Entrance Paper - Indian Institute Of Foreign Trade - 2008, Study notes of Foreign Trade

Download Entrance Paper - Indian Institute Of Foreign Trade - 2008 and more Study notes Foreign Trade in PDF only on Docsity! Question Booklet Serial No. ADMISSION TEST FOR PROGRAMME 2008-10 Time: 2 Hours ROLL NAME (in Capital Letters) INSTRUCTIONS NUMBER Marks: 100 1. Write in the Answer Sheet in the space provided, the Question Booklet Serial Number indicated at the top of this page. 2. Write your Roll No. clearly in the space provided in both the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet. 3. Mark your answers in the Answer Sheet only. The Answer Sheet alone will constitute the basis of evaluation. 4. All rough work must be done in the Question Booklet only. 5. Do not make any stray marks anywhere in the answer sheet. 6. Do not fold or wrinkle the answer sheet. 7. Use only HB Pencil to mark the answers in the answer sheet. 8. All Questions have only one correct answer. In case these questions are answered wrongly, the candidate gets negative marks equivalent to l/3rd of the marks allotted to these questions. 9. Every answer must be indicated clearly darkening one circle for each answer. If you wish to change an answer, erase completely the already darkened circle, then make a fresh mark. If you darken more than one circle your answer will be treated as wrong, as shown in the example below: WRONG METHOD B C RIGHT METHOD B C D 10. The candidates are, therefore, advised to read all options thoroughly. 11. No clarification of any sort regarding the question paper is permitted. Page 1 of 48 THE ENTIRE QUESTION PAPER IS DIVIDED INTO THE FOLLOWING SECTIONS SECTIONS PART NO.OF QUESTIONS MARKS PER QUESTION TOTAL MARKS MARKS SECTION WISE (a) Section - A (b) (c) 29 (Questions 1 – 29) (d) 0.38 (e) = (c) x (d) 11.02 (f) 11.02 Section - B Section - C Section - D Total Part i 25 (Questions 30 – 54) Part ii 11 (Questions 55 – 65) Part i 25 (Questions 66 – 90) Part ii 26 (Questions 91 – 116) Part i 12 (Questions 117 – 128) Part ii 22 (Questions 129 – 150) 150 0.74 0.64 0.90 0.79 0.60 18.50 7.04 22.50 20.54 20.40 100.00 25.54 43.04 20.40 100.00 Page 2 of 48 8. Match the following: Name (i) Numismatists (ii) Epigraphist Hobby/Profession (a) Linguist who focuses on the origin of words (b) Person expert in the art of fine handwriting (iii) Calligraphist (c) Scientists who study insects (iv) Etymologists (d) Collectors of coin (v) Entomologists (e) Study of inscriptions engraved into stone or other durable material Scientists who study insects A. i-a, ii-b, iii-d, iv-e, v-c C. i-d, ii-a, iii-c, iv-b, v-e B. i-d, ii-e, iii-b, iv-a, v-c D. i-b, ii-c, iii-e, iv-d, v-a 9. Which of the following combination is correct? A. Andaman Express: Chennai to Jammu Tawi B. Gitanjali Express: Mumbai to Jammu Tawi C. Hirakud Express: Puri to Amritsar D. Navyug Express: Mangalore to Howrah 10. Which one of the following is not correct about Palagummi Sainath? A. Development journalist B. Expert on famine and hunger C. Was a student of Delhi University D. Grand son of former president V.V. Giri 11. Which of the following countries with their capital and currency is not correct? Country A. Botswana B. Bulgaria C. Cambodia Capital Gaborone Sofia Phnom Penh Peso Lev Riel Currency D. Macedonia Skopje Denar Page 5 of 48 12. Which of the following state –river match is correct? A. B. C. D. River Koodor Girnar Mahi Tunga State Maharashtra Kerala Goa Karnataka 13. What is common to Steve Martin and Peter Sellers? A. Both of them have featured in the title role of Inspector Blake B. Both of them have featured in the title role of Inspector Lynley C. Both of them have featured in the title role of Inspector Jacques Clouseau D. Both of them have featured in the title role of Inspector Migraet 14. From which country did India receive the highest FDI inflow during 2006-07? A. United States of America C. Netherlands B. United Kingdom D. Mauritius 15. The CEO of Arcelor at the time of its acquisition by the Ispat group was _________. A. John M Cassaday C. Guy Dolle 16. Match the following: Name of the Retailer Wal-Mart (a) Carrefour (b) TESCO (c) Woolworth (d) A. a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii C. a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii B. David Lev D. Antonio Murta Country of origin France (i) USA (ii) Australia(iii) UK (iv) B. a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i D. a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i Page 6 of 48 17. Match the right combination of the numbered boxes from the options below A. A-Bhairavi, B-Ahir Bhairav, C-Bhairav, D- Yaman, E-Jayjaiwanti, F-Chandrakauns, G- Malkauns B. A-Bhairavi, B-Ahir Bhairav, C-Bhairav, D- Malkauns, E-Chandrakauns, F-Jayjaiwanti, G- Yaman C. A- Bhairav, B-Ahir Bhairav, C-Bhairavi, D-Malkauns, E- Yaman, F-Jayjaiwanti, G-Chandrakauns D. A-Ahir Bhairav, B-Bhairavi, C- Bhairav, D- Malkauns, E-Chandrakauns, F-Jayjaiwanti, G- Yaman 18. Match the following: State Location Type of Special Economic Zone (i) Andhra Pradesh (a) Hassan (A) Automobile and Automobile Component (ii) Maharashtra (iii) Karnataka (iv) Tamil Nadu (b) Ranipet (c) Hyderabad (d) Waluj (B) Leather (C) Textile (D) Gems and Jewellery A. i-b-D, ii-d-A, iii-a-C, iv-c-B C. i-c-B, ii-d-A, iii-a-C, iv-b-D B. i-b-B, ii-a-A, iii-d-C, iv-c-D D. i-c-D, ii-d-A, iii-a-C, iv-b-B Page 7 of 48 25. Match the correct combination in the following: Actresses (i) Izabella Scorupco (ii) Teri Hatcher (iii) Sophie Marceau (iv) Roasmund Pike A. i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b C. i-c, ii-d, iii-b, iv-a 26. Match the following: Painter (i) Leonardo Da Vinci (ii) Jonannes Vermeer (iii) Vincent Van Gogh Featured in a James Bond Movie (a) The World is not enough (b) Die Another Day (c) Golden Eye (d) Tomorrow Never Dies B. i-a, ii-c, iii-d, iv-b D. i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-b Title of Creation (a) The Last Supper (b) The descent from the cross (c) Starry Night (iv) Rembrandt Harmensz Van Rijn (d) Christ in the house of Martha and Mary (v) Salvador Dali A. i-a, ii-d, iii-c, iv-b, v-e C. i-c, ii-d, iii-e, iv-b, v-a (e) The disintegration of the persistence of memory B. i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d, v-e D. i-e, ii-b, iii-d, iv-c, v-a 27. Who were the founders of the company Hewlett Packard (HP)? A. Dave Hewlett and Bill Packard B. Bill Hewlett and Dave Packard C. Jack Hewlett and Edwards Packard D. Edwards Hewlett and Jack Packard 28. Who won the „Asia Business Leader of the Year
award at the CNBC Asia Business Leaders Awards in 2006? A. Rahul Bajaj C. Anand Mahindra 29. Which of the following Indian ports is a private port? A. Bedi Bunder C. Ratnagiri B. Ratan Tata D. Vijay Mallya B. Navlakhi D. Pipavav Page 10 of 48 SECTION – B (PART- i) 30. Mr. Bedi
