Ethics and Human Resource Management Practices, Exams of Advanced Education

Download Ethics and Human Resource Management Practices and more Exams Advanced Education in PDF only on Docsity! APHR Practice Test with answers 1. As a type of resource, human capital refers to: - Answer- a. the wages, benefits, and other costs incurred in support of HR functions within an organization. b. executive talent within an organization. c. the tax-deferred value of an employee's 401(k) plan. d. employee characteristics that add economic value to the organization. 2. Human capital includes all but one of the following. Name the exception. - Answer- a. Training b. Profitability c. Relationships d. Intelligence 3. When an organization is able to perform an activity to a greater degree than its competitors for an extended period of time, it is said to have a: - Answer- a. differentiated focus. b. sustainable competitive advantage. c. core competency. d. low-cost competitive advantage. 4. Under the principle of employment at will, the employer may terminate employment: - Answer- a. after two-weeks' notice. b. at any time without notice. c. immediately after written notice. d. at the end of the current day's shift with or without written notice. 5. Glass ceilings refer to: - Answer- a. the intangible barriers that often keep female and minority employees from moving up the corporate ladder, particularly into management positions. b. the new, open office environments designed to enhance the free flow of ideas and communications. c. the trend of long-term employees to "top-out" on the pay scale, reducing their motivation and productivity. d. the overall decrease in employee privacy due to increased use of surveillance devices and methods within the workplace. 6. The process of identifying the numbers and types of employees the organization will require in order to meet its objectives is known as: - Answer- a. strategic planning. b. change management. c. human resource planning. d. work analysis. 7. Communicating, negotiating, and team development are examples of ____ skills. - Answer- a. leadership b. decision-making c. human relations d. technical 8. Ethics refer to: - Answer- a. one's religious and political values and beliefs. b. what is required by law. c. what is acceptable to the company. d. the fundamental principles of right and wrong. 9. Which of the following is not a standard that human resource managers must satisfy for practices to be ethical? - Answer- a. Managers must treat employees as family. b. Human resource practices must result in the greatest good for the largest number of people. c. Employment practices must respect basic human rights of privacy, due process, and free speech. d. Managers must treat employees and customers equitably and fairly. 10. The primary and largest organization for HRM professionals is the: - Answer- a. American Management Association (AMA). b. American Compensation Association (ACA). c. Society for Human Resource Management (SHRM). d. Personnel Management Association (PMA). 11. Human resources provide an organization with a sustainable competitive advantage because they are: - Answer- a. valuable. b. rare. c. not easily imitated. d. All of the above 12. Which process involves acquiring knowledge, skills, and behaviors that improve employees' ability to meet the challenges of a variety of new or existing jobs? - Answer- a. Development b. Training c. Orientation d. Coordinating 13. The process of ensuring that employees' activities and outputs match the organization's goals is called: - Answer- a. job analysis. b. strategic management. c. quality assurance. d. performance management. 28. Electronic sales among manufacturers, retailers, wholesalers, and construction firms represent what type of e-business? - Answer- a. Business-to-consumer b. Business-to-business c. Consumer-to-consumer d. Business-to-distributor 29. Employees realize that many companies are no longer able to provide long-term employment security. As a result, employees now want: - Answer- a. increased pay. b. less demanding work. c. employability. d. written employment contracts. 30. John is an HR consultant who runs and operates his own business from his home. He is often hired by businesses to present one- or two-day workshops on various topics within his field of expertise. John is a/an: - Answer- a. on-call worker. b. independent contractor. c. temporary worker. d. contract company worker. 31. Which one of the following is not a way that the executive branch can affect the laws that govern our country? - Answer- a. By drawing up regulations detailing how to abide by the laws. b. By enforcement of laws, pursuing only the kinds of cases the President wants. c. By regulating the activities of federal contractors through executive orders. d. By passing laws that determine what is legal and illegal. 32. Which legislative/regulatory actions are under the direct control of the President? - Answer- a. Constitutional amendments b. Judicial decisions c. Legislation d. Executive orders 33. Which one of the following requires organizations holding federal contracts to engage in affirmative action to hire women and minorities? - Answer- a. Executive Order 11246 b. Title VII c. Civil Rights Act of 1991 d. Vocational Rehabilitation Act 34. The Civil Rights Acts of 1866 and 1871 still play an active role in employment rights cases because they: - Answer- a. cover age discrimination, an employment category not covered by the 1964 Civil Rights Act. b. are now recognized worldwide, applying to all businesses regardless of country of origin. c. allow plaintiffs to recover both compensatory and punitive damages. d. not only cover race, color, religion, sex, age, disability, and national origin, but sexual orientation as well. 35. The Equal Pay Act of 1963 allows men and women performing the same job to be paid differently as a result of: - Answer- a. merit. b. seniority. c. quantity or quality of production. d. All of the above 36. Which of the following is true of Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964? - Answer- a. The act is enforced by the U.S. Department of Labor. b. The act applies to organizations with 15 employees or more. c. The act applies only to those employees working 35 or more weeks a year. d. The act applies to organizations with 50 employees or more. 37. Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 prohibits employers from discriminating against individuals based on all but one of the following. Name the exception. - Answer- a. Age b. Race c. Religion d. National origin 38. Which one of the following is not true of the Vocational Rehabilitation Act of 1973? - Answer- a. The act covers executive agencies, contractors, and subcontractors that receive more than $10,000 annually from the federal government. b. The act requires organizations to engage in affirmative actions for qualified individuals. c. The act enhances employment for individuals with disabilities. d. The act is enforced by the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission. 39. The Pregnancy Discrimination Act of 1978 requires employers: - Answer- a. to offer disability plans with pregnancy-related coverage. b. that offer disability plans to handle pregnancy concerns as they would any other disability. c. to provide up to six weeks of paid leave to either parent upon the birth of a child. d. to provide up to six weeks of unpaid leave to either parent upon the birth of a child. 