Exam 1 Resolution - Fundamentals of Human Anatomy and Physiology | BIOL 252, Exams of Physiology

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BIOL 252: Practice Exam 1

1. _____________ cells in simple columnar and pseudostratified columnar epithelia produce protective mucous coatings over the mucous membranes. A. Basement membrane B. Simple C. Basal D. Keratinized E. Goblet
2. New triglycerides are constantly synthesized and stored and others are hydrolyzed and released into circulation mostly from cells in A. blood. B. fibrous connective tissue. C. adipose tissue. D. reticular tissue. E. transitional tissue.
3. Which of the following characteristics is NOT consistent with simple squamous epithelial tissue? A. little extracellular material B. rest on a basement membrane C. has good blood supply within it D. the cells are thin and flat (not thick) E. acts as a permeability barrier
4. ___ epithelium is the most widespread epithelium in the body, whereas ___ epithelium is rare. A. Simple columnar; stratified columnar B. Stratified squamous; stratified columnar C. Pseudostratified; stratified squamous D. Simple cuboidal; stratified squamous E. Stratified squamous; simple squamous
5. _____ epithelium is associated with rapid transport of substances through a membrane, whereas _____ epithelium is associated with resistance to abrasion. A. Simple columnar; transitional B. Simple squamous; stratified squamous C. Simple cuboidal; pseudostratified D. Pseudostratified; simple squamous E. Pseudostratified; simple cuboidal
6. _____ secrete the cartilage rubbery matrix, whereas ___ produce the fibers and ground substance that form the matrix of fibrous connective tissue. A. Chondroblasts; plasma cells B. Mast cells; fibroblasts C. Osteocytes; chondroblasts D. Chondroblasts; fibroblasts E. Adipocytes; plasma cells
7. These are all types of cells found in the epidermis except A. melanocytes. B. fibroblasts. C. stem cells. D. keratinocytes. E. tactile (Merkel) cells.

8. This image shows structures of the skin and subcutaneous tissue. Layer "1" represents ___, whereas most of layer "2" represents ___. A. simple squamous epithelium; areolar tissue B. stratified squamous epithelium; dense irregular connective tissue C. dense irregular connective tissue; stratified squamous epithelium D. simple squamous epithelium; stratified squamous epithelium E. dense regular connective tissue; stratified squamous epithelium
9. The ___ is absent from most epidermis. A. Stratum basale B. Stratum spinosum C. Stratum granulosum D. Stratum lucidum E. Stratum corneum
10. Bilirubin causes a skin discoloration called A. erythema. B. jaundice. C. pallor. D. bronzing. E. cyanosis.
11. The _________ provides the hair with its sole source of nutrition. A. bulb B. root C. shaft D. dermal papilla E. medulla
12. The oil of your scalp is secreted by __________ glands associated with the hair follicles. A. merocrine sweat B. apocrine sweat C. sebaceous D. ceruminous E. mammary

13. ___ are examples of effectors of the nervous system. A. Receptors B. Stimuli C. Reflexes D. Glands E. Sense organs
14. Most of the myelin sheath is composed of A. lipids. B. carbohydrates. C. glycoproteins. D. proteins. E. polysaccharides.
15. Which of the following will cause the plasma membrane to hyperpolarize when at its RMP? A. inflow of sodium B. inflow of potassium C. inflow of calcium D. inflow of chloride E. outflow of chloride
16. All of the following are typical characteristics of neurotransmitters except A. they are synthesized by a presynaptic neuron. B. they are released in response to stimulation. C. they are released into the bloodstream before reaching the postsynaptic cell. D. they bind to specific receptors on the postsynaptic cell. E. they alter the physiology of the postsynaptic cell.
17. Which of these happens first in an cholinergic synaptic transmission? A. ACh diffuses across the synaptic cleft B. postsynaptic potential is produced C. sodium enters the postsynaptic cell D. synaptic vesicles release ACh E. Ach binds to ligand-regulated gates
18. Even though all action potentials are the same, the brain can differentiate a variety of stimuli by source and intensity. The mechanism by which the nervous system converts these action potentials into meaningful information is called neural A. recruitment. B. pooling. C. integration. D. facilitation. E. coding.
19. During the absolute refractory period A. if a neuron reaches threshold, the action potential goes to completion. B. the neuron fires at its maximum voltage if a stimulus depolarizes the neuron to threshold. C. the signal grows weaker with distance. D. it is possible to trigger a new action potential, but only with an unusually strong stimulus. E. no stimulus of any strength will trigger a new action potential.

