Exam 1: NUR208/ NUR 208 (New 2024/ 2025 Update) Mental Health Nursing Review| Q&A, Exams of Nursing

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Exam 1 : NUR20 8 / NUR 20 8 (New 2024/ 2025

Update) Mental Health Nursing Review|

Questions and Verified Answers| 100%

Correct| A Grade – Fortis

QUESTION

MAOIs are dangerous when eaten with which foods? Answer: aged cheeses, pickled or smoked fish, and wine

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Examples of MAOIs Answer: Isocarboxazid (Marplan) Phenelzine (Nardil) Tranylcypromine (Parnate)

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First-generation antipsychotics are also referred to as conventional antipsychotics and typical antipsychotics. These drugs are strong ____________ of the ________ for dopamine Answer: antagonists (blocking agents), D2 receptors

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examples of first generation antipsychotics

Answer: Chlorpromazine (Thorazine) Haloperidol (Haldol)

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How do second generation antipsychotics (atypical) differ from first generation? Answer: they produce fewer EPS and target both the negative and positive symptoms of schizophrenia.

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Examples of second generation antipsychotics Answer: Clozapine (Clozaril) Olanzapine (Zyprexa); w/ fluoxetine (Symbyax) Risperidone (Risperdal)

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what medications are given for ADHD? Answer: Methylphenidate (Ritalin, Daytrana (transdermal) and dextroamphetamine (adderall, Vyvanse)

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What system prepares the body for fight or flight? Answer: Sympathetic Nervous System

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What system is dominant when an individual is in a non-stressful state? Answer: Parasympathetic

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what does the central nervous system consist of? Answer: brain and spinal cord

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What does the peripheral nervous system consist of? Answer: the cranial, spinal, and peripheral nerves and their motor and sensory endings

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what does the somatic nervous system do? Answer: part of the peripheral nervous system associated with the voluntary control of body movements via skeletal muscles

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`pre-orientation phase of the professional nurse/patient relationship Answer: examine feelings about working with a client

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What occurs during the orientation phase? Answer: establish rapport and a contract agreement for care occurring during the orientation phase

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what is the nurses priority during the working phase? Answer: promoting the clients insight and perception of reality

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what occurs in the termination phase? Answer: establishing a plan for aftercare

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culturally competent nursing care is demonstrated through what? Answer: therapeutic communication. ask the client if they have any specific healthcare practices that the nursing staff should be aware of. Best to always involve the patient.

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it is therapeutic for the nurse to recognize a client's request or refusal to participate in certain activities is likely what?

Answer: not due to personal preference- it can be due o cultural or religious beliefs.

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Best source of client information Answer: the client

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if the client is incapacitated, it is acceptable to what? Answer: collect a health history from the family

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Clients exhibiting inappropriate behaviors or aggression, the most appropriate nursing interventions are what? Answer: set firm limits on the behavior. explore the source of anger may be appropriate once the client has resolved their current emotion or in a therapeutic group setting. ALSO APPROPRIATE: putting this client in a "time out"

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How can you encourage the client to keep speaking? Answer: offer general leads

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techniques of active listening include: Answer: facing squarely using an open posture, leaning forward when a person is talking. Using good eye contact shows the nurse is listening and not distracted.

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Therapeutic Use of Self: Answer: the most essential task for a nurse to accomplish prior to forming a therapeutic relationship with a client is to clarify his/her own personal attitudes, values, and beliefs.

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self-awareness Answer: understanding ones own attitudes, values, and beliefs.

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panic attacks in Latin Americans and Northern Europeans Answer: often involve sensations of choking, smothering, numbness, or tingling, as well as fear of dying.

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Hispanics typically express grief by being Answer: dramatic and loud

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childhood mental illness Answer: ADHD, anxiety, mood disorders, autism, eating disorders

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social communication disorder: Answer: children have problems using verbal and nonverbal means for interacting socially with others

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the two types of symptoms that cause behavior problems: Answer: inattentiveness and/or hyperactivity and impulsiveness.

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he symptoms of ADHD in children are typically noticeable before the age of Answer: 6

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conduct disorder findings: Answer:

slower resting hr and increased testosterone levels.

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conduct disorder Answer: patterns of behavior in which the rights of others or basic social rules are violated

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Intermittent Explosive Disorder Answer: episodes during which a person acts on aggressive impulses that result in serious assaults or destruction of property. higher than normal levels of inflammatory markers are found in clients with intermittent explosive disorder.