40. The Americans with Disability Act covers individuals who: - Answer- a. have serious disabilities—such as epilepsy, blindness, or paralysis—that affect their ability to perform major life activities, such as walking, learning, and working. b. have a history of disability, such as someone who has had cancer but is currently in remission. c. are regarded as having a disability, such as an individual who is severely disfigured and is denied employment because an employer fears negative reactions from others. d. All of the above 41. In contrast to most other EEO laws, the Americans with Disability Act: - Answer- a. applies to all U.S. employers regardless of the number of employees employed. b. covers employment practices such as job application procedures, hiring, firing, promotions, compensation, and training, but does not include activities such as advertising, leave, and fringe benefits. c. goes beyond prohibiting discrimination to require that employers take steps to accommodate individuals covered under the act. d. has resulted in the largest number of charges filed with the EEOC. 42. One of the major changes in EEO law under the Civil Rights Act of 1991 is: - Answer- a. the limitation of damage awards to lost pay and benefits. b. the inclusion of Hispanics as a protected group. c. the addition of compensatory and punitive damage awards. d. the inclusion of all businesses regardless of size. 43. Which one of the following is not true of the Civil Rights Act of 1991? - Answer- a. The amount of punitive damages depends on the size of the organization charged with the discrimination. b. The act extended coverage to sexual harassment, sexual orientation, and reverse discrimination. c. The act amends the CRA of 1866, the CRA of 1964, the ADEA of 1967, and the ADA of 1990. d. Punitive damages are awarded only in cases of intentional discrimination or with malice or reckless indifference to the employee's federally protected rights. 44. Which one of the following is not true of the Uniformed Services Employment and Reemployment Rights Act of 1994? - Answer- a. Employers must reemploy workers who leave jobs to fulfill military duties for up to five years. b. Employers must reemploy workers in the job they would have held if they had not left to serve, including the same seniority, status, and pay. c. Disabled veterans have up to two years to recover from injuries received during their service or training, and employers must make reasonable accommodation for a remaining disability. d. Depending upon the length of service, service members have up to two years to apply for reemployment. 45. Which one of the following is not true of Executive Order 11478? - Answer- a. The order covers all federal agencies, contractors, and subcontractors doing at least $10,000 worth of business with the federal government. b. The U.S. Office of Personnel Management ensures compliance at the government level, while relevant agencies ensure the compliance of contractors and subcontractors. c. The order requires covered entities to base all employment policies on merit and fitness, not on race, color, sex, religion, or national origin. d. Covered entities must take affirmative action toward employing Vietnam veterans (those serving between August 5, 1964, and May 7, 1975). b. 20 c. 16 d. 15 60. In a disparate impact case, what is the most likely defense to be offered by the defendant? - Answer- a. Job relatedness b. Bona fide occupational qualification c. Production of a legitimate, nondiscriminatory reason d. Showing a pretext for discrimination 61. Which one of the following statements is not true of affirmative action? - Answer- a. It was originally conceived as a way of taking extra effort to attract and retain minority employees. b. It may be either voluntary or court-imposed. c. The practice is being challenged under a concept called reverse discrimination. d. Americans favor affirmative action, especially when programs use quotas. 62. Which one of the following terms refers to an employer's obligation to do something to enable an otherwise qualified person to perform a job? - Answer- a. Reverse discrimination b. Equal opportunity c. Reasonable accommodation d. General duty clause 63. Under the Americans with Disability Act, an "undue hardship" has been defined as an action: - Answer- a. deemed by the employer to be an inconvenience. b. requiring significant difficulty or expense. c. which represents a cost greater than the employee's first-year salary. d. deemed to be too costly to the "average" business within the industry. 64. When an individual is promised a positive outcome for submission to sex, or threatened with a negative outcome for failure to submit to sex, this is referred to as: - Answer- a. disparate treatment. b. disparate impact. c. hostile working environment harassment. d. quid pro quo harassment. 65. A male employee, over the objections of his female colleagues, continues to display a highly suggestive calendar within his office. This is likely to result in a charge of: - Answer- a. disparate treatment. b. disparate impact. c. hostile working environment harassment. d. quid pro quo harassment. 66. Which one of the following is not true of the Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHA Act)? - Answer- a. It is the most comprehensive U.S. law regarding worker safety. b. The act applies to organizations that employ 50 or more persons working 20 or more weeks a year and that are involved in interstate commerce. c. Under the act, covered employers must keep records of work-related injuries and illnesses and post an annual summary of these records. d. Enforcement responsibilities for the act are divided between the Department of Labor and the Department of Health. 67. Which of the following is not a right granted to workers under the Occupational Safety and Health Act? - Answer- a. Request an inspection b. Have a dangerous substance identified c. Have an employee wellness program d. Have employer violations posted at the work site 68. Under the Occupational Safety and Health Act, OSHA can do all but one of the following. Name the exception. - Answer- a. Conduct unannounced workplace inspections. b. Assess fines ranging from $20,000 for violations that result in the death of an employee to $1,000 for less serious violations. c. Close a workplace that represents an imminent danger. d. Issue citations and require that they be posted in a prominent place near the location of the violations. 69. Under OSHA's Hazard Communication Standard, organizations must do all but one of the following. Name the exception. - Answer- a. Have material safety data sheets for chemicals that employees are exposed to within the workplace. b. Provide medical and life insurance coverage to all employees exposed to hazardous chemicals within the workplace. c. Ensure that all containers of hazardous chemicals are labeled with information about the hazard. d. Train employees in the safe handling of all chemicals. 70. The process of analyzing the tasks necessary for the production of a product or service is termed: - Answer- a. ergonomics. b. work flow design. c. job analysis. d. industrial engineering. 