20. ____ division carries signals to the smooth muscle in the large intestine. A. Visceral sensory B. Somatic sensory C. Visceral motor D. Somatic motor E. Afferent
21. Multiple sclerosis is a neurological disorder in which myelin sheaths in the CNS are destroyed. Which of the following neuroglial cells is being damaged in multiple sclerosis? A. astrocyte B. microglial cell C. oligodendrocyte D. ependymal cell E. Schwann cells
22. ___ has the greatest influence on the resting membrane potential. A. Sodium B. Chloride C. Calcium D. Phosphate E. Potassium
23. A local potential A. does not occur until threshold. B. transmits information from one cell to another. C. might be a depolarization event but cannot be a hyperpolarization event. D. increases or decreases in direct proportion to the stimulus strength. E. does not alter resting membrane potential.
24. Which of the following events is NOT a characteristic of an action potential? A. The plasma membrane becomes highly permeable to sodium ions and depolarization results. B. As sodium ions enter, the inside of the plasma membrane becomes more negative. C. At the peak of depolarization, sodium channels begin to close and potassium channels open. D. In repolarization, potassium ions flow out of the cell. E. Action potentials occur according to the all-or-none principle.
25. A neuron can receive thousands of EPSPs from different neurons, and responds by triggering or not triggering an action potential. This addition and response to the net effect of postsynaptic potentials is called A. temporal summation. B. neural summation. C. spatial summation. D. neuronal coding. E. recruitment.
26. The autonomic nervous system is also called the A. visceral sensory division. B. somatic sensory division. C. visceral motor division. D. somatic motor division. E. central nervous system.

27. The pons and cerebellum relate with this secondary embryonic vesicle. A. telencephalon B. diencephalon C. mesencephalon D. metencephalon E. myelencephalon
28. The blood brain barrier (BBB) consists of A. gap junctions between endothelial cells that form the capillary walls. B. tight junctions between endothelial cells that form the capillary walls. C. gap and tight junctions between astrocytes and endothelial cells that form the capillary walls. D. desmosomes and tight junctions between astrocytes and ependymal cells that form the capillary walls. E. gap junctions between ependymal cells and endothelial cells that form the capillary walls.
29. The ___ is not a motor cranial nerve. A. trochlear nerve (IV) B. abducens nerve (VI) C. hypoglossal nerve (XII) D. vestibulocochlear nerve (VIII) E. accessory nerve (XI)
30. This nerve innervates most of the viscera in the thoracic and abdominopelvic cavities. A. the hypoglossal nerve (XII) B. the accessory nerve (XI) C. the trochlear nerve (IV) D. the abducens nerve (VI) E. the vagus nerve (X)
31. Destruction of the embryonic ____________ will prevent formation of the nervous system. A. ectoderm B. mesoderm C. endoderm D. mesoglia
32. Eye movements would be compromised by A. damage to the trochlear nerve. B. damage to the vestibulocochlear nerve. C. damage to the vagus nerve. D. damage to the accessory nerve.
33. Atropine is sometimes used to dilate the pupil for eye examination. Which receptor would atropine block? A. alpha 1 adrenergic receptor B. nicotinic receptor C. muscarinic receptor D. alpha 2 adrenergic receptor E. beta receptor
34. The neurotransmitter(s) associated with autonomic ganglia is(are) A. norepinephrine (NE). B. acetylcholine (ACh) and norepinephrine (NE). C. acetylcholine (ACh). D. dopamine. E. dopamine and norepinephrine (NE).

35. Sympathetic fibers arise only from the ____ region(s) of the spinal cord. A. cervical, thoracic, and lumbar B. thoracic and lumbar C. thoracic D. cervical E. lumbar
36. These are all characteristics of the parasympathetic division except A. its effects are local. B. the terminal ganglia are very close to their target organs. C. it originates in the craniosacral region of the spinal cord. D. it has short preganglionic fibers. E. it has short postganglionic fibers.
37. If a cell has  1 adrenergic receptors, it is sensitive to A. acetylcholine (ACh). B. norepinephrine (NE). C. adrenalin. D. alpha adrenalin. E. nicotine.
38. Autonomic function receives input from all these except A. spinal cord. B. cerebral cortex. C. hypothalamus. D. medulla oblongata. E. somatic branch of the peripheral nervous system.
39. What taste sensation is associated with the taste produced by amino acids such as aspartic and glutamic acid? A. salty B. umami C. bitter D. sweet E. sour
40. Taste signals travel from the tongue through the facial and glossopharyngeal nerves. True False
41. Stimuli produced by sound waves reach the brain following the pathway: A. cochlear duct  spiral organ  ossicles  oval window  auditory canal  tympanic membrane  fibers of cochlear nerve B. auditory canal  tympanic membrane  oval window  cochlear duct  ossicles  spiral organ  fibers of cochlear nerve C. cochlear duct  oval window  auditory canal  tympanic membrane  ossicles  spiral organ  fibers of cochlear nerve D. tympanic membrane  auditory canal  ossicles  oval window  cochlear duct  spiral organ  fibers of cochlear nerve E. auditory canal  tympanic membrane  ossicles  oval window  cochlear duct  spiral organ  fibers of cochlear nerve