s family members went on a picnic. There were two grandfathers and four fathers and two grandmothers and four mothers in the group. There was at least one grandson or a granddaughter present in this group. There were two husband-wife pairs in this group. The single grandfather (whose wife was not present) had two grandsons and a son present in the party. The single grandmother (whose husband was not present) had two granddaughters present. A grandfather or a grandmother present with their spouses did not have any grandson or granddaughter present. What was the minimum number of people present in this picnic group? A. 14 C. 12 Directions for Questions 31-33: B. 10 D. 16 i. Five girls- Seema, Reema, Neeta, Mona and Veena have total five tickets of movie theatres- Priya, Chanakya, M2K, PVR Saket, Satyam where movies - Gangster, Khiladi, Hero, Saalaam Namaste and Iqbal are currently playing. Each girl has one movie ticket of one of the five theatres. ii. Movie Gangster is running in Priya theatre whose ticket is not with Veena and Seema. iii. Mona has ticket of Iqbal movie. iv. Neeta has ticket for the M2K theatre. Veena has the ticket of Satyam theatre where Khiladi is not running. v. In PVR Saket theatre Saalaam Namaste is running. 31. Which is the correct combination of the Theatre – Girl – Movie? A. M2K – Neeta – Hero C. Satyam – Veena – Iqbal 32. Which movie is running at Chanakya? A. Gangster C. Hero 33. Who is having the ticket of the movie Hero? A. Reema C. Seema Directions for Questions 34-36: B. Priya – Mona – Gangster D. PVR Saket – Seema – Saalaam Namaste B. Iqbal D. Data inadequate B. Veena D. Mona Director of a drama group has to assign different roles to two artistes - Paramjeet and Kamaljeet to play in a drama depending on four different symbols - @ for father, $ for wife, # for brother and * for daughter. There were four combinations decided by the director showing following results. Answer the following questions on the basis of results I, II, III, IV I. Paramjeet @ Kamaljeet stands for Paramjeet is father of Kamaljeet II. Paramjeet $ Kamaljeet implies Paramjeet is the wife of Kamaljeet III. Paramjeet # Kamaljeet stands for Paramjeet is brother of Kamaljeet IV. Paramjeet * Kamaljeet stands for Paramjeet is daughter of Kamaljeet Page 11 of 48 34. If Daljeet # Chiranjeet $ Baljeet which of the following statements is true? A. Daljeet is the brother of Baljeet C. Daljeet is the father of Baljeet B. Daljeet is the father-in-law of Baljeet D. Daljeet is the brother-in-law of Baljeet 35. If Manjeet * Chiranjeet @ Daljeet @ Baljeet, which of the following is not true? A. Manjeet is the mother of Baljeet C. Manjeet and Daljeet are siblings B. Chiranjeet is the grandfather of Baljeet D. Manjeet is the aunt of Baljeet 36. If Abhijeet # Chiranjeet * Baljeet, which of the following is not true? A. Baljeet is the parent of Abhijeet C. Abhijeet is the son of Baljeet Directions for Questions 37-40: B. Abhijeet and Chiranjeet are siblings D. Baljeet is the mother-in-law of Chiranjeet Each question consists of five statements followed by options consisting of three statements put together in a specific order. Choose the option which indicates a valid argument, that is, where the third statement is a conclusion drawn from the preceding two statements. 37. A. All universities appoint experienced teachers B. Kashi Vidyapeeth appoints experienced teachers C. Kashi Vidyapeeth is a university D. Some universities employ experienced teachers E. Kashi Vidyapeeth only appoints experienced teachers. 38. A. ABC C. ACB B. CDB D. ACE A. Migration of people augments housing problem in urban areas. B. Increase in housing problem in urban areas is detrimental to economic growth. C. Migration of people is detrimental to economic growth. D. Some migration does not cause increase in urban housing problem. E. Some migration is not detrimental to economic growth. 39. A. CBA C. CDE A. Some drivers are drug addicted. B. BDE D. BAC B. All drug addicted drivers should be terminated. C. Driver Balbeer should be terminated. D. Driver Balbeer is drug addicted. E. Some drivers should he terminated. A. BAE C. CDE B. BDE D. BAC Page 12 of 48 Directions for Questions 48-51: While selecting candidates for positions of engineers, a software firm followed criteria as given below. A candidate must i. be an engineering graduate with at least 60% marks at degree and 80% marks at higher secondary level. ii. have at least one year's experience of working iii. be ready to sign a bond of three years iv. must not be more than 28 years of age on 1.2.2007 However, if a candidate fulfils all the criteria except- a. at (i) above but has obtained 50% marks at degree and 70% at higher secondary respectively and has at least three years experience of working, the case may be referred to the director of the firm. b. at (ii) above, but is willing to pay an amount of 1 lakh if required to leave, the case may be referred to the president of the firm c. at (ii) above but is a computer engineer, the case may be referred to DGM. Based on the above criteria and the information given in each of the following cases, you have to take the decision on employing a candidate. You are not to assume anything and in the absence of adequate information, your answer will be not to be selected. The case is given to you as on 1.2.2007. The options available for you are provided in A, B. C and D. 48. Amar is a mechanical engineer with 65% marks at degree and 88% marks at HSC. He completed his engineering degree in 2003 at the age of 22 years and immediately started working in an engineering firm. He is keenly interested in going to USA and is not ready to sign a bond. However, he does not mind paying an amount of Rs. 1 lakh A. if the case is to be selected B. if the case is not to be selected C. if the case is to be referred to Director D. if the case is to be referred to President 49. Rajkishore, a computer engineer, has just completed graduation in July 2006, at the age of 23 years obtaining 72% marks. He had obtained 92% marks in HSC. He is willing to sign a bond with the company. He was joined a software company as trainee in August 2006 and working there till date A. if the case is to be selected B. if the case is not to be selected C. if the case is to be referred to Director D. if the case is to be referred to President 50. Madhuri is an electrical engineer and working as an assistant engineer for past two years. She had secured 85% and 69% marks at HSC and degree respectively. She has just completed 25 years of age. A. if the case is to be selected B. if the case is not to be selected C. if the case is to be referred to Director D. if the case is to be referred to President Page 15 of 48 51. Kamla is an engineering graduate with 66% marks at degree and 90% at HSC. She has joined engineering firm 2 years ago at the age of 24 years. She is ready to sign the bond. A. if the case is to be selected B. if the case is not to be selected C. if the case is to be referred to Director D. if the case is to be referred to President Directions for Questions 52-54: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. There was an effort to study the relative importance that beneficiaries of five states assigned to five different development programme implemented by their governments. The programmes were Jawahar Rozgar Yojana (JRY), Indira Awas Yozna (IAY), Mid-Day Meal (MDM), Rural Health Mission (RHM), National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (NREG). The level of dissimilarity between two states is the maximum difference in the rank allotted by the two states to any five programmes. The following table indicates the rank order of the five programmes for each state. Rank 1 2 3 4 5 Orissa JRY RHM MDM NREG IAY Bihar MDM JRY RHM IAY NREG Rajasthan IAY MDM JRY NREG RHM Kerala NREG IAY RHM JRY MDM Karnataka NREG JRY MDM RHM IAY 52. Which of the following states is least dissimilar to Orissa? A. Bihar C. Kerala B. Rajasthan D. Karnataka 53. Which of the following states is most dissimilar to Orissa? A. Bihar C. Kerala B. Rajasthan D. Karnataka 54. Three of the following four pairs of states have identical levels of dissimilarity. Which is the odd one out? A. Kerala & Bihar C. Rajasthan & Kerala B. Bihar & Karnataka D. Karnataka & Rajasthan Page 16 of 48 SECTION – B (PART – ii) The questions in this group are based on the content of the passage. After reading the passage, choose the best answer to each question. Answer all questions following the passage on the basis what is stated or implied in the passage. PASSAGE 1: Line From the very beginning TCL (Tata Chemicals Ltd.) has successfully grown by meeting consumer requirements in a mutually beneficial way. To determine its benchmark, it uses its own „Customer Requirements Determination Process (CRDP)
