EPHOC Training (For REHS Exam) With 100% Correct And Verified Answers, Exams of Advanced Education

Download EPHOC Training (For REHS Exam) With 100% Correct And Verified Answers and more Exams Advanced Education in PDF only on Docsity! EPHOC Training (For REHS Exam) With 100% Correct And Verified Answers Which is NOT one of the core functions of Environmental Public Health? a. assurance b. coordination c. assessment d. policy development - Correct Answer-b. coordination Monitoring environmental and health status to identify and solve community environmental health problems is one of the: a. Core Competencies of Environmental Public Health b. Ten Essential Services of Environmental Public Health c. Revitalization Strategies of Environmental Public Health d. None of the above - Correct Answer-b. Ten Essential Services of Environmental Public Health Which one of the following phrases most accurately describes the term endemic? a. sporadic occurrence of an illness b. illnesses that exceed expected levels c. all illnesses present at any one time d. constant presence of an illness in a population - Correct Answer-d. constant presence of an illness in a population The interval between exposure to an infectious agent and the appearance of the first symptom is called the: a. transmission period b. incubation period c. susceptible period d. reactive period - Correct Answer-b. incubation period In the states, government authority to regulate for environmental public health is based on: a. The Bill of Rights b. United States Code of Federal Regulations c. Police powers d. The United States Constitution - Correct Answer-c. Police powers A food establishment known to have an imminent health hazard is not closed by the environmental public health professional. This is an example of: a. nonfeasance b. malfeasance c. misfeasance d. laziness - Correct Answer-a. nonfeasance Campylobacter is mostly associated with: a. contaminated water b. infected birds c. infected ticks d. contaminated food - Correct Answer-d. contaminated food A person that harbors a specific infectious agent in the absence of clinical symptoms and can serve as a potential source of infection is known as a: a. contact b. pathogen c. carrier d. toxin - Correct Answer-c. carrier An epidemic is the occurrence in a community or region of cases of illness clearly in excess of expectancy: a. True b. False - Correct Answer-a. True An example of a non-communicable disease is: a. diabetes b. cholera c. influenza d. measles - Correct Answer-a. diabetes The environmental health specialist must understand the epidemiological concept of disease process including host, agent and the environment and their interactions. a. True b. False - Correct Answer-a. True Inanimate objects that transfer disease organisms are called: a. dead b. arthropods c. fomites d. hormones - Correct Answer-c. fomites The goals of epidemiology do NOT include: a. prosecuting the person or company responsible b. determining the cause of the disease or outbreak c. preventing future disease or outbreak occurrence d. none of the above - Correct Answer-a. prosecuting the person or company responsible The BEST example in this list of where environmental public health can be practiced is: a. local law enforcement agencies b. state drinking water agencies b. state agencies c. state agents and employees d. qualified volunteers performing a state function e. all of the above - Correct Answer-e. all of the above Right of entry, search warrants, and seizures are addressed in law concerning inspections. a. True b. False - Correct Answer-a. True What established the three branches of the federal government and principle of separation of power? a. 14th amendment b. 18th amendment c. bill of rights d. constitution e. bylaws - Correct Answer-d. constitution Which of the following are the major environmental health regulatory agencies in most states? (2 answers) a. environmental protection of management b. public safety c. public health d. human resources - Correct Answer-a. environmental protection of management c. public health Which of the following are examples of the exercise of police powers of government? a. permitting b. licensing c. inspecting d. criminal prosecution e. all of the above - Correct Answer-e. all of the above Permits or licenses provide legal authorization to engage in an activity that is otherwise prohibited by law. a. True b. False - Correct Answer-a. True Which of the following are types of non-litigation enforcement? a. arbitration b. mediation c. negotiation d. settlement e. all of the above - Correct Answer-e. all of the above If non-litigation efforts fail, the only alternative is incarceration. a. True b. False - Correct Answer-b. False Which of the following relate to the Administrative Procedures codes? a. some of the environmental health powers b. applies to state agencies having express statutory authority to promulgate roles and regulations c. authority to amend or appeal rules and regulations d. prescribe methods and procedures required in connection therewith e. all of the above - Correct Answer-e. all of the above Which of the following is often NOT a division within Departments of Environmental Protection or Management? a. food b. air c. water d. land e. none of the above - Correct Answer-a. food Public nuisances are conditions that are or are likely to become menaces to public health. a. True b. False - Correct Answer-a. True Any person who violates any of the health or quarantine laws may be guilty of: a. a breach of the peace b. a nuisance c. a misdemeanor d. a felony - Correct Answer-c. a misdemeanor Environmental public health law is rooted in traditional state police problems, but now depends on a network of federal, state and local