid hormone b. Oral contraceptives c. Weight-loss drugs d. Postmenopausal hormone replacement therapy - Solution 20. D: The results of the Women's Health Initiative study prompted the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) to advise against using hormone therapy (estrogen-alone or estrogen-plus-progestin) to prevent heart disease.

When hormone replacement therapy is used to treat moderate to severe hot flashes and symptoms of vulvar and vaginal atrophy it should used at the lowest doses for the shortest duration needed to achieve treatment objectives. The parathyroid glands play a major role in regulating which substances? A. Calcium and Phosphorus B. Cholride and potassium C. Potassium and calcium D. Sodium and potassium a. Calcium and Phosphorus - Solution a The primary function of insuln is to: A. Lower blood glucose levels B. Produce melanin C. regulate the bodys metabolic rate D. stimulate release of digestive enzymes - Solution a a client is admitted to the hospital with a medical DX of hyerthyroidism. When taking a history which information would be most significant? A. edema, intolerance to cold, lethargy b. peri-orbital edema, lethargy mask like face c. weight loss, intolerance to cold, muscle wasting d. weight loss, intolerance to heat, exophthalmos - Solution d Which nursing action is most appropriate for a client in ketoacidosis? a. admin of carbs b. admin of IV fluids c. applying cold compress d. giving glucagon IV - Solution b The nurse smells a sweet fruity odor on the breath of a client admitted with DM. This odor may be associated with? a. alcohol intoxication b. insulin shock c. ketoacidosis - Solution c A client asks what the purpose of the Hb A1c test is. The nurses best explanation would be that the test measures the average: a. blood sugar lvl's over a 6-10 week period b. hemoglobin lvl's over a 6 - 10 week period

c. protien lvl over a 3 month period d. vanillylmandelic acid lvl's - Solution a which of the following would be a nursing priority for a client just DX with Addison's disease? a. avioding unnecessary activity b. encouraging client to wear a med alert tag c. ensuring the client is adequatly hydrated d. explaining that the client will need life long hormone therapy - Solution c A nurse is caring for a client in the late stage of Ketoacidosis. The nurse notices that the clients breath has a characteristic fruity odor. Which of the following substances is responsible for the fruity smell in the breath? a. iodine b. acetone c.alcohol d. glucose - Solution b A nurse is caring for a client with Addison's disease. Which of the following mursing considerations shoul dbe employed when caring for this client? a. avoid sodium in the clients diet b. monitor and protect skin integrity c. document the specific gravity of urine d. monitor increases in blood pressure - Solution c A nurse is assigned to care for and monitor any complications in a 40 yr client with chronic diabetes. Which of the following is a macrovascular complication of diabetes. a. neuropathy b. retinopathy c. nephropathy d. Arteriosclerosis - Solution d A nurse is instructing a 50yr diabetic client about the steps to be followed for self admin of insulin. Which of the following instructions should be included in te client teaching? a. instruct client to aviod injections to the abdomen b. encourage client to always inject insulin in the same site c. inform client about the type of syringe to use d. encourage client to do active exercise after injection - Solution c

A nurse is preparing a diet plan for a 50yr with simple goiter. Which of the following should be included in teh clients diet to decrease the enlargement of he thyroid gland? a. iodine b. sodium c. potassium d. calcium - Solution a A nurse is caring for a 60yr client affected with hypoparathyroidism. When checking the lab report, the nurse finds tht the clients calcium lvl was very low. Which of the following vitamins regulates teh calcium lvl in the body? a. A b. D c. E d. K - Solution d A client presents to the emergency room with a history of Graves' disease. The client reports having symptoms for a few days, but has not previously sought or received any additional treatment. The client also reports having had a cold a few days back. Which of the following interventions would be appropriate to implement for this client, based on the history and current symptoms? Select all that apply. Administer aspirin Replace intravenous fluids Induce shivering Relieve respiratory distress Administer a cooling blanket - Solution Replace intravenous fluids Induce shivering Relieve respiratory distress Administer a cooling blanket

