Essentials of Human Anatomy & Physiology, 10th Edition Marieb, Exams of Human Physiology

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Essentials of Human

Anatomy & Physiology,

10th Edition Marieb TEST

BANK

Exam

Name

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. A section that divides the body on the longitudinal plane into equal right and left parts is called: 1)

A) median (midsagittal)

B) oblique

C) transverse

D) frontal

E) coronal

2. Which of the following is the correct sequence, going from simplest to most complex, in the

levels of structural organization of the human body:

A) chemical level, tissue level, cellular level, organ system level, organ level, organismal level

B) cellular level, chemical level, tissue level, organ system level, organismal level, organ level

C) chemical level, cellular level, tissue level, organ level, organ system level, organismal level

D) cellular level, chemical level, tissue level, organ level, organ system level, organismal level

E) cellular level, tissue level, chemical level, organ level, organ system level, organismal level

2)

3. Which of these regions are associated with the parts of the arm: 3)

A) femoral, popliteal, patellar

B) brachial, antecubital, carpal

C) nasal, oral, occipital

D) pelvic, pubic, inguinal

E) acromial, sacral, gluteal

4. The muscular system consists of the: 4)

A) muscles in the walls of hollow organs

B) muscles of the heart and those in the walls of the hollow organs

C) skeletal muscles

D) skeletal muscles and the muscles of the heart

E) muscles of the heart

5. The lymphatic system: 5)

A) synthesizes vitamin D

B) responds to internal and external changes by activating appropriate muscles and glands

C) secretes hormones that regulate processes such as growth, reproduction, and nutrient use

(metabolism) by body cells

D) picks up fluid leaked from blood vessels and returns it to the blood

E) produces heat

6. Which system covers the external surface of the body and manufactures vitamin D: 6)

A) endocrine system

B) skeletal system

C) nervous system

D) integumentary system

E) lymphatic system

7. Which of these regions are NOT associated with the ventral (anterior) portion of the head: 7)

A) oral B) orbital C) buccal D) nasal E) occiptal

8. Which of the following systems is matched most accurately to the life function it provides: 8)

A) respiratory system - digestion

B) nervous system - excretion

C) muscular system - maintaining boundaries

D) integumentary system - movement

E) nervous system - responsiveness

9. Which of the following elements of a control system detects a change: 9)

A) receptor

B) control center

C) effector

D) stimulus

E) efferent pathway

10. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the location of the spleen and stomach: 10)

A) both of these organs are located medially

B) both of these organs are located in the left upper quadrant

C) the spleen is located in the left upper quadrant and the stomach is located in the right

upper quadrant

D) both of these organs are located in the right upper quadrant

E) the spleen is located in the right upper quadrant and the stomach is located in the left

upper quadrant

11. Which of these is NOT a survival need: 11)

A) oxygen

B) water

C) reproduction

D) body temperature

E) nutrients

12. Which of the following is the correct order of elements in a control system: 12)

A) receptor, stimulus, afferent pathway, control center, efferent pathway, effector, response

B) stimulus, receptor, efferent pathway, control center, afferent pathway, effector, response

C) receptor, stimulus, efferent pathway, control center, afferent pathway, effector, response

D) stimulus, receptor, afferent pathway, control center, efferent pathway, effector, response

E) effector, stimulus, efferent pathway, control center, afferent pathway, receptor, response