where in it explores present and future customer requirements to enable them to (5) incorporate those in their business offerings. This process starts with listening to end-users by exploring various customer listening information sources. This information captures various expectations of customers. Next step starts with identification of segments and matching of segment wise expectations. Outcome of this exercise gives enough guidelines about new business scopes and grey areas of current (10) business practices. After validation of customer expectations through cross checking, TCL matches its internal resources and skill sets with external opportunities and threats to address attractive business avenues. Launch of Tata Kisan Sansar was an outcome of that to offer all sort of end-to-end agri solutions to farmers. Agriculture till today contributes a lot for the development of Indian economy with (15) an employment share of around 69 percent of the work force and with a contribution of near about 24 percent of the GDP of the country. Indian agriculture sector has its importance in economic growth but value addition in this sector in terms of earning capacity is decreasing because of greater income streams from industry and services sectors. The continuous expanding of the gap in per (20) capita income between the agricultural and non-agricultural sectors has huge economic and social implications and it is almost necessary to empower the farmers financially by enriching the source of income. In this backdrop, one of the motivations for TCL to start „Tata Kisan Sansar (TKS)' was to ensure business by empowering agti-product producers. Again TCL felt that due to its business nature of (25) manufacturing and marketing commodities, it developed an image of a purely product centric organization. TCL's internal research substantiated its feeling and it recognized a paradigm shift towards a customer centric organization. TCL first started 'Tata Kisan Kendra' in 1988, exclusive franchised retail outlets of Tata with the objective of providing 'one-stop agri input shop' to the farmers. With the (30) marketing function being transferred from Rallis to Tata Chemicals. TCL used the Tata Kisan Kendras (TKKs) more extensively to market their products. It was understood by the company that the range of offerings under the TKKs offered an attractive basket of benefits to the fanners. The business model of the TKKs was based on offering a complete set of inputs to the farmer. Along with this, it also offered (35) extension services and technology inputs to help farmers plan their crops. At that time it dealt more with offering fertilizers and other inputs from those centers. Over the time it realized that the job is half done because requirements of a farmer is multi-layered. To offer a more holistic services it changed “Tata Kisan Kendra” as „Tata Kisan Sansar
and repositioned it as „one-stop farmers solution shop
by offering entire (40) range of agri services including quality agri input products. Objective was to empower farmers by providing them information about better agronomic practices, facilitating farm credit and providing quality agri inputs from a single source. Page 17 of 48 1000/- spent on Hertz rentals, a Jet privilege member earns 100 JP Miles and special discounts are given to platinum, gold and silver card holders. In recent past „fleet management
is coming up as a possible fourth target segment for car rental companies in India. Worldwide cars are not purchased but only leased and (60) this trend is getting its root in Indian market als. It means the management of a fleet of vehicles, using certain tools, to improve operational efficiency and effectiveness. To win over consumers of this segment, services should be professional and a fleet management company should address all the issues a company might deal with pertaining to managing its fleet. In India, LeasePlan Fleet Management (65) India (LPFM), the wholly-owned subsidiary of LeasePlan Corporation, Netherlands is pioneer in this field. Orix Auto and Business Solutions, is also present in this segment, Hertz is focusing more on car rentals than on fleet management. Though it provides chauffeur-driven cars to many companies like IBM, Sony, KPMG, Compaq, there is a huge scope in this segment for future growth. This segment demands (70) customized service in terms of vehicle acquisition, fuel management, vehicle financing and maintenance, resale of the cars at the end of the contract period etc. 60. The primary purpose of this passage is to: A. Illustrate how Hertz could plan for the Indian market and maximize profits B. Illustrate buying behavior of unorganized sectors offering car rental services C. Illustrate segment opportunities for a new entrant in car rental business D. Illustrate consumer awareness and views about options available in car-rental business in India 61. „Self-Drive
concept may be a lucrative option to a manager to lure Indian consumers because: A. Collectivist culture motivates Indian consumers to opt for self drive B. Indian roads encourage consumers to experience joy of long drive C. Indians may enjoy driving comfort of SUV as they don
t have capacity to own it D. A sizeable number of Indian consumers aspire to enjoy new things in life 62. As a business manager of a car-rental company, you may popularize „self-drive
concept to international travellers because: A. They know Indian roads and want to explore new places by their own B. They dislike concept of chauffeur as Indian chauffeurs are not very professional C. Individualistic culture discourages them to travel in group D. They can easily book their cars through website of car rental agencies 63. As a business manager of a globally recognised „car-rental
agency if you like to tap institutional consumers of India, you should not: A. Bank on your globally recognized „brand name
to ensure sale B. Make a list of your global clientele to impress your prospective customer C. Consider offerings of your competitors to formulate your value proposition D. Accept service assurance not as a major influencer behind buying decision Page 20 of 48 64. As a business manager you think „fleet management
a profitable segment for organized sector to explore in India because: A. Companies want to associate with „brand name
and unorganized players are lacking here B. There is a huge scope as competition is low in this field C. Everywhere in India logistics services are outsourced and companies are focusing on their core business D. This business demands gamut of customized services and organized professionals may only offer those 65. If you are to tap „first
segment of „car rental
business as a manager of a branded company, you should not: A. Advertise your brand name to communicate with consumers B. Compare your service conditions vis-a-vis your competitors to influence consumers C. Match price of your service with your competitors from organized sector D. Create unique value proposition to position you away from your competition Page 21 of 48 66. The value of nPr