Rationale: Thyroid storm (also called thyroid crisis) is an extreme state of hyperthyroidism that is rare today because of improved diagnosis and treatment methods (Porth, 2005). When it does occur, those affected are usually people with untreated hyperthyroidism (most often Graves' disease) and people with hyperthyroidism who have experienced a stressor, such as an infection, trauma. The rapid increase in metabolic rate that results from the excessive TH causes the manifestations of thyroid storm. The manifestations include hyperthermia, with body temperatures ranging from 102°F (39°C) to 106°F (41°C); tachycardia; systolic hypertension; and gastrointestinal symptoms (abdominal pain, vomiting, diarrhea). Agitation, restlessness, and tremors are common, progressing to confusion, psychosis, delirium, and seizures. The mortality rate is high. Rapid treatment of thyroid storm is essential to preserve life. Treatment includes cooling without aspirin (which increases free TH) or inducing shivering, replacing fluids, glucose, and electrolytes, relieving respiratory distress, stabilizing cardiovascular function, and reducing TH synthesis and secretion. #1 is incorrect because cooling happens without the use of aspirin. All of the other choices are correct. A nursing student is studying for a test on care of the client with endocrine disorders. Which of the following statements demonstrates an understanding of the difference between hyperthyroidism and hypothyroidism? "Deficient amounts of TH cause abnormalities in lipid metabolism, with decreased serum cholesterol and triglyceride levels." "Graves' disease is the most common cause of hypothyroidism." "Decreased renal blood flow and glomerular filtration rate reduces the kidney's ability to excrete water, which may cause hyponatremia." "Increased amounts of TH cause a decrease in cardiac output and peripheral blood flow." - Solution Solution : "Decreased renal blood flow and glomerular filtration rate reduces the kidney's ability to excrete water, which may cause hyponatremia." Rationale: # 1 is incorrect because deficient amounts of TH cause abnormalities in lipid metabolism with elevated serum cholesterol and triglyceride levels. # 2 is incorrect because Graves' disease is the most

common cause of hyperthyroidism, not hypothyroidism. # 4 is incorrect because increased amounts of TH cause an increase in cardiac output and peripheral blood flow. A Clinical Instructor is questioning a student nurse about disorders of the parathyroid glands. Which statement by the nursing student, would indicate the need for further teaching? "Hyperparathyroidism results in an increased release of calcium and phosphorus by bones, with resultant bone decalcification." "Hyperparathyroidism results in deposits in soft tissues and the formation of renal calculi." "Hypoparathyroidism results in impaired renal tubular regulation of calcium and phosphate." "Hypoparathyroidism results in decreased activation of vitamin D which then results in decreased absorption of calcium by the pancreas." - Solution "Hypoparathyroidism results in decreased activation of vitamin D which then results in decreased absorption of calcium by the pancreas." Rationale: Choices 1, 2, and 3 are all correct statements. # 4 demonstrates a need for further teaching because hypoparathyroidism results in decreased activation of vitamin D which then results in decreased absorption of calcium by the intestines, not the pancreas. A nurse on a general medical-surgical unit is caring for a client with Cushing's syndrome. Which of the following statements is correct about the medication regimen for Cushing's syndrome? Mitotane is used to treat metastatic adrenal cancer. Aminogluthimide may be administered to clients with ectopic ACTH- secreting tumors before surgery is performed. Ketoconazole increases cortisol synthesis by the adrenal cortex.

Somatostatin analog increases ACTH secretion in some clients. - Solution Mitotane is used to treat metastatic adrenal cancer. Rationale: Mitotane directly suppresses activity of the adrenal cortex and decreases peripheral metabolism of corticosteroids. It is used to treat metastatic adrenal cancer. # 2 is incorrect because aminogluthimide may be administered to clients with ectopic ACTH-secreting tumors that cannot be surgically removed. # 3 is incorrect because ketoconazole inhibits, not increases, cortisol synthesis by the adrenal cortex. # 4 is incorrect because somatostatin suppresses, not increases, ACTH secretion. Which of the following nursing implications is most important in a client being medicated for Addison's disease? Administer oral forms of the drug with food to minimize its ulcerogenic effect. Monitor capillary blood glucose for hypoglycemia in the diabetic client. Instruct the client to never abruptly discontinue the medication. Teach the client to consume a diet that is high in potassium, low in sodium, and high in protein. - Solution Instruct the client to never abruptly discontinue the medication. Rationale: The primary medical treatment of Addison's disease is replacement of corticosteroids and mineralcorticoids, accompanied by increased sodium in the diet. The client needs to know the importance of maintaining a diet high is sodium and low in potassium. Medications should never be discontinued abruptly because crisis can ensue. Oral forms of the drug are given with food in Cushing's disease. A nurse on a surgical floor is caring for a post-operative client who has just had a subtotal thyroidectomy. Which of the following assessments should be completed first on the client? Assess for signs of tetany by checking for Chvostek's and Trousseau's signs