42. The crista ampullaris is associated with A. static equilibrium related to standing still. B. dynamic equilibrium related to linear acceleration. C. dynamic equilibrium related to angular acceleration. D. hearing related to high-pith sounds. E. vision related to color.
43. In order for a molecule to be detected by the olfactory neurons, it must A. be present in high concentrations. B. be one of the seven primary classes of odors. C. be dissolved in fluid covering the olfactory epithelium. D. interact with the mechanoreceptors of the olfactory hair membrane. E. enter the nose slowly.
44. Arrange the following in correct sequence: (1) gustatory cell depolarizes (2) action potential stimulated in gustatory neurons (3) food substance dissolves in saliva (4) neurotransmitter released by gustatory cell (5) food substance enters taste pore and attaches to receptor on gustatory hair A. 5, 4, 1, 2, 3 B. 3, 5, 1, 4, 2 C. 5, 3, 1, 4, 2 D. 3, 1, 4, 5, 2 E. 3, 2, 1, 5, 4
45. Half of the fibers of each optic nerve decussate in the ___ before reaching the visual cortex. A. superior colliculus B. optic chiasm C. lateral geniculate nucleus of the thalamus D. optic foramen E. midbrain
46. A/An ___ eye does not need a corrective lens to focus the image. A. hyperopic B. myopic C. presbyopic D. emmetropic E. astigmatic
47. Nerve fibers from all regions of the retina converge on the ___ and exit the eye by way of the optic nerve. A. macula lutea B. blind spot C. fovea centralis D. ora serrata E. lens
48. Why does a person's nose run when he cries? A. Tears drain into the nasal cavity via the nasolacrimal duct. B. Parasympathetic nerve stimulation causes the nose to secrete mucus. C. Intense stimulation of the facial nerve as a result of crying increases nasal secretions. D. The lacrimal glands secrete tears directly into the nose. E. This stimulates fluid production in the nose.

49. To focus on objects closer than 20 feet, A. the lens must become flatter. B. the cornea must move inward. C. the ciliary muscles must contract. D. the suspensory ligaments increase tension on the lens. E. the retina must bend.
50. Rhodopsin is found in the A. rods. B. cones. C. choroid. D. pigmented retina. E. amacrine cells. Fill in the Blank

51. ___ cartilage is the most abundant type of cartilage, and lacks any significant fibers.
52. Stratified squamous epithelium that is particularly subject to abrasion may be filled with an intracellular protein, ___.
53. Unique to the urogenital system, ___ epithelium is comprise of round cells that comprise just a few layers.
54. ___ glands produce waxy secretions and are found in the auditory canal.
55. The buildup of bilirubin in the skin produces the condition, ___.
56. Hair that is found on the scalp, eye brows, armpits, and genitalia is called ___ hair.
57. Small glial cells that act as phagocytes in the CNS are called ___.
58. Motor neurons and most CNS neurons are structurally classified as ___.
59. ___ leak channels are found throughout the axolemma and allow the RMP to be established and reestablished.
60. The ___ is the period of time following an action potential where all Na+ gates are closed, and the cell membrane is hyperpolarized.
61. ___ synapses are those that have a direct physical connection between neurons, with gap-junctions bridging.
62. ___occurs when EPSPs from several different synapses result in a stronger cumulative depolarization that any of the individual EPSPs alone.
63. The incidence of ___defects, such as spina bifida, may be reduced substantially by prenatal folic acid supplementation.
64. Gray matter is found near the ventricles and at the surface of the ___ and the cerebrum.
65. The muscles of mastication are innervated by cranial nerve number ___.
66. As part of the sympathetic nervous system, the ___ secretes catecholamines directly into the blood.
67. The ___ is the region of the brain that is the primary center of autonomic control.
68. Which acetylcholine receptor would you expect to find on the heart?
69. Tastants must pass through the ___ in order to access and bind receptors on the taste hairs.

70. The utricle and saccule detect static equilibrium and ___.
71. The inertia of the ___ is important to the function of the semicircular ducts.
72. The ___ is a pit in the center of the macula lutea that has the highest concentration of cones and is responsible for the high resolution of your color vision.
73. The ___ of the retina is high in melanin and is partly responsible for your visual acuity.
74. Constriction of the pupil is accomplished by cranial nerve ___ (number).
75. The site of greatest refraction in the eye is the ___.

1) E

2) C

3) C

4) B

5) B

6) D

7) B

8) B

9) D

10) B

11) D

12) C

13) D

14) A

15) D

16) C

17) D

18) E

19) E

20) C

21) C

22) E

23) D

24) B

25) C

26) C

27) D

28) B

29) D

30) E

31) A

32) A

33) C

34) C

35) B

36) D

37) C

38) A

39) B

40) A

41) D

42) C

43) C

44) B

45) B

46) D

47) B

48) A

49) C

50) A

51. Hyaline
52. Keratin
53. Transitional
54. Ceruminous
55. Jaundice
56. Terminal
57. Microglia
58. Multipolar
59. K+
60. Relative refractory period
61. Electrical
62. Spatial summation
63. Neural tube
64. Cerebellum
65. V
66. Adrenal medulla
67. Hypothalamus
68. Muscarinic
69. Taste pore
70. Linear acceleration
71. Endolymph
72. Fovea (centralis)
73. Pigmented epithelium
74. III
75. Cornea