regulations. a. True b. False - Correct Answer-a. True Any person who knowingly violates or fails to obey or comply with any rule or regulation adopted and promulgated by an environmental health agency shall be guilty of a(n): a. violation b. misdemeanor c. felony d. error in judgement e. none of the above - Correct Answer-b. misdemeanor ISO standards specify the requirements for state-of-the-art products, services, processes, materials, and systems. ISO stands for: a. Industrial Sanitation Organization b. International Organization for Standardization c. Internal Security Outcomes d. Organization for Systems Integrity e. none of the above - Correct Answer-b. International Organization for Standardization The National Science Foundation (NSF) is a United States government agency that supports fundamental research and education in all the non-medical fields of science and engineering. a. True b. False - Correct Answer-a. True Other standard setting bodies of importance to environmental health regulatory practices are: (2 answers) a. NSF International and Underwriters Laboratory b. The National Fire Protection Association c. The Environmental Health Board of Inquiry d. Inspection Standards Foundation of the U.S. - Correct Answer-a. NSF International and Underwriters Laboratory b. The National Fire Protection Association 1990 amendments to the Clean Air Act address which of the following? a. air pollution prevention and control b. emissions standards for moving sources c. acid deposition control d. stratospheric ozone protection e. all of the above - Correct Answer-e. all of the above The Clean Air Act's standards for moving sources addresses motor vehicle and aircraft emissions, clean fuel vehicles, and nautical vehicle emissions. a. True b. False - Correct Answer-b. False Which act listed below provides protection of human health and environments through regulation of solid and hazardous waste handling and disposal? a. Noise Control Act (NCA) b. Solid and Hazardous Waste Reduction Act (SHWR) c. Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA) d. Toxic Substances Control Act (TSCA) e. all of the above - Correct Answer-c. Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA) The Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation and Liability Act (CERCLA), commonly known as Superfund, gives federal authority to respond to releases or threatened releases of hazardous substances. a. True b. False - Correct Answer-a. True Food service equipment may be constructed of any material as long as it is smooth and easily cleanable. a. True b. False - Correct Answer-b. False Food service equipment may be installed: (2 answers) a. directly on the floor b. on 3 inch legs c. on casters d. mounted and sealed to the floor - Correct Answer-c. on casters d. mounted and sealed to the floor A large floor type mixer: a. May be washed, rinsed, and sanitized in place b. Must be sealed to the floor if it can not be easily moved c. Must fit into the vats of a 3 comp sink d. Cannot be used in an est. if it can't fit in the dish machine - Correct Answer-a. may be washed, rinsed, and sanitized in place Layout of equipment affects: a. The flow of food in an establishment b. The potential for cross contamination c. The number of employees on a shift - Correct Answer-a. the flow of food in an establishment b. the potential for cross contamination Sanitization in a dish machine typically is achieved through one of these two methods: a. hot soapy water or clear final rinse b. low temperature chemical or high temperature final rinse c. high temperature wash or chemical wash d. high temperature wash or high temperature chemical - Correct Answer-b. low temperature chemical or high temperature final rinse What is the purpose of inspections of food facilities? a. to make sure that all food establishments are clean b. to make sure that all equipment in the establishment is approved c. to justify the existence of the health department d. to reduce the occurrence of foodborne illness e. all of the above - Correct Answer-e. all of the above The concept of personal hygiene includes: a. proper handwashing b. no bare hand contact of ready-to-eat food c. an employee health policy that restricts and/or excludes sick employees d. all of the above - Correct Answer-d. all of the above Active managerial control is the purposeful incorporation of specific action or procedures by food service industry management into the operation of their business to attain control over foodborne illness risk factors. a. true b. false - Correct Answer-a. true An inspector should set an example during a food facility inspection by: a. sneezing into their hand b. washing hands before the start of the inspection c. touching ready-to-eat food with bare hands d. sanitizing their thermometer between foods - Correct Answer-b. washing hands before the start of the inspection d. sanitizing their thermometer between foods Ciguatera is a naturally occurring chemical hazard in large reef fish. A. True B. False - Correct Answer-a. true Which of the following are three types of hazards found in food? a. mold, spores, and insecticides b. physical, chemical, and biological c. bones, glass, and bacteria d. allergens, viruses, and parasites e. all of the above - Correct Answer-b. physical, chemical, and biological Key factors that affect bacterial growth in food are: food or nutrients, acidity, temperature, time, oxygen, and moisture. a. true b. false - Correct Answer-a. true Critical limits must be measurable and verifiable. a. true b. false - Correct Answer-a. true An example of a critical control point and critical limit is: a. cooking chicken to 165 F for 15 seconds b. labeling chemical containers with common name and expiration date c. wearing