= 1 is: SECTION – C (PART - i) A. 2n C. 2n-1
! B. 2n – 1 D. 2n + 1 67. Mr. Jeevan wanted to give some amount of money to his two children, so that although today they may not be using it, in the future the money would be of use to them. He divides a sum of Rs.18,750/- between his two sons of age 10 years and 13 years respectively in such a way that each would receive the same amount at 3% p.a. compound interest when he attains the age of 30 years. What would be the original share of the younger son? A. 8959.80 C. 8969.80 68. Let
= − 1 3 B. 8559.80 D. 8995.80 1 1 1 2 + 2
, then the value of the determinant 1 −1 −

2
2 is: 1

2 A. 3

B. 3



− 1 C. 3

2 D. 3

1 −


4 69. There are 2 men, 3 women and 1 child in Pradeep
s family and 1 man, 1 woman and 2 children in Prabhat
s family. The recommended calorie requirement is- Men: 2400, Women: 1900, Children: 1800 and for proteins is: Men: 55gm, Woman: 45 gm, Children: 33gm. Calculate the total requirement of calories and proteins for each of the two families. A.


12300 2787900 166 B.


12400 3008000 167 C.


12300 2786600 200 D.


15000 2787900 166 70. x1, x2, x3...x50 are fifty real numbers such that xr < xr=l for r = 1, 2, 3...49. Five, numbers out of these are picked up at random. The probability that the five numbers have x20 as the middle is: A. 20C2× 30C2 50C5 B. 30C2× 19C2 50C5 C. 19 C 2×31C2 D. None of these 50C5 77. LG Electronics finds that it can sell x television per week at Rs.2P each where
= 2 100 −
4 . The cost of production of x television per week is Rs. 120

+
2 . Find it
s maximum profit per week. A. 1200 C. 1600 Directions for questions 78-79: B. 1700 D. 1000 Space Institute, which is involved in training and helping students prepare for Management Institute Entrance Exams, was established on January 1, 2004 with 3, 4, 5 and 6 faculty members in the Logical Reasoning (LR), Data Interpretation (DI), English Language and Quantitative Analysis (QA) areas respectively, to start with. No faculty member retired or joined the institute recruited faculty members in each of the four areas. All these new faculty members who joined the institute subsequently over the years were 25 years old at the time of joining the institute. All of them joined the institute on April 1. During these four years, one of the faculty members retired at the age of 60. The following table gives the area-wise average age (in terms of number of completed years) of faculty members as on April1 of 2004, 2005, 2006 and 2007. Faculty LR DI English Quants 2004 49.33 50.5 50.2 45 2005 44 51.5 49 43 2006 45 52.5 45 44 2007 46 47.8 46 45 78. In which year did the new faculty member join the as the faculty of Engllish? A. 2004 C. 2006 B. 2005 D. 2007 79. Professor Sharma and Professor Verma, two faculty members in the LR area, who have been with the Institute since its inspection, share a birthday, which falls on 30th November. One was born in 1951 and the other in 1954. On April 1, 2009 what would be the age of the third faculty member, who has been in the same area since inception? A. 47 C. 51 B. 50 D. 52 Page 24 of 48 Directions for question 80-81: TT School of Management is a management institute involved in teaching, training and research. Currently it has 37 faculty members. They are involved in three jobs: teaching, training and research. Each faculty member working with TT School of Management has to be involved in atleast one of the three jobs mentioned above: • A maximum number of faculty members are involved in training. Among them, a number of faculty members are having additional involvement in the research. • The number of faculty members in research alone is double the number of faculty members involved in all three jobs. • 17 faculty members are involved in teaching. • The number of faculty members involved in teaching alone is less than the number of faculty members involved in the teaching are also involved in at least one more job. 80. After some time, the faculty members who were involved in all the three tasks were asked to withdraw from one task. As a result, one of the faculty members each opted out of teaching and research, while remaining ones involved in all the three tasks opted out of training. Which one of the following statements, then necessarily follows: A. The least number of faculty members is now involved in teaching. B. More faculty members are now associated with training as compared to research. C. More faculty members are now involved in teaching as compared to research. D. None of the above. 81. Based on the information given above, the minimum number of faculty members involved in both training and teaching, but not in research is: A. 1 C. 4 B. 3 D. 5 82. Gujarat Fisheries processes two kinds of prawns, P1 and P2, before exporting. The profit margin is Rs.20/kg on the P1 variety and Rs.30/kg on the P2 variety. The prawn must be processed and dried on dryer A and on dryer B. The processing time per kg of prawn on the two dryers is as follows: Type of Prawn Time Required (hours/prawn per kg) Dryer A Dryer B P1 P2 4 5 6 10 The total time available for using Dryer A is 700 hours and on Dryer B is 1250 hours. Among the following production plans, which of the following combination meets the machine availability constraints and maximizes the profit? A. P1 75 kg, P2 80 kg C. P1 50 kg, P2 100 kg B. P1 100 kg, P2 60 kg D. P1 60 kg, P2 90 kg Page 25 of 48 83. If the complex number z1 and z2 are such that
1 = 12 and