13. Which of the following activities does not represent an anatomical study: 13)

A) viewing muscle tissue through a microscope

B) studying how the nerves conduct electrical impulses

C) observing the parts of a reproducing cell

D) examining the surface of a bone

E) making a section through the heart to observe its interior

14. The dorsal body cavity houses the: 14)

A) heart and lungs

B) spinal cord and brain

C) tongue

D) urinary and reproductive organs

E) digestive and reproductive organs

15. The stomach, liver, intestines, bladder, rectum, and reproductive organs are housed in the: 15)

A) abdominopelvic cavity

B) dorsal cavity

C) spinal cavity

D) cranial cavity

E) thoracic cavity

16. Which of the following is NOT a necessary life function : 16)

A) nutrients

B) maintaining boundaries

C) movement

D) responsiveness

E) metabolism

17. The study of the function of the body and body parts is called: 17)

A) homeostasis

B) anatomy

C) physiology

D) irritability

E) negative feedback

18. Which of these regions in the abdominopelvic cavity are medial: 18)

A) epigastric, umbilical, and hypogastric regions

B) umbilical, right lumbar, and left lumbar regions

C) epigastric, right, and left hypochondriac regions

D) iliac (inguinal), lumbar, and hypogastric regions

E) right and left iliac (inguinal), and hypogastric regions

19. The region that contains the navel is the: 19)

A) umbilical region

B) orbital region

C) carpal region

D) anterior knee

E) inguinal region

20. The gluteal region is the: 20)

A) posterior knee area

B) posterior surface of the head

C) shoulder blade region

D) buttock

E) curve of the shoulder

21. Which of the following orientation terms have opposite meanings (in humans): 21)

A) medial and anterior

B) superficial and proximal

C) posterior and intermediate

D) distal and proximal

E) medial and distal

22. Your body thermostat is located in a part of the brain called the hypothalamus. Which of the

following elements of a control system does this area in the brain represent:

A) stimulus

B) afferent pathway

C) efferent pathway

22)

D) effector

E) control center

23. The ovary is part of which of the following two systems: 23)

A) digestive and respiratory systems

B) reproductive and endocrine systems

C) digestive and endocrine systems

D) reproductive and respiratory systems

E) endocrine and respiratory systems

24. Elimination of metabolic wastes from the body is the function of the: 24)

A) digestive and urinary systems

B) digestive system

C) urinary system

D) respiratory system

E) digestive and respiratory systems

25. Which ventral cavity subdivision has no bony protection: 25)

A) spinal

B) pelvic

C) abdominal

D) cranial

E) thoracic

26. The system that controls and coordinates the body through hormones is the: 26)

A) digestive system

B) nervous system

C) endocrine system

D) skeletal system

E) integumentary system

27. Which type of section could be used to separate the thoracic cavity from the abdominopelvic

cavity:

A) dorsal B) transverse C) sagittal D) coronal E) ventral

27)

28. Which of the following regional terms means the anterior surface of the elbow: 28)

A) vertebral region

B) antecubital region

C) calcaneal region

D) scapular region

E) gluteal region

29. In describing the relationship of the thoracic and spinal cavities: 29)

A) the thoracic cavity is superior to the spinal cavity

B) the thoracic cavity is medial to the spinal cavity

C) the thoracic cavity is proximal to the spinal cavity

D) the thoracic cavity is ventral to the spinal cavity

E) the thoracic cavity is inferior to the spinal cavity

30. Which of these structures is the most complex: 30)

A) a tissue

B) a molecule

C) a cell

D) organ system

E) an organ

31. Sarah fell while ice skating and broke a bone in her carpal region. Where is this region? 31)

A) wrist B) shoulder C) lower leg D) hip E) knee

32. In anatomical position: 32)

A) the body is erect with the feet parallel and the arms hanging at the sides with the palms

facing forward

B) the body is lying face up with the feet parallel and the arms at the sides with the palms

facing forward

C) the body is erect with the feet parallel and the arms hanging at the sides with the palms

facing backward

D) the body is lying face up with the feet parallel and the arms at the sides with the palms

facing backward

E) the body is lying face down with the feet parallel and the arms at the sides with the palms

facing backward

33. The lungs and heart are in the body cavity. 33)

A) spinal

B) thoracic

C) abdominopelvic

D) cranial

E) dorsal

34. The ribs are located in the: 34)

A) right and left iliac regions

B) right and left hypochondriac regions

C) right and left pubic regions

D) right and left lumbar regions

E) right and left inguinal regions

35. Positive feedback systems: 35)

A) operate in such a way that the initial stimulus is enhanced and increases

B) regulate heart and breathing rates, and operate in such a way that the initial stimulus is

shut off or reduced

C) regulate heart and breathing rates, and operate in such a way that the initial stimulus is

enhanced and increases

D) operate in such a way that the initial stimulus is shut off or reduced

E) regulate heart and breathing rates

36. Which of the following orientation and directional terms have the same meaning (in humans): 36)

A) superior and caudal

B) inferior and cephalad

C) anterior and dorsal

D) inferior and cranial

E) anterior and ventral

37. The system that takes in oxygen and releases carbon dioxide to the exterior is the: 37)

A) muscular system

B) respiratory system

cavit

m

sy

respiratory

Negative

Median

C) urinary system

D) cardiovascular system

E) reproductive system

38. In describing the relationship between the patellar and popliteal regions: 38)

A) the patellar region is lateral to the popliteal region

B) the patellar region is anterior to the popliteal region

C) the patellar region is proximal to the popliteal region

D) the patellar region is superior to the popliteal region

E) the patellar region is distal to the popliteal region

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

Fill in the blank or provide a short answer:

39. A cut that is made along the midline is called a section. 39)

Figure 1.

Using Figure 1.1, identify the following:

40. Label E points to the

Abdominal y. 40)

Fill in the blank or provide a short answer:

41. A control mechanism that responds to a stimulus by decreasing its intensity is called a

echanism.

41)

42. The larynx is an organ of the stem. 42)

regio

.

is

digestion

anterior

Figure 1.

Using Figure 1.2, identify the following:

43. Label A points to the

epigastric

n. 43)

Fill in the blank or provide a short answer:

44. The body's ability to maintain stable internal conditions is referred to as

45. The abdominal cavity has quadrants and regions.

44)

45)

Fill in the blank or provide a short answer:

46. The navel is to the spine. 46)

47. the process of breaking down ingested food in preparation for absorption. 47)

Homeostasis

Figure 1.

Using Figure 1.2, identify the following:

48. Label E points to the

hypogastric region. 48)

Figure 1.

Using Figure 1.1, identify the following:

49. Label B points to the

50. Label F points to the

spinal cavity. 49)

50)

cavity.

pelvic

.

tissues

mediastinum

.

effector.

superior to

cranial cavit

51) Ventral is a directional term synonymous with

anterior in humans. 51)

Fill in the blank or provide a short answer:

52. Groups of cells that have a common function are termed 52)

Figure 1.

Using Figure 1.1, identify the following:

53. Label A points to the y. 53)

Fill in the blank or provide a short answer:

54. The central region of the thoracic cavity containing the heart is called the 54)

55. The system that functions in the storage of minerals, such as calcium, is called the 55)

56. The component of a control system that provides the means for the control center's

response (output) is called the

56)

57. The thoracic cavity is

58. The

the abdominopelvic cavity. 57)

is composed of kidneys, bladder, ureters, and urethra. 58)

Fill in the blank or provide a short answer:

59. The ability to sense changes and react to them is termed

axillary

60. The armpit area is called the region.

)

60)

61. The epigastric region is

abdominopelvic cavity.

the right hypochondriac region of the 61)

skeletal system.

responsiveness

.

medial to

system

Urinary

irritability

or

region.

Figure 1.

Using Figure 1.2, identify the following:

62) Label B points to the

right hypochondriac

62)

63. Label C points to the

umbilical region.

64. Blood is categorized as a

common function.

tissue

because it is compared of similar cells with a 64)

65. The patellar region is

anterior

to the popliteal region. 65)

Fill in the blank or provide a short answer:

66. The cranial and spinal cavities are subdivisions of the ty. 66)

67. The function of the

endocrine

system is to control body activities via hormones. 67)

Fill in the blank or provide a short answer:

68)

metabolism

refers to all of the chemical reactions in the body. 68)

cavi

dorsal

diaphragm .

Figure 1.

Using Figure 1.1, identify the following:

69. Label D points to the

69)

Figure 1.

Using Figure 1.2, identify the following:

70. Label F points to the

70)

Fill in the blank or provide a short answer:

71. The study of the body's small structures using a microscope is called

right iliac

region.

microscopi

.

c anatomy

right lumbar region.

Figure 1.

Using Figure 1.2, identify the following:

72. Label D points to the 72)

Figure 1.

Using Figure 1.1, identify the following:

73. Label C points to the 73)

Fill in the blank or provide a short a

thoracic cavity.

nswer:

digestion

. F T F F F F A B C

hypogastric

74. The right and left iliac (inguinal) regions are lateral to the region.

74)

75. The breakdown of ingested foods into simple molecules that can then be absorbed into

the bloodstream is termed

75)

76. The three medial regions of the abdominopelvic cavity are

.