gloves to prepare raw chicken then changing gloves d. receiving and washing raw chicken e. none of the above - Correct Answer-a. cooking chicken to 165 F for 15 seconds A hazard analysis involves identification of biological hazards inherent with a specific food. a. true b. false - Correct Answer-a. true Critical control points are steps in a food preparation process at which temperatures must be taken. a. true b. false - Correct Answer-b. false Bacillus cereus is an example of spore forming bacteria. a. true b. false - Correct Answer-a. true For which of the following microorganisms is chlorine a good disinfectant? a. bacteria, viruses, cryptosporidium b. bacteria, viruses c. bacteria and cryptosporidium d. viruses and cryptosporidium - Correct Answer-b. bacteria, viruses What is the most appropriate use of chloramines in water treatment? a. primary disinfectants b. secondary disinfectants and depressants of disinfectant by-product formation c. primary and secondary disinfectants d. none of the above - Correct Answer-b. secondary disinfectants and depressants of disinfectant by-product formation What is the primary purpose of a residual disinfectant in the water distribution system? a. to kill pathogens that were not removed by the primary treatment in the plant b. to prevent disease outbreaks caused by cross connections c. to reduce regrowth of biofilms and normally nonpathogenic microorganisms d. to kill cryptosporidium that are not filtered in the treatment plant - Correct Answer-c. to reduce regrowth of biofilms and normally nonpathogenic microorganisms Which of the following is true about ground waters? a. they are often safe to use without disinfection b. they are sometimes contaminated by natural contaminants like arsenic and can be contaminated by septic tank and surface contaminants c. they are virtually microbiologically safe if not Ground Water Under the Direct Influence of Surface Water (GWUDI) d. all of the above - Correct Answer-d. all of the above Why is conventional water treatment usually required for surface source waters? a. it reduces particulates, turbidity, and microbial contamination b. it effectively removes SOCs and VOCs c. it is cheaper than disinfection d. all of the above - Correct Answer-a. it reduces particulates, turbidity, and microbial contamination Why must almost all surface waters and ground waters under the direct influence of surface waters be evaluated and treated in some way for cryptosporidium parvum? b. genotoxic chemicals have MCLGs of zero, and hypothetical cancer risk levels are calculated from mathematical models c. MCLs are set as close to the MCLG as technically and economically feasible d. all of the above - Correct Answer-d. all of the above Which of the following is correct regarding the Lead and Copper Rule? a. lead and copper are common source water contaminants b. the MCL for lead is 0.015 mg/L c. lead sampling is done in the home on 1 liter first draw water samples that have been stagnant for at least 6 hours in the pipe d. lead and copper are treated by coagulation - Correct Answer-c. lead sampling is done in the home on 1 liter first draw water samples that have been stagnant for at least 6 hours in the pipe Which statement is correct regarding Drinking Water suppliers? a. they are a significant contributor to cancer risks in the population due to disinfection by-products b. they should be disinfected to become sterile so that no bacteria are present in the water c. they always have the potential risk of microbial contamination that must be managed and protected d. they should be retreated in the home with point-of-use or point-of-entry systems - Correct Answer-c. they always have the potential risk of microbial contamination that must be managed and protected Why are indicator organisms rather than individual pathogens usually used as standards for water quality management? a. indicators are easier and less expensive to monitor water quality b. it would be necessary to monitor for dozens of individual pathogens c. it is generally not necessary to know which specific pathogens might be present in the source water, but just that they are being controlled d. all of the above - Correct Answer-d. all of the above Bacteria with the ability to live under both aerobic and anaerobic conditions are called: a. obligate bacteria b. facultative bacteria c. anoxic aerobic bacteria d. non-facultative bacteria - Correct Answer-b. facultative bacteria The difference between the initial dissolved oxygen in a sample of water and the dissolved oxygen in a duplicate sample after a stated period of time is referred to as: a. total suspended solids b. chemical oxygen demand c. total nitrogen d. biochemical oxygen demand - Correct Answer-d. biochemical oxygen demand Which of the following is NOT a disease/infection associated with drinking contaminated water? a. hepatitis A b. dysentery c. typhoid fever d. hepatitis D - Correct Answer-d. hepatitis D Nitrogen, phosphorous, and ammonia are chemical compounds that are commonly found in wastewater and are capable of contaminating groundwater supplies and aquatic environments. Collectively, these compounds are often referred to as: a. supplements b. nutrients c. refractory organics d. redoximorphs - Correct Answer-b. nutrients Which of the following measurements of water pollution is considered the best single- strength measure of polluted water containing degradable wastes? a. TSS b. BOD c. fecal coliforms d. total nitrogen - Correct Answer-b. BOD Water quality classifications as assigned by the U.S. EPA and the states are based on: a. size of local wastewater treatment facilities b. the % of fresh vs. salt water available in a particular watershed c. the best overall usage of the water