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How does Lithium work? Answer: may reduce the excitatory neurotransmitter glutamate and exert an antimanic effect

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Gives each mental disorder criteria for a definable diagnosis Answer: DSM- 5

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The Diathesis Stress Model

Answer: a psychological theory as the result of an interaction between a pre-dispositional vulnerability (genetics or biologics) which is the diathesis, a stress (environment) caused by life experiences, etc.

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the most widely accepted theory for the factors which influence mental health and well being Answer: Diathesis-stress model

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What can be included in the nurses assessment of environmental factors? Answer: culture

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examples of tertiary prevention in mental health? Answer: preventing suicide, loss of employment, disruption to the family process. also, crisis screening/care and treatment. DOES NOT REDUCE INCIDENCE OR PREVALENCE

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examples of secondary prevention in mental health Answer: identify problems early, screening, and prompt, effective treatment is the goal

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What is the goal of primary prevention in mental health? Answer: prevent or delay the onset of symptoms in predisposed clients.

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clinical pathways Answer: provide standardization in the treatment for inpatient treatment

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These are a last resort intervention for a client with suicidal ideation in the ER Answer: wrist restraints are a last resort intervention and would require a providers order.

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Battery Answer: unlawful touching of another person without consent

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assault Answer: intentional threat toward another person or making the person feel threatened by unwelcomed contact

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False imprisonment Answer: when a client is confined to a limited area or within a facility

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examples of what can be used when a client is in danger of hurting themselves or others Answer: seclusion, isolation, or restraints

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what does the Joint Commission require for restraint or seclusion? Answer: requires that an in-person evaluation by a physician or other licensed independent practitioner be conducted within 1 hour of the initiation of restraint or seclusion

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principles included in the professional nursing code of ethics Answer: advocacy, responsibility, accountability, and confidentiality

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What are you violating if you provide any information without proper consent from the client?

Answer: HIPPA

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Client rights Answer: right to privacy, right to refuse treatment and med, right to a written treatment plan

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what is the nurses role in signing an informed consent? Answer: ensure the client has not received any meds that would alter their ability to make an informed decision. in most cases the client with mental illness can make informed decisions about their care provided they are deemed competent to do so.

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When can a healthcare professional override treatment refusal? Answer: actively suicidal or homicidal- this is an emergency and treatment can be preformed without informed consent

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who is generally involuntarily admitted? Answer: suicidal, homicidal, or extremely disabled and in need of acute care

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what are freuds three levels of awareness? Answer: the conscious, preconscious, and unconscious

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the unconscious includes what? Answer: all repressed memories, passions, and unacceptable urges that are deep below the surface of awareness.

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what does the conscious include? Answer: all the material a person is aware of at any time?

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The Superego develops between the ages of what? Answer: 3 and 5

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What does the superego do? Answer: the voice that incorporates the values and morals which are learned from one's parents and society. It tries to persuade the id and ego to turn to moral goals rather than seeking pleasure

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How does the ego develope? Answer: defense mechanisms to ward off anxiety by preventing conscious awareness of threatening feelings

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what is the ego? Answer: the decision-making part of the mind. it also seeks pleasure, but uses reason and logic to do so. It tries to get the unrealistic id to cooperate in a society bound by laws and social norms

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What does the ID do? Answer: the instinctual part of the mind that responds immediately to wants and desires. The id is chaotic and animal-like seeking pleasure and avoiding pain.

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in what stages does the EGO develop? Answer: ORAL and ANAL

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in what stages does the superego develop?

Answer: Phallic

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Buspirone Answer: a drug that reduces anxiety without having strong sedative-hypnotic properties. tolerated better than benzos and isnt a CNS depressant so it doesn't interact as badly with alcohol or make you sleepy

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GABA

Answer: the major inhibitory (calming) neurotransmitter in the central nervous system (CNS)

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BENZOs enhance the affect of Answer: GABA

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SSRIs Answer: Fluoxetine, paroxetine, sertraline, citalopram.

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how do SSRIs work Answer: Increase serotonin levels in CNS by inhibiting their presynaptic reuptake

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Mental Health Parity Act Answer: forbids health plans from placing lifetime or annual limits on mental health coverage that are less generous than those placed on medical or surgical benefits

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a therapeutic milieu should offer the client a sense of what? Answer: Security and promote healing

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who establishes behavioral limits? Answer: both staff and clients- all members of the team participate in the plan of care.

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What should the nurse do if the client demonstrates distress or anxiety about visitors? Answer: advocate for the client and explain that they have a right to refuse visitors.