2− 3 − 4

= 5, then the minimum value of

1−

2 is: A. 0 C. 7 B. 2 D. None of these 84. If , β, γ and be four angles of a cyclic quadrilateral, then the value of cos + cosβ + cosγ + cos is: A. -1 C. 1 B. 0 D. None of these 85. The following data represent the age of husband (y) and wife (x) for 10 couples: X Y 18 20 20 22 24 26 24 26 22 24 27 24 21 25 27 27 28 28 29 30 i. What is the predicted age of husband when age of wife is 23? ii. What is the predicted age of wife when age of husband is 35? A. 35.735 and 29.389 C. 37.223 and 29.389 B. 31.76 and 31.334 D. None of these 86. At the end of the year 2002, Rajoria Institute of Management (RIM) had conducted 108 Management Development Programmes (MDP). Henceforth, every year the institute added p% of the MDP topics at the beginning of the year and discarded q% of the outdated MDP topics at the end of the year, where p > 0 and q > O. If RIM scheduled 108 MDP programmes at the end of the year 2006, which one ofihe following is true? A. p = q C. p > q B. p < q D.
=
2 87. The digging work of the DMRC on the Adchini-Andheriamore stretch requires Twenty-four men to complete the work in sixteen days. As a part of the task if DMRC were to hire Thirty-two women, they can complete the same work in twenty-four days. Sixteen men and sixteen women started working and worked for twelve days. Due to time bound schedule the work had to be completed in remaining 2 days, for which how many more men are to be employed? A. 48 C. 36 B. 24 D. 16 88. Sumit works as a state contractor for PWD and supplies bitumen mix for road construction. He has two varieties of bitumen, one at Rs.42per kg and the other at RS.25 per kg. How many kg of first variety must Sumit mix with 25 kg of second variety, so that he may, on selling the mixture at 40 kg, gain 25% on the outlay? A. 30 C. 25 B. 20 D. None of these Page 26 of 48 95. If we calculate the difference between the highest and the lowest average annual export growth rate experienced by the countries year-wise, the difference would be minimum during _________. A. 1999-00. C. 2004-05. B. 2001-02. D. 2003-04. Page 29 of 48 City Table2: Industrial Emission Level of SO2in Select City Points (1997-2003) Annual Mean Concentration Range (µg/m3) 1997 1998 1999 2000 2001 2001 2003 Anpara Bangalore Bombay Calcutta Cochin Faridabad Gajroula Madras Mysore Nagda Pondichery Solapur Yamuna 54.1 28.1 36 33.2 7.4 37.8 25.8 26.3 32.4 81.8 112.3 19.4 27.8 57.9 37.2 21.7 40.8 4.9 35.7 19.7 14.2 32.1 55.2 114.9 17.2 32.2 59.3 37.9 22.3 66.9 10.5 31.3 25.7 11.7 31 26.9 93.3 18 9.8 64.6 19.1 11.8 25.3 41.6 37.3 26.6 20.1 30.7 52.6 37.6 18.9 18.9 53 19.3 12 21.9 24.6 23.1 35.5 26.1 24.1 46.5 17.5 19.4 22.1 30.1 12.1 9.7 13.3 31.5 13.1 41.1 40.9 20.6 36.5 19.8 20.1 28.6 18.7 7.6 7.4 18.1 23.4 9.5 39.3 26.3 11.2 36.5 25.3 19.9 28.2 96. Which of the following statement is false? A. Average annual levels of SO2emission for Pondichery over 1998-2003 is approximately 51.40 µg/m 3. B. Average annual levels of SO2emission for Anpara over 1997-2003 is approximately 48.24 µg/m 3. C. Average annual levels of SO2emission for Madras over 1999-2003 is approximately 25.02 µg/m 3. D. Average annual levels of SO2emission for Yamuna Nagar during 1997-2003 is approximately23.74 µg/m3. 97. If the highest average level of SO2emission among the given cities is noted year-wise, then their difference would be maximum for the following pair of years: A. 1998 and 2003. C. 1997 and 2003. 98. Which of the following statement is true? B. 1997 and 2001. D. 1998 and 2002. A. Bangalore in 2003 registered the lowest level of SO2 emission in relation to the given dataset. B. The difference between the average annual level of SO2 emission during 1997-2003 for Pondichery and Gajroula is lower than the corresponding average annual level for Mysore. C. The average annual level of SO2 emission during 1997-2000 for Faridabad is higher than the average annual level for the city for the entire period (1997-2003). D. The sum of the average annual level of SO2 emission during 1997-2003 for Bombay and Calcutta is lower than the corresponding average annual level for Anpara. Page 30 of 48 99. If the SO2 emission level change for the given cities is noted year-wise, the difference would be maximum for which of the following option? A. Cochin and Pondichery during 1999-2000. B. Calcutta and Nagda during 1998-1999. C. Madras and Anpara during 2001-2002. D. Nagda and Pondichery during 1997-98. 100. Which of the following statement is true? A. While for Anpara, the SO2 annual emission level declined consistently during 2000-2001 and 2002-2003, the same increased consistently for Yamuna Nagar between 1998-99 and 2001-02. B. During 2002-2003, the SO2 annual emission level declined for maximum number of cities. C. The absolute decline in annual SO2 emission level in for Bombay during 1997-1998 was lower than the corresponding figure for Faridabad during 2000-2001. D. The number of cities which experienced a decline in their annual SO2 emission level during 1999- 2000 was more than the corresponding figure during 1998-1999. Page 31 of 48 109. If the region-wise average export growth rates of the three industries are analyzed, __________ would be ranked second. A. Intra-Asia average export of chemicals during 2003-05. B. Intra-Europe average export of iron and steel during 2004-05. C. Intra-Asia average export of automotive part during 2003-05. D. Intra-North America average export of iron and steel during 2003-05. Table 5: FDI Projects, by Investor/Destination Region Note: FDI projects ‘by source’ is defined as ‘outflow’, while the same ‘by destination’ is defined as ‘inflow’. (in Numbers) Country 2002 World as Destination 2003 2004 By Source 2005 2002 World as Source 2003 2004 By Destination 2005 Total World Developed Countries France Germany UK US Japan Developing Countries China South Korea India Singapore Russian Federation 5685 4903 322 473 438 1604 472 707 35 117 89 57 51 9348 7735 475 833 709 2397 878 1440 107 179 175 90 119 9927 8443 525 862 746 2507 1025 1294 96 169 199 103 108 9488 8057 502 919 752 2479 744 1243 128 173 182 79 126 5685 2746 140 131 326 417 106 2362 586 60 249 108 199 9348 3867 159 272 414 589 133 4467 1303 110 452 154 429 9927 4144 229 251 490 584 155 4806 1547 104 688 174 380 9488 3981 385 212 541 527 118 4296 1196 115 564 154 479 110. During 2003-04, which pair of developed and developing countries registered the highest growth rate in their number of FDI outflow projects? A. France, India C. Japan, Singapore B. France, Singapore D. UK, India 111. An analysis of the annual FDI projects inflow growth rate reveals that the second largest decline has occurred for _________ during ________. A. India, 2004-05. B. Russian Federation, 2003-04. C. China, 2004-05. D. Germany, 2004-05. 112. The absolute difference between Singapore
s highest growth rate in number of FDI projects inflow in a single year during 2002-05 and UK