based on stream flow, quality, and desired use d. none of the above - Correct Answer-c. the best overall usage of the water based on stream flow, quality, and desired use The ____________ prohibits the discharge of pollutants into U.S. waters without a permit issued by EPA or the states. a. NRCS b. SWCS c. NPDES d. USGS - Correct Answer-c. NPDES The natural aging process of lakes and reservoirs is called: a. eutrophication b. oligotrophication c. mesotrophication d. autotrophication - Correct Answer-a. euthrophication Nutrients associated with eutrophication include all of the following EXCEPT: a. organic carbon b. potassium c. nitrogen d. phosphates - Correct Answer-b. potassium Aerobic bacteria require all of the following nutrients for their life processes EXCEPT: a. carbon b. magnesium c. phosphorous d. nitrogen - Correct Answer-b. magnesium Primary treatment of wastewater is primarily a ____________ process. a. physical b. biological c. chemical - Correct Answer-a. physical Secondary treatment of wastewater is primarily a _____________ process. a. physical b. biological c. chemical - Correct Answer-b. biological Tertiary treatment of wastewater is primarily a ___________ process. a. physical b. biological c. chemical - Correct Answer-c. chemical During primary treatment at a municipal wastewater treatment facility, wastewater enters the treatment plant and flows through: a. effluent filters b. rotating biological contactors c. geo-textile filters d. bar screens - Correct Answer-d. bar screens Which of the following is a type of secondary treatment system at municipal wastewater treatment facilities which consists of a bed of stones through which sewage is passed? a. biological contractor b. activated sludge c. suspended-growth system d. trickling filter - Correct Answer-d. trickling filter Secondary treatment of wastewater is accomplished by: a. removal of solids and large objects b. microorganisms consuming the dissolved organic matter c. disinfection d. coagulation - Correct Answer-b. microorganism consuming the dissolved organic matter The soil particle that is the smallest in size and has the slowest percolation rates is: A. Sand B. Silt C. Clay - Correct Answer-c. clay Identifying the type of vegetation (i.e trees and shrubs) found in a particular soil can be very helpful in determining that soil's suitability for onsite systems. a. true b. false - Correct Answer-a. true Which of the following is NOT a common method for evaluating soils for onsite systems? a. in-situ soil pits b. spectrometry test c. borings d. perc test - Correct Answer-b. spectrometry test Identifying the type of structures built in a particular soil can be very helpful in determining that soil's suitability for onsite systems. a. true b. false - Correct Answer-b. false All of the following are good sources of information about soils and landscape features for particular parcels of land EXCEPT: a. natural resource conservation service (NRCS) b. soil survey maps c. resource conservation and development councils (RC&D) d. geological maps - Correct Answer-c. resource conservation and development councils (RC&D) In general, soils are made up of minerals, gases, liquids, and organic matter A. True B. False - Correct Answer-a. true Alternative (advanced) secondary treatment filters are considered for use with onsite wastewater treatment systems UNLESS: a. impervious formations are found at a deep depth in the native soil b. space is limited and surface water supplies are inadequate c. highly porous, sandy soils exist d. high groundwater exists - Correct Answer-a. impervious formations are found at a deep depth in the native soil Which of the following is NOT an attached-growth treatment system? a. open-cell foam bio-filter b. geo-textile filter c. activated sludge system - Correct Answer-c. activated sludge system Secondary treatment systems for onsite applications are designed to: a. be less performance-based b. treat water to drinking quality c. provide treatment that normally occurs in the soil column d. remove heavy metals and biological contaminants - Correct Answer-c. provide treatment that normally occurs in the soil column Which of the following makes up the majority of non-hazardous waste generated within the United States each year? a. agricultural waste b. manufacturing waste c. municipal solid waste d. mining waste - Correct Answer-b. manufacturing waste The first American law passed to influence the disposal of solid waste was: a. clean air act b. rivers and harbors act c. clean water act d. toxic substance control act - Correct Answer-b. rivers and harbors act This method is the primary means by which solid waste is disposed of within the United States: a. incineration b. waste to energy c. composting d. landfill - Correct Answer-d. landfill Which of the following waste streams are NOT a component of Municipal Solid Waste? a. residential refuse b. commercial garbage c. institutional trash d. construction debris - Correct Answer-d. construction debris According to the US EPA, the average American generates approximately how much waste per day? a. 2.3 lbs b. 4.6 lbs c. 6.2 lbs d. 8.1 lbs - Correct Answer-b. 4.6 lbs This is the preferred method of solid waste managment: a. reduce b, recycle c. reuse d. recover - Correct Answer-a. reduce Americans currently "recycle" ______________ % of their waste annually. a. 10 b. 20 c. 30 d. 40 - Correct Answer-c. 30 This method allows Americans to "reuse" up to 25% of their discarded waste. a. incineration b. waste to energy c. recycling d. composting - Correct Answer-d. composting Waste to energy facilities can effectively reduce MSW volume up to: a. 60% b. 70% c. 80% d. 90% - Correct Answer-d. 90% This gas, a by-product of decomposition, is mostly