Assess dressing (if present) and the area under the client's neck and shoulders for drainage. Administer analgesic pain medications as ordered, and monitor their effectiveness. Assess respiratory rate, rhythm, depth, and effort. - Solution Assess respiratory rate, rhythm, depth, and effort. Rationale: All of the above assessments have importance, but airway and breathing in a client should always be addressed first when prioritizing care. Assess for signs of latent tetany due to calcium deficiency, including tingling of toes, fingers, and lips; muscular twitches; positive Chvostek's and Trousseau's signs; and decreased serum calcium levels. However, tetany may occur in 1 to 7 days after thyroidectomy so # 1 is not the highest priority. Assessing for hemorrhage is always important, but the danger of hemorrhage is greatest in the first 12 to 24 hours after surgery, and as this client is immediately post operative it is not the main concern at this time. Pain medication is important but according to Maslow, pain is a psychosocial need to be addressed after a physiologic need. The nurse is caring for a client who is about to undergo an adrenalectomy. Which of the following Preoperative interventions is most appropriate for this client? Maintain careful use of medical and surgical asepsis when providing care and treatments. Teach the client about a diet high in sodium to correct any potential sodium imbalances preoperatively. Explain to the client that electrolytes and glucose levels will be measured postoperatively. Teach the client how to effectively cough and deep breathe once surgery is complete. - Solution Maintain careful use of medical and surgical asepsis when providing care and treatments. Rationale: Use careful medical and surgical asepsis when providing care and treatments since Cortisol excess increases the risk of infection. # 2 is incorrect. Nutrition should be addressed preoperatively. Request a dietary

consultation to discuss with the client about a diet high in vitamins and proteins. If hypokalemia exists, include foods high in potassium. Glucocorticoid excess increases catabolism. Vitamins and proteins are necessary for tissue repair and wound healing following surgery. # 3 is incorrect. Monitor the results of laboratory tests of electrolytes and glucose levels. Electrolyte and glucose imbalances are corrected The nurse is caring for a client with pheochromocytoma. Which of the following must be included in planning the nursing care for this client? Monitor blood pressure frequently, assessing for hypertension. Assess only for physical stressors present. Collect a random urine sample. Prepare the client for chemotherapy to shrink the tumor. - Solution Monitor blood pressure frequently, assessing for hypertension. Rationale: Pheochromocytomas are tumors of chromaffin tissues in the adrenal medulla. These tumors which are usually benign produce catecholamines (epinephrine or norepinephrine) that stimulate the sympathetic nervous system. Although many organs are affected, the most dangerous effects are peripheral vasoconstriction and increased cardiac rate and contractility with resultant paroxysmal hypertension. Systolic blood pressure may rise to 200 to 300 mmHg, the diastolic to 150 to 175 mmHg.

1 is correct because the careful monitoring of blood pressure is essential.

Attacks are often precipitated by physical, emotional, or environmental stimuli, so # 2 is incorrect because more than physical stressors are considered. This condition is life threatening and is usually treated with surgery as the preferred treatment. # 3 is incorrect because it is a random sample and not a 24 hour urine collection. Because catecholamine secretion is episodic, a 24-hour urine is a better surveillance method than serum catecholamines. (Pagana & Pagana, 2002). Surgical removal of the tumor(s) by adrenalectomy is the treatment of choice. # 4 is incorrect because surgery would be the treatment usually completed. A client newly diagnosed with Addison's disease is giving a return explanation of teaching done by the primary nurse. Which of the following statements indicates that further teaching is necessary?