s highest growth rate in FDI projects outflow in a single year during the same period is: A. 19.28 percent. B. 15.28 percent. C. 21.26 percent. D. None of the above. Page 34 of 48 113. Which of the following statement is true? A. The growth rate of FDI projects inflow in UK was lower than the same in Japan during 2002-03. B. The average FDI projects inflow growth rate in Germany between 2002-03 and 2004-05 has been higher than its average FDI projects outflow growth rate over the same period. C. The growth rate in FDI projects outflow from the US during 2002-03 has been higher than the corresponding figure for France. D. The growth rate in FDI projects inflow to the UK during 2003-04 has been lower than the corresponding figure for Japan. 114. Which of the following statement is false? A. The growth rate of FDI projects outflow from the developed countries during 2004-05 has been lower than the same for the world as a whole. B. The growth rate of FDI projects inflow to Singapore during 2003-04 has been higher than the same for South Korea during 2004-05. C. The average growth rate of FDI projects inflow from developing countries between 2002-03 and 2004-05 has been higher than their corresponding figure for FDI projects outflow. D. The growth rate of FDI projects inflow to Singapore during 2004-05 has been more negative as compared to the corresponding figure for Russian Federation during 2003-04. 115. Which of the following statement is true? A. The average growth fate of FDI projects outflow from India between 2002-03 and 2004-05 has been higher than it
s corresponding figure for FDI project inflow. B. The average growth rate of FDI project outflow from Germany between 2002-03 and 2004-05 has been lower than the average growth rate of FDI project inflow to South Korea over the same period. C. The average absolute FDI project outflow from the UK during 2002-05 has been higher than the average absolute FDI project inflow to India over the same period. D. Germany is the only country which did not experience a decline in FDI project outflow during 2002-05. 116. Which of the following statement is false? A. The average FOI project outflow from South Korea expressed as a percentage of the total FDI project outflow from the developing countries during 2002-05 was higher than the average FDI project inflow to the UK expressed as a percentage of the FDI project inflow to the developed countries during the same period. B. The FD1 project outflow from the US expressed as a percentage of the total FDI project outflow from the developed countries in 2002 was higher than the FDI project inflow to China expressed as a percentage of the FDI project inflow to the developing countries in 2004. C. The average FDI project outflow from Germany expressed as a percentage of the total FDI project outflow from the developed countries during 2002-05 is higher than the average FDI project inflow to Russian Federation expressed as a percentage of the FDI Project inflow to the developing countries during the same period. D. The FDI project outflow from India expressed as a percentage of the total FDI project outflow from the developing countries in 2004 is lower than the FDI project inflow to the US expressed as a percentage of the FDI project inflow to the developed Countries in 2003. 34 SECTION - D (PART – i) Page 35 of 48 Directions for Questions 117-128: Read the three passages carefully and answer the questions given at the end of each passage: Passage – 1 The trouble started on May 4, 2004, only days after Google
s celebrated coming out party. Geico, the giant automobile insurer, filed a lawsuit against the search engine for trademark infringement. The insurer claimed that Google
s advertising system unlawfully profited from trademarks that Geico owned. Since all of Google
s revenue and growth was from advertising, the disclosure of the lawsuit appeared ominous. “We are, and may be in the future, subject to intellectual property rights claims, which are costly to defend, could require us to pay damages, and could limit our ability to use certain technologies,” Google disclosed in a public filing outlining potential risks. Abroad, where Google had promising growth prospects, similar court challenges also arose. “A court in France held us liable for allowing advertisers to select certain trademarked terms as keywords,” the company declared. “We have appealed this decision. We were also subject to two lawsuits in Germany on similar matters.” To make matters worse, it turned out that prior to its IPO filing, Google had eased its trademark policy in the U.S., allowing companies to place ads even if they were pegged to terms trademarked and owned by others. That was a significant shift, and one. Google warned could increase the risk of lawsuits against the company. It was also a practice that Yahoo, its search engine rival, did not permit. Google claimed it made the policy change to serve users, but some financial analysis said it appeared designed to pump profits before the IPO. And there was more. Competition from Yahoo and Microsoft posed a greater challenge to Google following the disclosure about its mammoth profitability. With so much money at stake, the intensity of the competition would heat up. Such competition might be good for computer users searching the Internet, but Google said it posed additional risk for potential shareholders, “If Microsoft or Yahoo are successful in providing similar or better Web search results compared to ours or leverage their platforms to make their Web search services easier to access than ours, we could experience a significant decline in user traffic,” the company disclosed. In addition, Google warned that its momentum seemed unsustainable due to competition and “the inevitable decline in growth rates as our revenues increase to a higher level.” Then there was the question of Google
s exclusive reliance on advertising, and one particular type of advertising, for all of its revenue. That was potentially quite problematic. If Yahoo or Microsoft gained ground on search, users could flock to their Web sites, and advertisers could follow. “The reduction in spending by; or loss of, advertisers could seriously harm our business,” the company disclosed in its SEC filing. In the beginning, the firm earned all of its money from ads triggered by searches on Google.com. But now, most of its growth and half of its sales were coming primarily from the growing network of Web sites that displayed ads Google provided. This self-reinforcing network had a major stake in Google's successful future. It gave the search engine, operating in the manner of a television network providing ads and programming to network affiliates, a sustainable competitive advantage. But there was a dark side there too, because of the substantial revenue from a handful of Google partners, notably America Online and the search engine Ask Jeeves. If at any point they left Google and cut a deal with Microsoft or Yahoo, the lost revenue would be immense and difficult to replace. "If one or more of these key relationships is terminated or not renewed, and is not replaced with a comparable relationship, our business would be adversely affected," the company stated. Google's small, nonintrusive text ads were a big hit. But like major