71. The final stage in work flow analysis is to identify the: - Answer- a. outputs of a particular work unit. b. work relationships within the work unit. c. work processes used to generate the outputs of the work unit. d. inputs used in the development of the work unit's product. 72. Jobs in functional organizations tend to be: - Answer- a. organized around products or customer groups. b. broad based and rapidly changing. c. more holistic, with workers involved in teams. d. narrow and specialized in scope. 73. The process of getting detailed information about jobs is known as: - Answer- a. job analysis. b. work flow analysis. c. industrial engineering. d. job evaluation. 74. Which of the following refers to a list of the tasks, duties, and responsibilities that a job entails? - Answer- a. Job specification b. Job description c. Job analysis d. Job design 75. Which one of the following is not true of KSAOs or their use? - Answer- a. KSAOs are observable only when individuals are carrying out the TDRs of the job. b. KSAOs include knowledge, skills, abilities, and outcomes. c. Accurate information about KSAOs is especially important for making decisions about who will fill a job. d. Information about KSAOs should come from a combination of people performing the job, people supervising or planning for the job, and trained job analysts. 76. Which one of the following sources of job analysis information generally provides the most accurate information regarding the time spent on various job tasks? - Answer- a. Supervisors b. Incumbents c. Customers d. Subordinates 77. Which of the following sources of job analysis information generally provides the most accurate information regarding the importance of various job duties? - Answer- a. Supervisors b. Incumbents c. Customers d. Subordinates 78. Which one of the following statements about the Position Analysis Questionnaire (PAQ) is false? - Answer- a. It requires trained job analysts to complete it. b. It is a standardized, commercial instrument. c. It describes specific duties and tasks that comprise the actual job. d. It is one of the broadest and best-researched instruments for analyzing jobs. b. transfers and work sharing. c. early retirement and retraining. d. natural attrition and transfers. 92. Which of the following options for avoiding an expected labor shortage has the benefit of being a relatively fast solution with high revocability? - Answer- a. Overtime b. Retrained transfer c. Turnover d. New external hires 93. A small company that manufactures special-order wood furniture has kept its employees busy on a 40-hour-a-week schedule for the past two years. The company just received the largest contract in its history from a Saudi company opening offices in the area. There is no expectation of repeat business from the Saudi company. In order to complete the contract in the required six months, additional skilled woodworking peoplepower is needed. Under these circumstances, to avoid an expected labor shortage, the best option would be: - Answer- a. overtime. b. the use of temporary employees. c. turnover reduction. d. new external hires. 94. The most widespread methods for eliminating labor shortages are: - Answer- a. outsourcing work and technological innovation. b. retraining transfers and reducing turnover. c. overtime and new external hires. d. hiring temporary workers and outsourcing work. 95. Which one of the following is not true of outsourcing? - Answer- a. Outsourcing is a logical choice when firms lack experience in an area. b. Outsourcing often involves ventures with foreign companies. c. Outsourcing is currently restricted to manufacturing and low-skilled jobs. d. Outsourcing is driven by economies of scale. 96. In human resource management, any practice or activity carried out by the organization with the primary purpose of identifying and attracting potential employees is known as: - Answer- a. recruitment. b. selection. c. placement. d. forecasting. 97. Which one of the following would do little to improve external recruitment? - Answer- a. Using image advertising b. Using a single recruitment source c. Establishing due-process policies d. Using a lead-the-market pay strategy 98. Organizational recruitment materials that emphasize due process, rights of appeal and grievance mechanisms send a message that: - Answer- a. the organization has many problems. b. the organization values employee rights over productivity and profitability. c. job security is high in the organization. d. employee morale is low in the organization. 99. Which of the following is an advantage of relying on internal recruitment sources? - Answer- a. They are likely to promote diversity in terms of race and sex. b. They minimize the impact of political considerations in the hiring decision. c. They are generally cheaper and faster than other means. d. For entry-level positions, there will always be many recruits from which to select. 100. Direct applicants and referrals: - Answer- a. require more effort to get them "sold" on the organization than for most other types of applicants. b. are more expensive to recruit because of necessary background checks. c. tend to have, due to self-selection, a better understanding of the job requirements and their ability to fulfill them. d. tend to be much more diverse when compared with candidates from other sources. 101. Yield ratios express the: - Answer- a. output yielded by a new hire in relation to the cost of recruiting the new hire. b. percentage of applicants who successfully move from one stage of the recruitment and selection process to the next. c. dollar costs per hire. d. quality of new hires by comparing the cost of training the new recruits to the cost of hiring them. 102. Cost per hire is: - Answer- a. useful in establishing the efficiency of a recruiting source. b. lower for private employment agencies than for public employment agencies. c. lower for executive recruits than for clerical recruits. d. a measure of applicant quality. 103. For most companies, the first step in the personnel selection process is: - Answer- a. verification of the applicant's qualifications through reference and background checks. b. determining the best recruitment source. c. screening the applications received to determine which candidates meet the basic requirements for the job. d. preparation of a job description. 104. Which one of the following indicates how free a measure is from random error? - Answer- a. Reliability b. Validity c. Generalizability d. Utility 105. The extent to which performance on the selection measure (i.e., the predictor) is associated with performance on the job is called: - Answer- a. reliability. b. validity. c. generalizability. d. utility. 106. The use of a neutral-appearing selection method that damages a protected group is: - Answer- a. legal if the discrimination is unintentional. b. legal if the employer can demonstrate that its customers prefer employees who do well on the selection measure. c. legal if the employer can show that the method is job related and consistent with a business necessity. d. illegal and prohibited under all circumstances. 