released from landfills: A. Carbon Dioxide B. Methane C. Ozone D. Sulfur Oxide - Correct Answer-b. methane This is utilized by landfills to limit vectors, fires, scavengers, odors, and the ilk A. Liner Systems B.Electric fences C. Alarms D. Daily Cover - Correct Answer-d. daily cover Landfill liners, which can be up to 4 ft thick, are primarily constructed to: A. Protect groundwater B. Eliminate odors C. Prevent erosion D. Protect ambient air quality - Correct Answer-a. protect groundwater After a landfill has stopped accepting waste, owners must ensure environmental safe operation for how long? A. 30 years B. 50 years C. 3 years D. 5 years - Correct Answer-a. 30 years The primary costs associated with solid waste management are: C. RCRA D. TSCA - Correct Answer-b. SARA - Title III The following parties are responsible in the "cradle to grave" waste manifest system: a. generators b. storage facilities c. transporters d. treatment/disposal facilities e. all of the above - Correct Answer-e. all of the above In addition to the EPA, this governmental agency is responsible for regulations pertaining to the proper labeling of hazardous materials containers: A. Dept of Commerce B. Dept of Interior C. Dept of Defense D. Dept of Transportation - Correct Answer-d. dept. of transportation According to the National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) Diamond, which of the following would represent the greatest danger? a. Red #1 b. Yellow #4 c. Blue #2 d. White #4 - Correct Answer-b. Yellow #4 The modern approach to hazardous waste management can best be phrased as: "regulation/treatment is the solution". a. true b. false - Correct Answer-b. false EPA's definition of "Acceptable Risk" is based solely on surrounding population's hazardous waste exposure A. True B. False - Correct Answer-b. false Hazardous waste generation began in the US along with the Petroleum Era (1930-50s). a. true b. false - Correct Answer-b. false The term "superfund" is associated with the passage of "The Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation and Liability Act (CERCLA)". a. true b. false - Correct Answer-a. true The RCRA definition of a hazardous waste is that it exhibits a hazardous characteristic and/or is a listed chemical. a. true b. false - Correct Answer-a. true The elimination of industrial hazardous waste is technologically feasible, just expensive. a. true b. false - Correct Answer-b. false The average American home contains over 100 lbs of hazardous materials. a. true b. false - Correct Answer-b. false Which of the following types of ionizing radiation is a wave versus a particle? a. alpha b. beta c. gamma - Correct Answer-c. gamma Which of the following types of ionizing radiation has the most mass? a. alpha b. beta c. gamma d. neutron - Correct Answer-a. alpha Which of the following types of ionizing radiation is the most penetrating? a. alpha b. beta c. gamma d. neutron - Correct Answer-d. neutron The half-life of radioactive element is a physical constant that CANNOT be changed by heating, freezing, or vaporizing. a. true b. false - Correct Answer-a. true If someone is exposed to ionizing radiation, then they are radioactive. a. true b. false - Correct Answer-b. false The half value (HVL) concept is applied in: a. inverse square law b. half-life determinations c. radioactive decay d. radiation shielding - Correct Answer-d. radiation shielding One main advantage of a Geiger-Muller detector is: a. portability b. sensitivity c. specificity d. precision - Correct Answer-a. portability Which of the following types of personal dosimetry is direct/immediate read? a. thermoluminescence dosimetry b. optically stimulated dosimetry c. pocket dosimetry d. bioassay - Correct Answer-c. pocket dosimetry A personal dosimeter protects the wearer from ionizing radiation harm. a. true b. false - Correct Answer-b. false Nonstochastic radiation health effects are: A. Well determined/defined effects B. Random undetermined/non-defined effects C. Predetermined health effects based on genetics D. Random determined/defined effects - Correct Answer-a. well determined/defined effects If a radioactive element has a half-life less than or equal to 120 days then it can be disposed by: a. incineration b. concentrating and burying c. dispersal d. storing and decaying - Correct Answer-d. storing and decaying The first thing one should do when dealing with a low dose radioactive spill is to: a. clean it up b. contain it c. alert authorities d. abandon the area - Correct Answer-b. contain it The best absorber to use to block gamma radiation is: A. Plastic B. Cardboard C. Aluminum D. Lead - Correct Answer-d. lead Which type of ionizing radiation travels in tortuous paths as it passes through an absorbing material? a. alpha b. beta c. gamma d. neutron - Correct Answer-b. beta Damage to human tissue from ionizing radiation is at the ____ level. What is a Zoonotic Disease? a. the causative agent of a disease b. a disease that potentially infects both humans and animals c. a disease that is always in an area d. an animal that passes a disease from animal to animal - Correct Answer-b. a disease that potentially infects both humans and animals What is a vector? a. the causative agent of a disease b. a disease that potentially infects both humans and animals c. a disease that is always in an area d. an animal that passes a disease from animal to animal or humans, or between humans - Correct Answer-d. an animal that passes a disease from animal to animal or humans, or between humans Where do Norway Rats usually make their home? A. In burrows in the ground B. In nests in the trees C. In overgrown fields D. In the attics of homes - Correct Answer-a. in burrows in the ground How is Hantavirus transmitted? a. the