television and cable networks, which were hurt by innovations that enabled users to tune out commercials, the company faced the risk that users could simply turn ads off if new technologies emerged. Page 36 of 48 Passage 2 Around the turn of the century; an interesting trend was slowly becoming prominent in retailing across the globe. Department stores were slowly becoming less and less popular with customers. Large department stores offered a wide range of product categories - from apparel, luggage, toys, crockery, to home furnishing - as well as owned and managed the stock of products they sold inside the store and from their warehouses. Industry analysts stared questioning whether this could still be the ideal retail model, and whether the changing retail environment marked the end of large department stores as we knew them. On one side there were the stores that focussed on a particular category - electronics, toys, women's wear or home appliances. Over the years, these had evolved into giant superstores and had become very popular with customers who went shopping for a particular product. On the other hand, there were discounters, hypermarkets and wholesale clubs that served the bargain-hunting customer very well. Department stores were squeezed in between and the new age shoppers found their ambience to be formal and boring. To keep pace with these trends, some department stores were steadily reinventing themselves. The most prominent among them was UK based Selfridges chain. In 2003, Selfridges launched a new store in Birmingham, England that completely reinvented the idea of the department store. Brands competed with each other within the store bur there was no hierarchy of goods: watches competed with perfume, and luggage with fashion. In addition the store organised various shows, stunts and performances through the day and called it, 'shopping entertainment.' Similar stores had come up in various parts of Southeast Asia, Japan and Europe. For customers, these new-age department stores seemed like a mall, just that they didn't have the walls that separate the different stores within a mail. While this trend was becoming more and more apparent abroad, within India too, certain consumer patterns were emerging. Our experience showed that a customer visiting a mall typically walks into four or five stores. That includes a large store and a few smaller brand showrooms. After that fatigue sets in and he or she is unwilling to walk into any more stores at the mall. So we asked ourselves, what would happen if we removed the walls between the different stores in a mall? In that case, a customer would be exposed to multiple brands at the same time, without the necessity of walking in and out of different stores. And along with shopping we could also provide her with other entertainment options. Within the company itself there was a renewed confidence and an urge to play a larger role in shaping the modern retailing space in India. We had completed more than six years in retailing. With Big Bazaar we had tried and tested our skills at offering a wide range of categories while Pantaloons was firmly positioned in the lifestyle segment. We could now create shopping and entertainment landmarks in the cities in which we had already established a strong presence. These three insights - the metamorphosis of department stores into developed markets; customer fatigue at the existing shopping malls in India; and the need to create destination malls in Indian cities - formed the genesis of the next format we started working on, Central. The objective was to create a retail format that was much larger and totally different from what India had seen till then. It would offer everything - from multiple brands for shopping, to restaurants, coffee shops, entertainment options and gaming zones - all under one roof. If we were able to deliver on these two fronts, we could attract customers from every part of the city and make it the city's prime shopping destination. There were a couple of other issues that the Central model addressed quite well. Pantaloons outlets had limited space. We were positioning it as a fashion destination and the business model was based on selling mostly brands that we owned, or what are called private labels. However, with its increasing popularity; we were being approached by multiple foreign and Indian brands to stock these at Pantaloons. Central, being far bigger in size allowed us to open up a lot of space for other brands. However, unlike in any other mall, these brands didn't pay us rent. Instead the brands paid us a certain percentage of their sales in the mall as Page 39 of 48 commission. Based on the performance of these brands, we could decide on which to keep and which to discard. The first Central mall was launched in Bangalore in May 2004. Measuring 1,20,000 square feet, it was spread over six floors and housed over three hundred brands in categories like apparel, footwear, accessories, home furnishing, music and books. In addition we had coffee shops, food courts, a Food Bazaar, restaurants, pubs and discotheques. A customer could also book tickets for movies and concerts, book travel tickets and make bill payments. What has primarily made Central the 'destination mall' for Bangalore is its location. It is located in the heart of the city, at M.G. Road, where once Hotel Victoria stood. Moreover, we added a lot of features to further establish it as the focal point of the city. The Central Square located outside the mall building has been made available for art exhibitions, cultural performances, shows and product launches. And in 2005, the vintage car rally was flagged off from the Central flag-point, which has since become the epicentre for many such events. Thus, Central captured in all its glory what we wanted a destination mall to be, and lived up to its tagline of „Shop, Eat, and Celebrate.' Soon after the launch of Bangalore Central, we opened the second Central in Hyderabad in November 2004. Once again it was located at the heart of the city on the Punjagutta Cross Road. Here, the roads connecting the city centre with Secunderabad, Jubilee Hills and the old part of the city; converge. It was more than double the size of Bangalore Central. Apart from over hundreds of brands to shop, it had food courts, restaurants, as well as a five-screen multiplex managed by PVR Cinemas. Much like the one in Bangalore, Hyderabad Central didn't take much time to become the nerve centre of the city. With an annual retail turnover of around Rs 200 crore it is presently among the largest retail destinations in the country. 