107. Which of the following statements is false? - Answer- a. Under the Americans with Disabilities Act, preemployment questions may not investigate disabilities. b. The Civil Rights Act of 1991 explicitly prohibits race and sex norming. c. The Fair Credit Reporting Act requires that employers obtain a candidate's consent before using a third party to check the candidate's credit history or references. d. Under the Immigration Reform and Control Act of 1986, employers may no longer hire individuals who do not hold U.S. citizenship. 108. Which one of the following interview questions is not permitted under the Americans with Disabilities Act? - Answer- a. Can you meet the attendance requirements for this job? b. How long did you work at your last place of employment? c. How many days of work did you miss in your last job because you were sick? d. Can you perform the essential functions of this job with or without accommodation? 109. Which one of the following is a permissible question for applications and interviews? - Answer- a. How old are you? b. What organizations or groups do you belong to? c. Have you ever been arrested? d. Have you ever worked under a different name? 110. Which one of the following is a permissible question for applications and interviews? - Answer- a. What schools have you attended? b. Do you have any disabilities? c. What is your ancestry? d. What is your religion? 111. Under the Immigration Reform and Control Act of 1986, employers: - Answer- a. must verify and maintain records on the legal rights of applicants to work in the United States. 125. Readiness for training is a combination of all but one of the following. Name the exception. - Answer- a. Employee characteristics b. Trainer characteristics c. Situational constraints d. Social support 126. When seeking an outside vendor for a training program, this document outlines the type of service needed, the number of employees to be trained, the date by which the training is to be completed, the source of funding, and the methods of evaluation. - Answer- a. Request for proposal (RFP) b. Affirmative action plan (AAP) c. Request for training (RFT) d. Call for contracts (CFC) 127. Which one of the following statements is not true of training administration? - Answer- a. It is typically the responsibility of the organization's human resource department. b. It involves such activities as communicating with employees, arranging the training facility, providing support during instruction, and maintaining records of course completion. c. It is not necessary if the organization sends employees to outside training programs. d. It includes activities before, during, and after training sessions. 128. Hands-on training methods are most effective for: - Answer- a. developing specific skills or dealing with interpersonal issues on the job. b. teaching new facts or alternative problem-solving solutions. c. establishing teams or work groups, or for improving their performance. d. sharing ideas and experiences and getting to know one's strengths and weaknesses. 129. One of the disadvantages of classroom instruction as a training method is its: - Answer- a. relatively high expense. b. time-consuming nature. c. inability to provide information about specific topics. d. lack of active participation. 130. This is a work-study training method that teaches job skills, usually a trade, through a combination of on-the-job training and classroom training. - Answer- a. Internship b. Coordination training c. Apprenticeship d. Experiential training 131. This type of on-the-job training program is generally sponsored by an educational institution as a component of its academic program and generally prepares students for professional careers. - Answer- a. Internship b. Coordination training c. Apprenticeship d. Experiential training 132. Giving teams or work groups an actual problem, having them work on solving it and commit to an action plan, and holding them accountable for carrying out the plan describes: - Answer- a. experiential learning. b. self-directed learning. c. action learning. d. team training. 133. All of the following are suggestions to help employees learn except: - Answer- a. use a single instructional method. b. limit the content of the training. c. provide feedback about performance. d. communicate the learning objectives. 134. Which one of the following statements about training and learning is not true? - Answer- a. Employees are most likely to learn when training is linked to their current job experience and tasks. b. Since people can attend to no more than four to five items at a time, training content needs to be presented in small units over extended periods of time. c. People tend to benefit most from long practice sessions, rather than from ongoing shorter sessions. d. Feedback on trainees' performance should focus on specific behaviors and be delivered as soon as possible after the trainees practice or demonstrate what they have learned. 135. Measures of training success generally include all but one of the following. Name the exception. - Answer- a. Trainee satisfaction with the program b. Knowledge or abilities learned c. Trainer satisfaction with the program d. Improvements in individual and organizational performance 136. The most accurate way to evaluate the training program is to: - Answer- a. use only a pretest. b. measure performance, knowledge, or attitudes among all employees before the training; train only part of the employees; and then, after the training, measure performance again, comparing the results of the two groups. c. conduct pretests and posttests on all trainees, comparing their performance, knowledge, or attitudes before and after the training. d. use only a posttest. 137. Training designed to prepare employees to perform their jobs effectively, learn about the organization, and establish work relationships is known as: - Answer- a. orientation. b. cross-training. c. role playing. d. development. 138. Which of the following is not a purpose of performance management systems? - Answer- a. Administrative b. Developmental c. Investigative d. Strategic 139. Which performance management evaluation criterion is concerned with maximizing the overlap between actual job performance and the measure of job performance? - Answer- a. Reliability b. Acceptability c. Specificity d. Validity 140. The consistency among the different individuals who evaluate the employee's performance is known as: - Answer- a. internal consistency reliability. b. interrater reliability. c. interrater validity. d. test-retest reliability. 141. The extent to which the performance measure gives guidance to employees about what is expected of them is called: - Answer- a. reliability. b. validity. c. specificity. d. acceptability. 142. Which one of the following is not a comparative performance appraisal technique? - Answer- a. Mixed-standards scale b. Simple ranking c. Forced distribution d. Paired comparison 143. The technique that ranks employees into predetermined categories or groups according to performance is called: - Answer- a. forced distribution. b. alternation ranking. c. paired comparison. d. ranking. 