77. Blood clotting and the birth of a baby are examples of the

mechanism.

77)

TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

78. The heel of the foot constitutes the plantar region. 78)

79. The lymphatic system collects fluids leaked by the cardiovascular system and returns them to

the bloodstream.

79)

80. The spleen and the tonsils are part of the digestive system. 80)

81. The endocrine system is the fast-acting body control system. 81)

82. The thoracic cavity is separated from the abdominopelvic cavity by the diaphragm.

83. The dorsal body cavity is subdivided into four quadrants and nine regions.

82)

83)

84. As body temperature drops below normal, chemical reactions proceed too rapidly and body

proteins begin to break down.

84)

85. The spinal cavity is part of the ventral body cavity. 85)

86. The hypogastric region is directly superior to the umbilical region. 86)

87. There is no physical structure that separates the abdominal cavity from the pelvic cavity.

88. The highest level of structural organization in humans is the organ level.

87)

88)

89. Most homeostatic control mechanisms are negative feedback reactions.

90. Proximal means farther from the origin of a body part.

89)

90)

91. The sacral region is on the ventral (anterior) body surface.

92. Excretion is the process of removing wastes from the body.

91)

92)

MATCHING. Choose the item in column 2 that best matches each item in column 1.

Match the following:

93. Tarsal A) ankle 93)

94. Inguinal B) area where thigh meets body trunk 94)

95. Umbilical C) navel 95)

epigastric umbilical

,

hypogastric

, and 76)

feedback

positive

F T F T F T F T

F

A C B D A B B A A B B A A

A

Match the following:

96. Dorsal A) behind 96)

97. Ventral B) toward the side 97)

98. Lateral C) in front of 98)

99. Superior D) above 99)

Match the following.

100) Regulation of water and electrolytes A A) urinary system 100)

Match the following:

101. Popliteal A) posterior knee area 101)

102. Oral B) mouth 102)

Match the following.

103. Heat production A) nervous system 103)

104. Responds to stimuli (internal and

external)

B) muscular system 104)

Match the following:

105. Proximal A) close to the origin of the body part or the 105)

point of attachment of a limb to the body

trunk

Match the following.

106. Site of hematopoiesis A) skeletal system 106)

Match the following:

107. Patellar A) armpit 107)

108. Axillary B) anterior knee 108)

Match the following:

109. Deep A) toward the body surface 109)

B)

away from the body surface

Match the following:

110. Femoral A) thigh 110)

Match the following:

111. Distal A) farther from the origin of a body part or 111)

the point of attachment of a limb to the

body trunk

A

A

A

A

A

A

B

Match the following:

112. Coxal A) hip 112)

Match the following.

113. Houses blood cells involved in

immunity

A) lymphatic system 113)

B) respiratory system

Match the following:

114. Orbital A) eye area 114)

Match the following:

115. Inferior A) below 115)

Match the following.

116. Slow-acting body control system A) digestive system 116)

B)

endocrine system

Match the following:

117. Medial A) toward the midline 117)

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

118. Describe anatomical position. Explain why anatomical position is used.

119. Explain the difference between homeostatis and metabolism.

120. List and explain the eight necessary human life functions.

121. Explain how scratching an itch is an example of the negative feedback mechanism.

122. Describe the role of the effector in the negative feedback system.

123. List, and briefly define, the human body's organization levels from smallest to largest.

124. List and explain the three major body planes and sections.

125. Distinguish between anatomy and physiology.

126. Identify the two dorsal body cavities, and state their locations and the organs contained therein.

127. List the four quadrants and nine regions of the abdominopelvic cavity. Explain why this cavity has these

subdivisions.