121. Which of the following statement is true? A. The Central mall in Hyderabad in 2004 occupies more than 2,40,000 square meter in area and currently considered as one of the largest retail destinations in the country with a generated annual retail turnover of around Rs.200 crore. B. It has been observed during the last decade that the hypermarkets are slowing, failing to retain consumers in competition with the department stores. C. The market analysis convinced the company referred in the text that the time is ripe to introduce now shopping and entertainment landmarks in cities, where they already enjoy some market presence. D. While the consumers were able to look for a certain category of products at length in the specialty stores, wholesale clubs allowed them to purchase a number of products at a cheap and negotiable 122. Which of the following statement is false? A. The recent consumer response towards department stores led to the quest for a new business Model which may replace it in the coming days. rate. B. Since inauguration the Central Square outside the mall in Hyderabad has been used for various purposes so far including, art exhibitions, cultural shows, product launches etc. C. When the company mentioned in the passage decided to capitalize on the emerging changes in consumer mindset on the retail sales, they already had an experience of nearly six years of operating in this market segment. D. The changing structural framework of the new type of malls became very popular in various European and Southeast Asian countries, owing to their boundary-less arrangement of products, coupled with shopping entertainment options. Page 40 of 48 123. Which of the following terms has not been mentioned in the above passage? A. Department Stores C. Wholesale Clubs 124. Which of the following statement is true? B. Hypermarkets D. Super-speciality stores A. The firm discussed here allowed various foreign and Indian garment companies to display their products in their show room on the condition that they will pay them either some rent, or a pre- decided percentage of their sales as commission. B. Before going for the Central venture, the firm already had the experience of offering a wide range of product categories through Big Bazaar and in specialized segments through Pantaloons. C. The Central mall in Bangalore provided importance to both goods and services for business development; it displayed around two hundred brands in categories like garments, footwear, music, books etc. On one hand, and ensured eating and entertainment options, ticket-booking for movies and concerts, travel services and bill payments within its premises on the other. D. The reasons behind the losing out of the specialty stores had been multifarious, covering the traditional and unexciting environment, steep price competition from other rivals, inflexibility in operation etc. 125. Which of the following statement is false? A. In tune with the changing time, the new store created in Birmingham allowed brand competition within the store without explicit hierarchy of products, and organized various events to ensure lively amusement for the shoppers. B. Since visiting different stores even within a mega shopping complex gets monotonous once the initial excitement is over, the exposure to multiple brands simultaneously with removal of the walls has been a consumer-friendly move. C. The idea behind setting up a mega retail network was to make it city's unique shopping location by ensuring exposure to multiple brands on one hand, and by making it an excellent hang-out option through setting up of entertainment and nourishment options on the other. D. The market analysis by the company described in the passage revealed that a representative buyer to a shopping centre goes to at the most four or five stores, selecting large or small showrooms randomly. Page 41 of 48 SECTION- D (PART- ii) 129. Mark the sentence which used the underlined word incorrectly: A. When Ram started enquiring about the conditions of his business, the childlike directness of his approach left Shyam baffled. B. After the huge loss in the new venture, Amol realized that he had been childish in his trust and confidence. C. The childlike gullibility of Bimal has always annoyed Kamal. D. When the boss demanded an explanation from Amit for not submitting the project report in time, he burst into a childish fit of temper. 130. Mark the correct sentence in the following: A. Remember, when we tried to sort out the difference over the new project with Mr. Singh, he spoke to you and I as if we were babies? B. Was it them who informed you about the music concert yesterday? C. The picture on the wall, which was taken years back, doesn't look a little like I. D. Was it she you were talking about during the discussion last week? Page 44 of 48 Directions for question 131-134: Select the right pair of words to fill in the blanks. 131. The bell, hung on the door by means of a curved ribbon of steel, was to circumvent. It was hopelessly cracked; but of an evening, at the slightest provocation, it clattered behind the customer with virulence. A. impossible, melodious C. difficult, impudent B. effortless, loud D. daunting, harmonious 132. A question caused him to stutter to the point of suffocation. When startled by anything perplexing he used to squint . A. courteous, palpably C. considerate, genially B. brusque, horribly D. civil, frightfully 133. Vanity and pride are things, though the words are often used . A person may be proud without being vain. Pride relates more to our of ourselves, vanity to what we would have others think of us. A. same, differently, analysis C. different, synonymously, opinion B. analogous, similarly, evaluation D. dissimilar, carelessly, view 134. During the heated discussion, the Leader of the group refuted all the claims brought by his opponents. Later everybody acknowledged that he survived by most luck. A. ingeniously, incredible C. ingenuously, incredible Directions for question 135-136: B. ingeniously, incredulous D. ingenuously, incredulous The following four pairs may have synonymous or antonymous or part-whole relationships or no relationship at all with the pair provided in the question. Select the pair of words which has the closest relationship with the numbered pair. 135. COMMUNICATION: MESSAGE:: A. Humour: Delight C. Clarification: Doubt 136. ACTIVATE: DETONATE:: A. Deaden: Defuse C. Connect: Detach B. Expression: Words D. Emission: Cosmic B. Quicken: Mutilate D. Inform: Deform Page 45 of 48 Directions for question 137: The following four pairs may have synonymous or antonymous or part-whole relationships or no relationship at all with the pair provided in the question. Select the pair of words which has no relationship with the numbered pair. 137. PLENTlTUDE : ABUNDANCE A. Augury: Divination C. Perspicacity: Transparency Directions for question 138-141: B. Indurate: Consolidate D. Mulet: Muzzle Select the words from the options below that have the farthest meaning to the given word: 138. REPUDIATE A. Sanction C. Transient 139. GRANDILOQUENT A. Immature C. Unpleasant 140. VENERATION A. Congregate C. Consecrate 141. PERSPICACIOUS A. Judicious C. Adroit Direction for Questions 142-144: B. Afflict D. Prowl B. Innocent D. Simple B. Loquacious D. Burlesque B. Obtuse D. cerebral Mark the wrongly spelt word mentioned among the following options: 142. 143. 144. A. Contemporaneous C. Epicurean A. Opprobrium C. Vicisitude A. Exonerate C. Flatulant B. Belligerent D. Recalcitrent B. Iniquitous D. Pusillanimous B. Unctuous D. Disencumber Page 46 of 48