144. The most frequently used attribute approach to performance management is: - Answer- a. behaviorally anchored rating scales. b. mixed standard scales. c. behavioral observation scales. d. graphic rating scales. d. Tell-and-train 159. Managers can improve employee satisfaction with the feedback process by: - Answer- a. keeping the feedback session short and concentrating on only the positive. b. using the tell-and-sell approach during the feedback session. c. holding the feedback session in the employee's office. d. letting the employee voice his or her opinion and discuss performance goals. 160. The four general approaches that companies use to develop employees include: - Answer- a. formal education, assessment, job experiences, and interpersonal relationships. b. job rotation, promotion, transfer, and job sharing. c. psychological tests, assessment centers, Myers-Briggs Type Indicator, and performance feedback. d. business games, formal courses, team building, and assessment. 161. According to the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI), extroverts gain energy through: - Answer- a. interpersonal relationships. b. personal thoughts and feelings. c. gathering facts and details. d. establishing goals. 162. The Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) could be helpful to a manager in all but one of the following situations. Name the exception. - Answer- a. Developing teams b. Becoming more effective in interpersonal communications c. Measuring the job performance of employees d. Delegating employee work assignments 163. The primary use of assessment centers is to identify: - Answer- a. employees who have the personality characteristics and skills needed for managerial positions. b. the strengths and weaknesses of team members. c. decision processes and communication styles that inhibit production. d. employees' personality types and job interests. 164. In-basket exercises: - Answer- a. require teams of five to seven employees to work together to solve assigned problems within a certain time period. b. are paper-and-pencil tests designed to measure participants' communication styles and skills. c. simulate the administrative tasks of a manager's job, using a pile of documents for the employee to handle. d. require participants to take the part of a manager or employee in a situation involving the skills to be assessed. 165. When a team of five to seven employees is assigned a problem and must work together to solve it within a certain time period, which one of the following techniques is being used? - Answer- a. Discussion b. Leaderless group discussion c. Role playing d. In-basket exercise 166. When using performance appraisals for development, all of the following are important except: - Answer- a. managers must be trained in giving frequent performance feedback. b. employees should be evaluated on traits rather than on behavioral considerations. c. managers should monitor employees' progress in carrying out their action plans. d. employees must gain a clear understanding of the differences between current performance and expected performance. 167. Most employee development occurs through: - Answer- a. performance appraisals. b. job experiences. c. mentoring programs. d. job enlargement. 168. Job rotation involves: - Answer- a. adding challenges or new responsibilities to the employee's current job. b. moving the employee through a series of job assignments in one or more of the functional areas of the company. c. allowing the employee to work full-time in a temporary position at another company. d. allowing the employee to switch between two different jobs within the company on a daily or weekly basis. 169. An engineer accepting an assignment as a shift supervisor in order to develop his or her management skills is an example of a/an: - Answer- a. lateral demotion. b. sabbatical. c. downward move. d. externship. 170. Providing employees with the opportunity to get away from the day-to-day stresses of their job and acquire new skills and perspectives is known as a/an: - Answer- a. transfer. b. expatriate assignment. c. sabbatical. d. externship. 171. A mentor is generally an: - Answer- a. employee's peer who provides friendship and guidance. b. employee's manager who provides feedback on performance. c. employee's family member who provides emotional and financial support. d. experienced, productive senior employee who provides feedback and coaching. 172. Which one of the following is not true of mentoring? - Answer- a. Mentoring programs tend to be most successful when the length of the program and level of contact expected are left to the discretion of the mentor and protégé. b. Most mentoring relationships develop informally as a result of interests or values shared by the mentor and protégé. c. Employees most likely to seek and attract a mentor are emotionally stable, have the ability to adapt their behavior to different situations, and have a high need for power and achievement. d. Mentoring programs tend to be most successful when they are voluntary and participants understand the details of the program. 173. A peer or manager who works closely with an employee to motivate him or her, help him or her develop skills, and provide reinforcement and feedback is known as a: - Answer- a. role model. b. coach. c. good Samaritan. d. high-potential employee. 174. In the career management process, the employee is primarily responsible for all but one of the following. Name the exception. - Answer- a. Identifying goals and a timetable to reach them b. Identifying company resources needed to reach goals c. Identifying developmental needs d. Identifying what skills are realistic to develop 175. Which one of the following is not true of the glass ceiling? - Answer- a. The barrier may be due to a lack of access to training programs, developmental job experiences, and developmental relationships, such as mentoring. b. Research has found gender differences in access to job experiences involving transitions and creating change. c. The barrier may be due to stereotypes that hinder the development of women and minorities. d. Research shows male managers receive more assignments involving high levels of responsibility than do female managers of similar ability and managerial level. 176. Succession planning results in all but one of the following. Name the exception. - Answer- a. Ensures that senior management systematically conduct a review of leadership talent in the company. b. Provides a set of developmental experiences that managers must complete to be considered for top-management positions. c. Assures that top-level management talent is available. d. Identifies a specific replacement for each managerial position within the company. 177. All of the following are true of succession planning except: - Answer- a. high- potential employees typically participate in fast-track development programs that involve education, executive mentoring and coaching, and job rotation. 189. Job withdrawal is: - Answer- a. the loss of jobs within an organization due to adverse economic forces. b. a set of behaviors that dissatisfied individuals enact to avoid the work situation. c. the retracting of a job offer following the results of the pre-employment physical. d. a psychological state employees experience upon a job dismissal or retirement. 190. In terms of job dissatisfaction, an employee who calls in sick or arrives to work late is engaging in: - Answer- a. behavior change. b. psychological withdrawal. c. physical withdrawal. d. whistle-blowing. 