128. List and explain the five survival needs of humans.

1) A

2) C

3) B

4) C

5) D

6) D

7) E

8) E

9) A

10) B

11) C

12) D

13) B

14) B

15) A

16) A

17) C

18) A

19) A

20) D

21) D

22) E

23) B

24) C

25) C

26) C

27) B

28) B

29) D

30) D

31) A

32) A

33) B

34) B

35) A

36) E

37) B

38) B

39. midsagittal or median

40. abdominal

41. negative feedback

42. respiratory

43. epigastric

44. homeostasis

45) 4; 9

46. ventral or anterior

47. Digestion

48. hypogastric

49. spinal

50. pelvic

51. anterior

52. tissues

53. cranial

54. mediastinum

55. skeletal

56. effector

57. superior

58. urinary or excretory

59. irritability; responsiveness

60. axillary

61. medial

62. right hypochondriac

63. umbilical

64. tissue

65. ventral or anterior

66. dorsal

67. endocrine

68. Metabolism

69. diaphragm

70. right iliac (inguinal)

71. microscopic anatomy

72. right lumbar

73. thoracic

74. hypogastric

75. digestion

76. epigastric region, umbilical region, hypogastric region

77. positive

78) FALSE

79) TRUE

80) FALSE

81) FALSE

82) TRUE

83) FALSE

84) FALSE

85) FALSE

86) FALSE

87) TRUE

88) FALSE

89) TRUE

90) FALSE

91) FALSE

92) TRUE

93) A

94) B

95) C

96) A

97) C

98) B

99) D

100) A

101) A

102) B

103) B

104) A

105) A

106) A

107) B

108) A

109) B

110) A

111) A

112) A

113) A

114) A

115) A

116) B

117) A

118. Anatomical position is defined as standing erect, feet parallel to the arms, palms facing forward. Anatomical

position is used because it is a standard position; it also helps us to avoid confusion. Additionally, anatomical

position is a reference point that helps us accurately describe body parts and position.

119. Homeostasis is the body's attempt to maintain balance during which time internal conditions may vary.

Metabolism is all chemical reactions that occur in the body.

120. 1. Maintenance of boundaries—keeps the internal environment distinct from the external environment; membranes

perform this function at the cellular level and skin performs this function for the organism.

2. Movement—includes a change in the position of the body or the propelling of a substance (such as blood, urine,

or food) through the body organs; constitutes a major role of the muscular system.

3. Responsiveness (irritability)—the ability to react to stimuli; constitutes a major role of the nervous system.
4. Metabolism—includes all the chemical reactions that occur within the body's cells.
5. Excretion—elimination of carbon dioxide by the lungs and nitrogenous wastes by the kidneys.
6. Digestion—the process of breaking down ingested foodstuffs into simpler molecules that can then be absorbed

into the blood for delivery to the body's cells.

7. Growth—an increase in size, which is usually accompanied by an increase in the number of cells.
8. Reproduction—the production of new cells for growth and repair, and also the production of offspring.

121. 1. Stimulus or input is the itch.

2. A receptor carries the information about the stimulus (itch) to the brain via an afferent pathway.
3. Control center (brain) analyzes this information an turns on an effector which will cancel the stimulus.
4. Information reaches the effector via the efferent pathway from the brain. Muscles move the hand to scratch the

itch.

5. Scratching continues until the itch goes away. The brain shuts off the effector once homeostatis is restored.

122. The effector is the control center's output and response to the stimulus. The effector's job is to cancel or shut off the

control mechanism.

123. 1. chemical level:

a. atoms are the basic building blocks of matter

b. molecules are units formed by atoms combining

2. cellular level: cells are the smallest living unit in living organisms
3. tissue level: tissues are groupings of cells performing a common function
4. organ level: an organ is a structure consisting of two or more tissue types
5. organ system level: an organ system describes a group of organs functioning

cooperatively for a common purpose

6. organism level: a human organism consists of all of the organ systems of the

ody working together to promote healthy functioning

b (homeostasis)

124. 1. Sagittal—cut is made along the longitudinal (lengthwise) plane of the body (or an organ), dividing it into right

and left parts.

2. Frontal (coronal)—cut is made along the longitudinal (lengthwise) plane of the body (or an organ), dividing it

into anterior and posterior parts.

3. Transverse (cross-section)—cut is made along the transverse (horizontal) plane, dividing the body into superior

and inferior parts.

125. Anatomy is the study of the structure and shape of the body and body parts, and their relationships to one another.

Physiology is the study of how the body and its parts work or function.

126. 1. Cranial cavity—the superior posterior space inside the bony skull that houses the brain.