bite of an infected mouse b. breathing aerosolized mouse urine containing the virus c. the bite of an infected mosquito d. accidental ingestion of cat feces - Correct Answer-b. breathing aerosolized mouse urine containing the virus Which of these is NOT generally considered a poisonous or a potentially poisonous plant? a. rhubarb b. pokeweed c. wheat d. rye - Correct Answer-c. wheat What is the primary hose of Psittacosis? a. birds b. dogs c. mice d. rats - Correct Answer-a. birds What is the primary difference between criteria air pollutants and air toxics pollutants with respect to health standards? a. there is no difference - they're both the same b. there are no minimum health standards for air toxics pollutants set by the USEPA c. there are no minimum health standards for criteria air pollutants d. standards for air toxic pollutants are higher than for air pollutants e. standards for air pollutants are higher than for air toxics - Correct Answer-b. there are no minimum health standards for air toxics pollutants set by the USEPA Which of the following are potential indoor air pollutants? a. asbestos b. biological contaminants (bacteria, mold, mildew, viruses, animal dander, dust, mites, pollen) c. carbon monoxide (CO) d. formaldehyde e. all of the above - Correct Answer-e. all of the above Which is a class of particulate matter by size? a. coarse particles - diameter larger than 2.5 micrometers b. fine particles - diameter 2.5 micrometers or less c. respirable fine particles - diameter 0.5 micrometers or less d. A (coarse particles - diameter larger than 2.5 micrometers) and B (fine particles - diameter 2.5 micrometers or less) - Correct Answer-d. A (coarse particles - diameter larger than 2.5 micrometers) and B (fine particles - diameter 2.5 micrometers or less) Which of the following are health effects of ozone? a. airway irritation b. coughing, pain when breathing c. wheezing during exercise or outdoor activities d. increased susceptibility to respiratory illnesses and lung damage e. all of the above - Correct Answer-e. all of the above What are 2 diseases associated with asbestos exposures? a. mesothelioma b. skin cancer c. asbestosis - Correct Answer-a. mesothelioma c. asbestosis Which of the following are economic effects of pollution? a. damage to property, equipment, facilities b. increased medical costs, lost wages, crop damage c. increased operational costs by facilities-increased product costs d. all of the above - Correct Answer-d. all of the above What are some of the criteria air pollutants for which the USEPA has set NAAQS? a. PM10 B. PM2.5 C. lead d. ozone e. all of the above - Correct Answer-e. all of the above Primary NAAQS are set to protect public health (sensitive populations) whereas Secondary NAAQS are set to protect public welfare (damage to animals, environment, etc). A. True B. False - Correct Answer-a. true Which of the following are NOT devices utilized to sample/measure particulate matter? a. sedimentation/settling equipment b. traffic flow rate c. inertial/centrifugal collection equipment d. impingers e. electrostatic precipitator-type sampling device - Correct Answer-b. traffic flow rates Which of the following are the methods for estimating emissions? a. emission factors b. mass balance c. stack tests d. CEMs e. all of the above - Correct Answer-e. all of the above Thermal incinerators use temperatures to achieve combustion whereas catalytic incinerators produce oxidation at a specific temperature A. True B. False - Correct Answer-a. true What controls are available for reducing emissions from mobile sources? a. oxygenated fuels - to reduce CO and other pollutants b. activated carbon canisters - to capture emissions from engine, gasoline tank, crankcase c. catalytic oxidizer - to oxidize pollutants prior to release from exhaust pipe d. all of the above - Correct Answer-d. all of the above Which of the following are natural environmental factors that affect air pollution? a. anthropogenic pollution sources b. topography c. latitude and longitude d. B (topogaphy) and C (latitude and longitude) - Correct Answer-d. B and C With respect to meteorology, an inversion occurs when the lapse rate is inverted so that ambient air temperature is cooler near the ground than at elevation. a. true b. false - Correct Answer-a. true Concrete, stone, brick buildings and street asphalt act as heat repellers from the solar radiation and have no effect on air circulation and pollutant concentrations. b. zoonoses c. vector d. host - Correct Answer-b. zoonoses The OSHA General Duty Clause states: a. every man and woman in the nation has a right to work b. every working man and woman in the nation is to be provided with safe and healthful working conditions c. federal government must regulate worksites d. states have the right to regulate worksites - Correct Answer-b. every working man and woman in the nation is to be provided with safe and healthful working conditions Which US President signed the OSH Act? a. Johnson b. Kennedy c. Nixon d. Roosevelt - Correct Answer-c. Nixon Citations issued by OSHA are financially beneficial to the OSHA Administrative offices A. True B. False - Correct Answer-b. false To be work related a hazard can be: A. Chemical B. Physical C. Biological D. Ergonomic E. All of the above - Correct Answer-e. all of the above A worker is on their way to clock out for the day; slips on a wet surface and falls. The worker's elbow is fractured. What statement is true? A. This is not work-related because the worker should have been more careful B. This is not considered a reportable injury unless stitches are required C. This is an acute hazard because of the condition (wet surface) that caused the injury - Correct Answer-c. This is an acute