191. Denise is very dissatisfied with her job situation, but she doesn't perceive any other employment opportunities, so she stays and spends most of the workday dreaming about nonwork matters. Which of the following behaviors is she experiencing? - Answer- a. Physical withdrawal b. Psychological withdrawal c. Change behaviors d. Physiological withdrawal 192. Comparable worth is a public policy that: - Answer- a. advocates remedies for any undervaluation of jobs based on market-pay data. b. advocates equal pay for jobs of equal content. c. has been consistently upheld in court rulings. d. advocates the use of job evaluation to replace the market in pay-setting. 193. Which one of the following is not true of the Fair Labor Standards Act? - Answer- a. The overtime rate under the FLSA is one and a half times the employee's hourly rate, including any bonuses and piece-rate payments. b. The FLSA requires federal contractors to pay "prevailing wage rates." c. The FLSA permits a subminimum training wage equal to 85 percent of the minimum wage. d. Nonexempt employees are covered by FLSA and include most hourly workers. 194. The FLSA includes provisions for all of the following except: - Answer- a. overtime pay. b. minimum wage. c. wage discrimination. d. child labor. 195. An employee who earns $10 an hour and receives a weekly attendance award of $20 works 50 hours this week. His or her total compensation for the week will be: - Answer- a. $550.00. b. $557.50. c. $570.00. d. $577.50. 196. Which group of employees is not exempt from the Fair Labor Standards Act? - Answer- a. Professionals b. Administrative personnel c. Unionized employees d. Outside sales personnel 197. Exempt status under the FLSA depends on: - Answer- a. the employee's job responsibilities and salary. b. the employee's basis of pay (hourly, piecework, or salaried). c. the employee's job title. d. the date of hire. 198. Which piece of U.S. legislation, along with the 1931 Davis-Bacon Act, legislated that federal contractors pay employees no less than the prevailing wage within the work area? - Answer- a. The FLSA b. The Walsh-Healy Act c. The Equal Pay Act d. The Employment Standards Act 199. The federal government tracks trends in the nation's cost of living with a measure known as the: - Answer- a. Consumer Price Index. b. Living-Wage Index. c. Gross National Product. d. Inflation Index. 200. A company that views employees as resources is most likely to use a/an ____- market pay rate. - Answer- a. at b. below c. above d. variable 201. The procedure through which an organization compares its own practices to those of successful competitors is known as: - Answer- a. gainsharing. b. commercial intelligence. c. benchmarking. d. profiling. 202. The National Labor Relations Board has ruled that: - Answer- a. companies may ban discussions about pay within the workplace. b. employees must be free to talk about pay in the workplace. c. issues relating to discussions about pay must be negotiated between management and labor. d. policies regarding discussions about pay are outside of its regulatory control. 203. An example of a typical compensable factor is: - Answer- a. social status. b. education. c. longevity. d. gender. 204. A market pay-policy line: - Answer- a. is developed after pay grades have been established. b. can be generated using a statistical procedure called regression analysis. c. requires market-pay-rate data on all jobs in the organization. d. reflects the pay structure in the company as well as the market. 205. A drawback of pay grades is that they: - Answer- a. increase the administrative burden of managing the compensation system. b. result in decreased promotional opportunities for employees. c. result in some jobs being underpaid and others being overpaid. d. increase costs of surveying the market. 206. Since organizations want some flexibility in setting the pay for individuals in accordance with the employees' qualifications and performance, they generally add ____ to their pay structures. - Answer- a. pay grades b. pay ranges c. pay differentials d. cost-of-living increases 207. After establishing a pay range of $8.25 to $11.50 for Positions A - F, you discover that the company's pay rate for Position B is $7.75. The pay for Position B represents a: - Answer- a. red-circle rate. b. skill-based job. c. green-circle rate. d. newly created position within the company. 208. When an organization reduces the number of levels in its job structure by combining some of its pay grades, it is engaged in: - Answer- a. outsourcing. b. broad banding. c. rightsizing. d. benchmarking. 209. Skill-based pay systems have all but one of the following potential disadvantages. Name the exception. - Answer- a. Increased bureaucracy and paperwork b. Difficulty in obtaining market data c. Decreased worker flexibility d. Employees "topping out" 210. The compa-ratio: - Answer- a. measures the degree to which actual pay is consistent with the pay policy. b. is defined as average pay for the grade divided by the minimum pay for the grade. c. can range from 0 to 100 percent. 225. The weakest link between employees' performance and pay is found in: - Answer- a. individual incentive plans. b. merit pay plans. c. profit-sharing plans. d. stock ownership plans. 226. Which one of the following terms describes the right of company personnel to buy a certain number of shares of stock at a specified price? - Answer- a. Stock options b. Employee stock ownership plans (ESOPs) c. Profit-sharing d. Draw 227. In 2003, a company employee received an option to purchase the company's stock at $45 per share. If the stock is trading at $40 a share in 2005, the employee will most likely: - Answer- a. exercise the option, receiving a gain of $5. b. hold on to the option, hoping the stock price will increase in the future. c. exercise the option, receiving a gain of $40. d. hold on to the option, hoping the stock price will decrease in the future. 228. Which term describes the process whereby an organization distributes shares of stock to its employees by placing the stock in a trust managed on the employees' behalf? - Answer- a. Profit-sharing b. Stock pooling c. Employee stock ownership plan d. Leveraged buyout 229. Which one of the following is not true of ESOPs? - Answer- a. ESOPs are the most common form of employee ownership. b. When employees are ready to leave the organization, they may sell the stock to the organization or (if a publicly traded company) on the open market. c. Along with tax and financing advantages, ESOPs give employers a way to build pride in and commitment to the organization. d. ESOP funds are backed by the Pension Benefit Guarantee Corporation. 230. Organizations customize their balanced scorecards according to their: - Answer- a. markets. b. products. c. objectives. d. All of the above 231. Which one of the following has not been an underlying reason for the growth in employer-provided benefits? - Answer- a. The tax treatment of benefits is often more favorable for employees than the tax treatment of wages and salaries. b. The cost advantage of group rates that employers often receive over individuals. c. The explosive growth in the number of small businesses within the United States. d. The ability of employers to assemble creative benefits packages that set them apart in the competition for talent. 