2. Spinal cavity—the inferior posterior space inside the bony vertebral column that houses the spinal cord.

127. 1. The four quadrants are:

a. right upper quadrant

b. right lower quadrant

c. left upper quadrant

d. right lower quadrant

2. The nine regions are:

a. epigastric region

b. umbilical region

c. hypogastric region

d. right hypochondriac region

e. left hypochondriac region

f. right lumbar region

g. left lumbar region

h. right iliac region

i. left iliac region

This cavity has been subdivided into these quadrants and regions because it is large and has many organs.

128. 1. Nutrients—include carbohydrates, proteins, and fats, which are taken in via the diet for energy and cell building.

2. Oxygen—required to release energy from food.
3. Water—accounts for over 60% of the body weight, and provides the basis for various body fluids.
4. Appropriate body temperature—when too high or too low, physiological activities cease, primarily because

molecules are destroyed or become nonfunctional.

5. Appropriate atmospheric pressure—the force exerted on the surface of the body by the weight of air; is essential

for normal operation of the respiratory system and breathing.

Exam

Name

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Ninety-six percent of the human body is composed of the elements: 1)

A) carbon, calcium, sodium, and oxygen

B) sodium, potassium, hydrogen, and sulfur

C) calcium, magnesium, potassium, and iron

D) carbon, oxygen, iron, and potassium

E) carbon, oxygen, hydrogen, and nitrogen

2. Triglycerides: 2)

A) include cholesterol, bile salts, vitamin D, sex hormones, and adrenal cortical hormones

B) have a three-dimensional structure that can be easily destroyed by heat, causing them to be

denatured and no longer capable of performing their physiological roles

C) are found in fat deposits (e.g., subcutaneous tissue around organs), and serve to protect

and insulate body organs; they are the major source of stored energy in the body

D) are found in the cell membrane and participate in the transport of lipids in plasma; they

are also abundant in the brain and in nervous tissue where they help to form insulating

white matter

E) include lipoid substances such as fat-soluble vitamins (e.g., vitamins A, E, and K),

prostaglandins, and lipoproteins

3. Enzymes: 3)

A) increase the rates of chemical reactions by at least a millionfold

B) are essential to virtually every biochemical reaction in the body

C) when absent or destroyed, cause all biochemical reactions to cease

D) help regulate growth and development

E) are highly specialized proteins that recognize, bind with, and inactivate bacteria, toxins,

and some viruses

4. The simplest atom—containing one proton, one electron, and no neutrons—is: 4)

A) hydrogen B) nitrogen C) carbon D) sodium E) oxygen

5. An atom that has lost two electrons is called a(n): 5)

A) isotope

B) proton

C) radioisotope

D) cation

E) anion

6. An atom with 11 protons, 12 neutrons, and 10 electrons is a(n): 6)

A) anion

B) cation

C) isotope

D) molecule

E) radioisotope

7. In order to break a disaccharide down into simple sugar units: 7)

A) water molecules and carbon atoms must be removed from each bond

B) carbon atoms must be added to each bond

C) water molecules must be removed from each bond

D) carbon atoms must be removed from each bond

E) water molecules must be added to each bond

8. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the electrical charge of subatomic

particles:

A) protons are positively charged, electrons are negatively charged, and neutrons are neutral

B) protons are positively charged, electrons are neutral, and neutrons are negatively charged

C) protons are negatively charged, electrons are neutral, and neutrons are negatively charged

D) protons are neutral, electrons are negatively charged, and neutrons are positively charged

E) protons are negatively charged, electrons are positively charged, and neutrons are neutral

8)

9. Which of the following substances below is matched with its correct organic group: 9)

A) steroids - carbohydrates

B) enzymes - proteins

C) DNA - lipids

D) monosaccharides - nucleic acids

E) glycerol - proteins

10. Which of the following is the role of magnesium: 10)

A) it is the major extracellular cation in its ionic form, and is important for water balance,

conduction of nerve impulses, and muscle contraction

B) it is a major extracellular anion in its ionic form

C) it is present in bone, and is an important cofactor for enzyme activity in a number of

metabolic reactions

D) it is a component of the functional hemoglobin molecule that transports oxygen within red