hazard because of the condition (wet surface) that caused the injury. Back injuries continue to be serious problem in our workforce. Risk factors for back injuries include: a. bending b. repetition c. forceful exertion d. awkward posture e. all of the above - Correct Answer-e. all of the above Back belts, if used properly, can prevent most back injuries A. True B. False - Correct Answer-b. false Only the federal government has set workplace safety exposure limits. a. true b. false - Correct Answer-b. false Until recently, OSHA would only visit worksites were a fatality had taken place. a. true b. false - Correct Answer-b. false The only reliable resource for information on occupational health and safety is the government printing office. a. true b. false - Correct Answer-b. false Occupation stress can be caused by: a. job insecurity and lack of opportunity for career growth b. noise and indoor air quality c. heavy workload and long hours d. all of the above - Correct Answer-d. all of the above Which of the following groups are NOT disproportionately impacted by poor housing conditions? a. young children b. racial and ethnic minorities c. college graduates d. elderly residents e. disabled residents - Correct Answer-c. college graduates Approximately ________ of diagnosed asthma among children is believed to be attributable to residential exposures. a. 5% b. 20% c. 40% d. 80% - Correct Answer-c. 40% What can contribute to poor indoor air quality in a home? a. tobacco smoke b. volatile organic compounds (VOCs) c. gas stoves d. mold e. air fresheners f. all of the above - Correct Answer-f. all of the above Which of the following was a provision of the Tenement Housing Act of 1867? a. there must be at least 1 toilet per every 20 occupants b. all stairs must have bannisters c. all rooms used for sleeping must have a ventilating window d. there must be no more than 5 occupants in a dwelling unit - Correct Answer-c. all rooms used for sleeping must have a ventilating window Which year was the US Office of Housing and Urban Development (HUD) created? a. 1900 b. 1955 c. 1965 c. 1980 - Correct Answer-c. 1965 The most severe long-term health effects of lead poisoning include: A. Learning disabilities B. Storage of lead in the long bones C. Loss of large motor skills D. Adult diabetes - Correct Answer-A and C A substantive provision of Housing Code might include no chipping, peeling paint. a. true b. false - Correct Answer-a. true The CDC, HUD, and the EPA all have recognized "Healthy Homes" programs. a. true b. false - Correct Answer-a. true The highest temperature tap water inside a house should be is: a. 100 F b. 120 F c. 140 F d. 150 F - Correct Answer-b. 120 F What is the most common type of injury in a home? a. falls b. scalds/burns c. animal bites d. electrical shock e. cuts or punctures - Correct Answer-a. falls Lead paint in housing was banned in the US in __________ A. 1920 B. 1960 C. 1978 D. 1950 - Correct Answer-c. 1978 The rate of filtration for a high rate sand filter in gpm/ft2 should be: a. 0.375 gpm/ft2 b. 1-2 gpm/ft2 c. 3 gpm/ft2 d. 12-20 gpm/ft2 - Correct Answer-d. 12-20 gpm/ft2 Cyanuric acid is used in pool water to: A. Help to lower TDS B. Prevents pH bounce C. Stabilizes residual chlorine D. Used to scrub the pool's tiles - Correct Answer-c. stabilizes residual chlorine Water should ALWAYS be added to chemicals. a. true b. false - Correct Answer-b. false Soda ash is used in swimming pool water to: a. lower pH b. raise pH c. kill algae d. stabilize chlorine - Correct Answer-b. raise pH The main drain should have a drain cover grate larger than the pipe leading to the pool filter. How much larger? (minimum) a. 4x larger b. 5x larger c. 8x larger d. 20x larger - Correct Answer-a. 4x larger Controlled access is NOT important if life guards are on duty. a. true b. false - Correct Answer-b. false The Langelier Saturation index is useful in determining if pool water is balanced correctly. a. true b. false - Correct Answer-a. true A recommended safe temperature range for a public hot tub is: a. 100-102 F b. 103-105 F c. 105-107 F d. greater than 107 F - Correct Answer-a. 100-102 F The flow rate for a public swimming pool is measured in gallons per hour (gph). a. true b. false - Correct Answer-b. false The ideal range for pH in a public pool is: a. 6.2-8.0 b. 6.7-7.8 c. 7.2-7.8 d. 7.0-8.0 - Correct Answer-c. 7.2-7.8 It is important that the recirculation and disinfection equipment run 24 hours per day. a. true b. false - Correct Answer-a. true It is important that public pool water chemistry should be checked once a day. a. true b. false - Correct Answer-b. false Swimming pool water testing should be performed: a. at the end of the day before shut down b. by swimming pool patrons c. at least 18 in below the water surface away from inlets d. with an OTO type of test kit - Correct Answer-c. at least 18 in below the water surface away from inlets Bloodborne pathogens are regulated by: a. CPSC b. FDA c. HHS d. OSHA - Correct Answer-d. OSHA Excessive condensation, corrosion, and mildew occur when the relative humidity exceeds: a. 20% b. 40% c. 60% d. 80% - Correct Answer-c. 60% Nosocomial infections are a recurring problem in: a. food establishments b. health care facilities c. health spas d. swimming pools - Correct Answer-b. health care facilities Biological safety equipment includes: a. biosafety cabinets b. disinfecting chemicals c. needles and syringes d. technical manuals - Correct Answer-a. biosafety cabinets The term "Universal Precautions" refers to: a. an infection control program regulating the handling of blood and certain body fluids b. personal and environmental protection procedures used when handling hazardous and chemical wastes c. precautions to be used when