232. Which one of the following employer-provided benefits is not required by law? - Answer- a. Social Security b. Disability insurance c. Family and medical leave d. Unemployment insurance 233. The unemployment insurance program is financed largely through federal and state taxes on: - Answer- a. employees and employers. b. employers only. c. employees only. d. all taxpayers. 234. The Family and Medical Leave Act of 1993 requires employers to provide all but one of the following. Name the exception. - Answer- a. Up to 12 weeks of unpaid leave after childbirth or adoption b. Reinstatement to the same (or a comparable) job upon one's return to work c. Medical insurance to any employee who has one or more years of full-time service d. Up to 12 weeks of unpaid leave to care for a seriously ill parent, spouse, or child 235. To take unpaid family leave under the provisions of the Family and Medical Leave Act, employees must meet all but one of the following. Name the exception. - Answer- a. Have worked for an employer with 50 or more employees within a 75-mile radius b. Have worked at least 15 hours per week c. Have worked for the employer for one year or more d. Not be among the top 10 percent of highest paid executives 236. The Pregnancy Discrimination Act of 1978 requires employers: - Answer- a. to offer disability plans with pregnancy-related coverage. b. who offer disability plans to treat pregnancy as they would any other disability. c. to provide up to six weeks of paid leave to either parent upon the birth of a child. d. to provide up to six weeks of unpaid leave to either parent upon the birth of a child. 237. Due to increasing diversity within the workplace, many employers are extending benefits to: - Answer- a. independent contractors. b. domestic partners. c. extended family members. d. anyone living within the employee's household. 238. The purpose of floating holidays is to allow employees to: - Answer- a. extend a Tuesday or Thursday holiday into a long weekend. b. decide which national holidays they wish to observe with pay. c. take time off for personal reasons (with the approval of the supervisor). d. allow international employees to observe legal holidays within their country of assignment. 239. Which one of the following is not true of the Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1985? - Answer- a. Employers must permit employees to extend their health insurance coverage for up to 36 months following a "qualifying event." b. Qualified employees must have access to the same services as employees who have not lost their health insurance. c. Employers must continue to pay the cost of premiums for qualified employees. d. Qualifying events include, among others, termination (except for gross misconduct), a reduction in hours that leads to the loss of health insurance, and death. 240. Which one of the following is not true of health maintenance organizations (HMOs)? - Answer- a. Costs tend to be less than for traditional health insurance. b. Services are provided on a prepaid basis. c. Employees may select physicians of their choice. d. Payment of physicians is on a flat-salary basis. 241. PPOs differ from HMOs in all but one of the following ways. Name the exception. - Answer- a. PPOs provide benefits on a reduced-fee, per-call basis rather than on a prepaid basis. b. PPO employees are not required to use only preselected plan service providers, as in HMOs. c. PPOs are less expensive plans than HMOs. d. PPOs have more in common with traditional fee-for-service plans than do HMOs. 242. Which one of the following statements about flexible spending accounts is not true? - Answer- a. They may be used to cover only employee (not dependents') health- care expenses. b. They permit pretax employee contributions. c. Contributions to the accounts may not exceed $5,000 per year and must be designated in advance. d. Funds must be used by the plan's yearend or they revert to the employer. 243. Which of the following is not true of employee wellness programs? - Answer- a. The programs are preventive in nature. b. The programs manage health-care costs by reducing employees' needs for services. c. The programs are either active or passive, with active programs costing less than passive programs. d. The programs generally target specific health risks, such as high blood pressure, smoking, and obesity. 244. Which type of retirement plan guarantees a specified level of retirement income? - Answer- a. 401(k) plan b. Defined contribution plan c. Money purchase plan 258. Which one of the following is not a primary activity of the AFL-CIO? - Answer- a. Providing information and analysis for member unions b. Providing labor education services c. Lobbying at the national level on public-policy issues d. Administering contracts for local unions 259. The American Federation of Labor and Congress of Industrial Organizations is an example of: - Answer- a. a craft union. b. a governmental agency. c. an industrial union. d. an association. 260. John works for the local chapter of a national industrial union. He believes his immediate supervisor is not living up to the terms of the recently negotiated contract. John should contact: - Answer- a. the regional office of his labor union. b. his business representative. c. the national office of the AFL-CIO. d. his union steward. 261. Which one of the following is true of union membership in the United States since the 1980s? - Answer- a. Union membership as a percentage of civilian employment has climbed dramatically. b. Union membership is higher in the private sector than in the public sector. c. Union membership among government workers has held steady, while declines have occurred in the private sector. d. Total union membership now stands at about 30 percent of all employment. 262. The decline in union membership can be attributed to all but one of the following factors. Name the exception. - Answer- a. The growing number of women and youth in the service sector of the economy. b. The growth among blue-collar workers, especially middle-aged workers. c. The growth in the number of employers fighting union organizing efforts. d. The large job growth in the South, where workers are less likely to join unions. 263. Which one of the following is not true of the effects of unions on company performance? - Answer- a. As a result of the type of pay system favored by unions, employees are more inclined to cooperate than compete with one another. b. Most studies show that union workers are less productive than nonunion workers. c. On average, union members receive higher wages and more generous benefits than nonunion workers, and evidence shows that unions have a negative effect on profits. d. Union membership can reduce turnover by giving employees a route for resolving problems. 264. The pay system most frequently used in a union setting is a(n): - Answer- a. incentive system. b. merit system. c. bonus system. d. seniority system. 265. What type of union security arrangement is considered to be the strongest for maintaining a viable and secure union membership organization?