blood cells, as well as a component of some enzymes

E) it is needed to make functional thyroid hormones

11. The organic compounds that function in building tissues and acting as enzymes are the: 11)

A) salts

B) lipids

C) proteins

D) carbohydrates

E) nucleic acids

12. Which one of the following DNA bases are complementary: 12)

A) adenine and guanine

B) adenine and thymine

C) cytosine and adenine

D) guanine and uracil

E) thymine and guanine

13. Atomic mass is equivalent to the number of in an atom. 13)

A) protons

B) neutrons

C) protons and electrons

D) protons and neutrons

E) electrons

14. Isotopes have different numbers of ; thus they also have different. 14)

A) neutrons; atomic masses

B) electrons; atomic numbers

C) protons; atomis masses

D) neutrons; atomic numbers

E) protons; atomic numbers

15. Inactive energy is referred to as: 15)

A) mechanical energy

B) electrical energy

C) radiant energy

D) potential energy

E) kinetic energy

16. Which of the following groups of chemicals includes ONLY monosaccharides: 16)

A) maltose, sucrose, lactose

B) glucose, fructose, maltose

C) fructose, maltose, lactose

D) glucose, fructose, galactose

E) fructose, maltose, sucrose

Figure 2.2

17. What is the atomic number of the atom in Figure 2.2: 17)

A) 6 B) 2 C) 12 D) 3 E) 4

18. Which of the following statements about ATP is false: 18)

A) it provides the energy needed to drive energy-absorbing chemical reactions

B) it drives the transport of certain solutes (e.g., amino acids) across cell membranes

C) its energy is captured in high-energy hydrogen bonds

D) it activates contractile proteins in muscle cells so that cells can shorten and perform

mechanical work

E) it is a modified nucleotide

Figure 2.3

19. What type of chemical bond is pictured in Figure 2.3: 19)

A) single covalent bond

B) nonpolar covalent bond

C) double covalent bond

D) polar covalent bond

E) ionic bond

20. Glycogen is the storage form of in animals. 20)

A) glucose

B) lipids

C) DNA

D) protein

E) amino acids

21. Vitamin D and sex hormones are both: 21)

A) nucleic acids

B) steroids

C) proteins

D) polysaccharides

E) enzymes

22. Which of these examples is a compound: 22)

A) B) C) 2H D) E)

23. When a pair of electrons is shared equally between two atoms, the bond formed is called a(n): 23)

A) ionic bond

B) hydrogen bond

C) polar covalent bond

D) nonpolar covalent bond

E) carbon bond

24. The reaction A + B - AB is an example of a(n): 24)

A) decomposition reaction

B) dehydration reaction

C) synthesis reaction

D) denaturation reaction

E) exchange reaction

25. A solution with a pH of 7: 25)

A) releases more hydrogen ions than hydroxyl ions into solution

B) is acidic

C) releases more hydroxyl ions than hydrogen ions into solution

D) is basic

E) is neutral

26. The nucleotide chains of DNA are held together by: 26)

A) hydrogen bonds

B) carbon bonds

C) polar covalent bonds

D) nonpolar covalent bonds

E) ionic bonds

27. Which of these elements composes bone: 27)

A) calcium B) chlorine C) sulfur D) iodine E) iron

28. The most abundant element in the human body is: 28)

A) carbon B) nitrogen C) oxygen D) calcium E) hydrogen

29. The sugar found in DNA is: 29)

A) deoxyribose

B) lactose

C) starch

D) ribose

E) sucrose

30. are simple sugars containing between 3 and 7 carbon atoms. 30)

A) Steroids

B) Proteins

C) Polysaccharides

D) Saturated fats

E) Monosaccharides

31. Which of the following statements about RNA is true: 31)

A) RNA is composed of cytosine, guanine, adenine, and thymine

B) RNA is single stranded

C) RNA is found only in the nucleus of the cell

D) RNA contains deoxyribose

E) RNA is a double helix

32. Vitamin D can be described as: 32)

A) derivatives of fatty acids found in cell membranes; various functions include the

stimulation of uterine contractions, the regulation of blood pressure, and the control of

motility of the gastrointestinal tract

B) taken in via plant products such as wheat germ and green leafy vegetables; may promote

wound healing and contribute to fertility (though not proven in humans)

C) made available largely by the action of intestinal bacteria; also prevalent in a wide variety

of foods, and necessary for the proper clotting of blood