collecting samples for potential litigation d. specific respiratory protection used in hospitals - Correct Answer-a. an infection control program regulating the handling of blood and certain body fluids MINIMUM wash temperatures in hospital laundry is: a. 146-150 F b. 160-167 F c. 170-178 F d. 185-198 F - Correct Answer-b. 160-167 F The hantavirus, a disease organism, is mainly carried by: A. Deer B. Sheep C. Mice D. Gophers - Correct Answer-c. mice The primary organ affected by the hantavirus is: a. brain b. kidney c. liver d. lungs - Correct Answer-d. lungs One area of institutions having the most frequent violations is: A. Plumbing B. Furniture C. Cell Dimensions D. Room Temp. - Correct Answer-a. plumbing The following does NOT quality as an institution: a. college b. hospital c. prison d. swimming pool - Correct Answer-d. swimming pool A licensed facility could include: a. bottling plant b. daycare center c. food warehouse d. all of the above - Correct Answer-d. all of the above c. be a generalist d. have an engineering degree - Correct Answer-c. be a generalist Institutions can be viewed as: a. large cities b. small communities c. industrial complexes d. office parks - Correct Answer-b. small communities An animal disease which humans can catch is: a. dog flu b. measles c. avian influenza (H1N1) d. mesothelioma - Correct Answer-c. avian influenza (H1N1) Partners in facility operations include: A. Clergy and police B. Vendors C. Residents and staff D. All of the above - Correct Answer-d. all of the above An animal disease that humans can catch is called a: A. Animalosis B. Epidemiology C. Etiology D. Zoonosis - Correct Answer-d. zoonosis When below 5,000 feet elevation, what is the minimum time you should hold water at a rolling boil to disinfect it? a. 30 seconds b. 1 minute c. 5 minutes d. 30 minutes - Correct Answer-b. 1 minute Chemical contamination threats to groundwater and wells from a flooding event and everyday use include: a. fuel storage tanks b. septic systems c. concentrated animal feeding operations d. all of the above - Correct Answer-d. all of the above Which of the following should NOT be done after a disaster to prevent or minimize problems associated with public and/or private wastewater issues? a. have onsite system inspected by a licensed contractor b. secure areas (i.e. caution tape) that have been affected by a sewage spill c. pump on-site system/septic tank empty when ground is saturated d. consider alternative means of sewage/septage disposal (i.e. portable toilets, etc) - Correct Answer-c. pump on-site system/septic tank empty when ground is saturated What is the temperature at which hot foods should be kept to reduce the risk of food- borne illness? a. 90-95 F b. 105-110 F c. 120-125 F d. 135-140 F - Correct Answer-d. 135-140 F What is the temperature at which cold foods should be kept to reduce the risk of food- borne illness? a. 65-70 F b. 50-55 F c. 40-45 F d. 85-90 F - Correct Answer-c. 40-45 F Which of the following is NOT one of the five "Ds" individuals can use to protect themselves from mosquitoes? a. DEET b. Drain c. Dress d. Drink - Correct Answer-d. Drink Which of the following is NOT part of the foundation of Integrated Pest Management (IPM)? a. food b. medical treatment c. water d. harborage - Correct Answer-b. medical treatment The U.S. Department of Transportation Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG) is primarily a guide to aid first responders: a. during the initial phase of a dangerous goods/hazardous materials incident b. to understand the Incident Comman Structure c. to develop emergency response plans d. in understanding biological hazards present in the environment - Correct Answer-a. during the initial phase of a dangerous goods/hazardous materials incident What volunteer organization is most involved with the management of evacuation shelters in the U.S.? a. American Red Cross b. Medical Team International c. Save the Children d. World Vision - Correct Answer-a. American Red Cross The building assessment process looks at three things to determine whether a building is safe to re-occupy: source, pathway, and occupant exposure. a. true b. false - Correct Answer-a. true Hospital beds are an example of occupancy specific building components. a. true b. false - Correct Answer-a. true White goods are considered what type of materials? a. refrigerators, freezers, and home appliances b. paper goods c. wood debris d. painted products - Correct Answer-a. refrigerators, freezers, and home appliances Which of the following is NOT considered household hazardous waste? a. Automotive products - gasoline, motor oil, antifreeze, windshield wiper fluid, car wax and cleaners, lead-acid batteries b. Home improvement products - paint, varnish, stain, paint thinner, paint stripper, caulk, adhesives c. Insecticide and insect repellant, weed killer, rat and mouse poison, pet spray d. Household furniture products - wood furniture, cloth covers, foam, glass - Correct Answer-d. Household furniture products - wood furniture, cloth covers, foam, glass In a disaster, what type of shelter provides services for those who are medically dependent? a. special needs shelter b. homeless shelter c. women's shelter d. disposable shelter - Correct Answer-a. special needs shelter Which group should health education messages target in shelters? a. occupants b. volunteers c. staff/workers d. all of the above - Correct Answer-d. all of the above The main health threats to shelter residents are the spread of gastrointestinal disease, respiratory disease and hazards that can cause injury. a. true b. false - Correct Answer-a. true Which of the following is an option for the disposal of solid waste? a. landfill b. incineration c. recycle or reclaim