\ - Answer- a. Agency shop b. Maintenance of membership c. Open shop d. Union shop 266. Which type of union security provision is illegal under provisions of the NLRA? - Answer- a. Union shops b. Agency shops c. Closed shops d. Open shops 267. Which one of the following union security provisions is permitted within a right-to- work state? - Answer- a. Union shops b. Agency shops c. Maintenance of membership d. None of the above 268. Which one of the following pieces of legislation actively supported collective bargaining by setting forth the rights of employees, including the right of self- organization, to form, join, or assist labor organizations, to bargain collectively through representatives of their own choosing, and to engage in other concerted activities for the purpose of collective bargaining? - Answer- a. The Landrum-Griffin Act b. The Civil Rights Act c. The Wagner Act d. The Taft-Hartley Act 269. Protected activities under the NLRA include all but one of the following. Name the exception. - Answer- a. Union organizing b. Joining a union, whether it is recognized by the employer or not c. Refraining from activity on behalf of the union d. Advance notice by employers of plant shutdowns 270. The National Labor Relations Board has the power to do all but one of the following. Name the exception. - Answer- a. Set aside the results of an election b. Levy punitive damages c. Order reinstatement of employees, with or without back pay d. Issue cease-and-desist orders to halt unfair labor practices 271. Under the NLRA, all of the following are unfair labor practices on the part of management except: - Answer- a. spying or pretending to spy on union meetings. b. refusing to meet with employees' representatives because the employees are on strike. c. discussing the disadvantages of union membership with employees. d. threatening to close down a plant if organized by a union. 272. Under the Taft-Hartley Act, all of the following are unfair labor practices on the part of the union except: - Answer- a. calling or visiting employees at home for the purpose of promoting union membership or activities. b. mass picketing in such numbers that nonstriking employees physically cannot enter the workplace. c. threatening employees with physical injury or job loss if they do not support union activities. d. terminating an existing contract and striking for a new one without notifying the employer, the Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service, and the state mediation service (where one exists). 273. Which piece of legislation could be described as a Bill of Rights for union members because of its focus on the internal affairs of unions and their leaders? - Answer- a. The Wagner Act b. The Taft-Hartley Act c. The Landrum-Griffin Act d. The Civil Service Reform Act 274. The purpose of the National Labor Relations Board is to: - Answer- a. conduct periodic onsite inspections of union and company records regarding the negotiation and enforcement of all contract provisions and related labor-relation activities. b. conduct and certify representation elections, to determine the employees who are eligible to participate in organizing activities and bargaining units, and to prevent unfair labor practices. c. draft, hold a hearing on, and promulgate rules and regulations regarding union- management relations. d. All of the above 275. Which one of the following employee groups is most likely to be excluded by the NLRB from participating in organizing activities and being a member of the bargaining unit? - Answer- a. Employees in multiple facilities within a single employer. b. Employees covered by multiple employers. c. Employees with certain supervisory duties. d. Employees who have been on strike for economic reasons for less than one year and who have been replaced by other employees. 276. What percent of employers in a bargaining unit must sign authorization cards for the NLRB to hold a union representation election? - Answer- a. 30 percent b. 50 percent c. 35 percent d. 51 percent 290. According to research, the factor that most strongly influences whether an employee completes a foreign assignment is: - Answer- a. flexibility. b. job knowledge. c. family situation. d. pay. 291. The process of preparing a person to return from a foreign assignment and assisting him or her with that reentry is known as: - Answer- a. reorientation. b. expatriation. c. repatriation. d. validation. 292. A high-performance work system: - Answer- a. consists of a group of exceptional employees whose productivity is aided by advances in technology. b. is a combination of people, technology, and organizational structure that makes full use of the organization's resources and opportunities in achieving its goals. c. is a computer software system designed to help managers solve problems by showing how results vary when the manager alters assumptions or data. d. is a system used to collect, record, store, analyze, and retrieve data concerning an organization's human resources. 293. High-performance work systems emphasize: - Answer- a. training. b. development. c. career management. d. All of the above 294. Outcomes of a high-performance work system include all but one of the following. Name the exception. - Answer- a. Lower costs and improved profits b. High-quality goods and services c. Lower employee involvement and job satisfaction d. Higher employee productivity and efficiency 295. Outcomes of a high-performance work system include all but one of the following. Name the exception. - Answer- a. Higher employee turnover b. Higher customer satisfaction c. Greater knowledge sharing d. Increased innovation 296. One of the most popular ways to empower employees is to: - Answer- a. use an at- will-employment policy. b. design work so that it is performed by teams. c. increase pay levels above those of major competitors. d. employ a promotion-from-within policy. 297. An organization in which people continually expand their capacity to achieve the results they desire is known as a/an: - Answer- a. e-learning organization. b. adaptive organization. c. learning organization. d. next-generation organization. 298. In high-performance organizations, employees tend to experience: - Answer- a. burnout. b. job dissatisfaction. c. isolation. d. job satisfaction. 299. Because much human resource information is confidential, organizations engaging in e-HRM are: - Answer- a. continuously limiting the amount and type of information made available to company personnel. b. increasingly placing company-specific information on a secure intranet with links to resources on the broader Internet. c. consolidating information into a single file and restricting access to this database to only top-level personnel within the company. d. placing confidentiality notices online, which must be "accepted" before the employee gains access to the restricted file. 300. The first step in an HR audit is to: - Answer- a. conduct an external analysis of the company's product- and labor-market environments. b. identify key functions and key performance measures of business performance and customer satisfaction that will indicate success within each HRM function. c. gather information through organizational documents, customer surveys, employee attitude surveys, and other instruments and tools. d. evaluate performance data to determine levels of success and develop action plans to correct any deficiencies in performance.